Pathophysiology Trivia Quiz: Test Your Digestive System Knowledge!
Welcome to this pathophysiology trivia quiz that is perfect to test your digestive system knowledge! The system is tasked with breaking down the food we ingest and taking in the important nutrients and keeping getting rid of the unwanted elements in the food. Look it up and get to see how much more you get to understand the system.
- 1.
What does the term hemoptysis refer to?
- A.
Thick, dark red sputum associated with pneumococcal infection
- B.
Reddish-brown granular blood found in vomitus
- C.
Bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum
- D.
Bloody exudate in the pleural cavity
Correct Answer
C. Bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputumExplanation
Hemoptysis refers to the presence of bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum. This is commonly seen in conditions such as bronchitis, pneumonia, or tuberculosis, where there is bleeding in the respiratory tract. The blood appears bright red because it is fresh and has not been digested or altered by the digestive system. The frothy sputum is a result of mixing blood with mucus and air from the lungs. It is important to identify hemoptysis as it can be a sign of a serious underlying condition that needs medical attention.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?
- A.
Parietal cells
- B.
Chief cells
- C.
Mucosal
- D.
Gastrin cells
Correct Answer
A. Parietal cellsExplanation
Parietal cells are responsible for producing both intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid in the gastric mucosa. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine, while hydrochloric acid helps in the breakdown of food and kills bacteria in the stomach. Chief cells, on the other hand, produce pepsinogen, an inactive enzyme that is later converted to pepsin for protein digestion. Mucosal cells are involved in the secretion of mucus to protect the stomach lining, and gastrin cells produce the hormone gastrin, which stimulates the release of gastric acid.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
In the liver, amino acids are used to produce complex molecules by means of
- A.
Glycogenesis
- B.
Anabolic processes
- C.
Catabolic processes
- D.
Autodigestion
Correct Answer
B. Anabolic processesExplanation
In the liver, amino acids are used to produce complex molecules through anabolic processes. Anabolic processes refer to the metabolic pathways that build larger and more complex molecules from smaller ones. In this case, amino acids are the building blocks that are used to synthesize proteins, enzymes, and other important molecules in the liver. This process requires energy and is essential for growth, repair, and maintenance of liver tissues.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
- A.
Stomach
- B.
Duodenum
- C.
Ileum
- D.
Ascending colon
Correct Answer
C. IleumExplanation
The ileum is the primary site for absorption of nutrients in the digestive system. It is the final section of the small intestine, located between the jejunum and the large intestine. The walls of the ileum are lined with tiny finger-like projections called villi, which greatly increase the surface area available for absorption. These villi contain specialized cells that absorb nutrients such as vitamins, minerals, and carbohydrates. The absorbed nutrients are then transported into the bloodstream and distributed to the rest of the body for energy and other functions.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?
- A.
Gastrin
- B.
Secretin
- C.
Cholecystokinin
- D.
Histamine
Correct Answer
B. SecretinExplanation
Secretin is the correct answer because it is the hormone that stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contain a high bicarbonate ion content. When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, secretin is released from the duodenal mucosa. This hormone then acts on the pancreas, causing it to secrete bicarbonate ions into the duodenum. Bicarbonate ions help to neutralize the acidic chyme, creating a more favorable environment for the digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?
- A.
Amylase
- B.
Peptidase
- C.
Lactase
- D.
Trypsin
Correct Answer
D. TrypsinExplanation
Trypsin breaks down proteins into peptides. It is a digestive enzyme that is produced in the pancreas and released into the small intestine. Trypsin works by cleaving peptide bonds, which are the bonds that hold amino acids together in a protein molecule. This process of breaking down proteins into smaller peptides is an essential step in the digestion and absorption of proteins in the body.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?
- A.
Pancreas
- B.
Liver
- C.
Small intestine
- D.
Spleen
Correct Answer
B. LiverExplanation
The liver is the correct answer because it plays a crucial role in the circulatory system. It receives oxygenated blood from the hepatic artery and nutrient-rich but unoxygenated blood from the hepatic portal vein. These two types of blood mix in the liver's sinusoids, allowing the liver to perform its functions, such as detoxification, metabolism, and storage of nutrients.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?
- A.
Sympathetic nervous system
- B.
Vagus nerve
- C.
Increased saliva
- D.
Absense of food in the system
Correct Answer
B. Vagus nerveExplanation
The vagus nerve stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract. The vagus nerve is part of the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "rest and digest" response in the body. When the vagus nerve is activated, it sends signals to the digestive organs to increase their activity, including peristalsis (the movement of food through the digestive tract) and secretions (such as stomach acid and digestive enzymes). This helps to break down food and absorb nutrients more efficiently.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?
- A.
Bicarbonate ion
- B.
Hydrochloric acid
- C.
Activated digestive enzyme
- D.
Insulin
Correct Answer
A. Bicarbonate ionExplanation
Pancreatic exocrine secretions contain bicarbonate ions. These ions help to neutralize the acidic chyme that enters the small intestine from the stomach. This is important because the enzymes that are released into the small intestine by the pancreas to aid in digestion work best in a slightly alkaline environment. Therefore, the presence of bicarbonate ions in pancreatic exocrine secretions helps to create an optimal pH for digestion in the small intestine.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
An alkaline environment is required in the duodenum to:
- A.
Activate pepsinogen
- B.
Activate intestinal and pancreatic enzymes
- C.
Activate bile salts
- D.
Produce mucus
Correct Answer
B. Activate intestinal and pancreatic enzymesExplanation
The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where digestion continues after food leaves the stomach. It is important to have an alkaline environment in the duodenum to activate intestinal and pancreatic enzymes. These enzymes, such as amylase, lipase, and proteases, require an alkaline pH to function optimally and break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. Without the alkaline environment, these enzymes would not be able to perform their digestive functions effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body immediately after a meal?
- A.
Lypolysis
- B.
Ketogenesis
- C.
Gluconeogenesis
- D.
Glycogenesis
Correct Answer
D. GlycogenesisExplanation
After a meal, the body typically has an excess of glucose in the bloodstream. To prevent high blood sugar levels, the body converts this excess glucose into glycogen through a process called glycogenesis. Glycogenesis occurs in the liver and muscles, where glucose molecules are linked together to form glycogen, which can be stored and later broken down to release glucose when needed. This process helps regulate blood sugar levels and ensures a steady supply of energy for the body.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?
- A.
Breakdown of glycogen to produce glucose
- B.
Coversion of excess glucose into glycogen for storage
- C.
Formation of glucose from protein and fat
- D.
Breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water
Correct Answer
C. Formation of glucose from protein and fatExplanation
Gluconeogenesis refers to the formation of glucose from protein and fat. This metabolic pathway occurs primarily in the liver and kidneys when there is a need for glucose, such as during fasting or prolonged exercise. It allows the body to maintain blood glucose levels by converting non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids from proteins and glycerol from fats, into glucose. This process is important for providing energy to the brain and other tissues that rely on glucose as a fuel source.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Peptide hormones
- B.
Clotting factors and antibodies
- C.
Cellular energy
- D.
Hemoglobin
Correct Answer
C. Cellular energyExplanation
Proteins or amino acids are required for the production of peptide hormones, clotting factors and antibodies, and hemoglobin. However, they are not directly involved in the production of cellular energy. Cellular energy is primarily produced through processes such as glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation, which involve the breakdown of glucose and other molecules. These processes primarily rely on the production of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) rather than proteins or amino acids.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?
- A.
They give feces the characteristic brown color
- B.
They are enzymes used to break down fats into free fatty acids
- C.
They emulsify lipids and lipid soluble vitamins
- D.
They are excreted in the feces
Correct Answer
C. They emulsify lipids and lipid soluble vitaminsExplanation
Bile salts are responsible for emulsifying lipids and lipid soluble vitamins. Emulsification is the process of breaking down large fat globules into smaller droplets, making it easier for enzymes to break down fats during digestion. This allows for better absorption of lipids and lipid soluble vitamins in the small intestine. The other statements are incorrect as bile salts do not give feces their characteristic brown color, they are not enzymes themselves, and they are not excreted in the feces.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
The visceral peritoneum
- A.
Lines the abdominal wall
- B.
Hangs from the stomach over the loops of the small intestine
- C.
Forms the outer covering of the stomach and intestines
- D.
Covers the kidney and bladder
- E.
Contains many pain receptors
Correct Answer
C. Forms the outer covering of the stomach and intestinesExplanation
The visceral peritoneum forms the outer covering of the stomach and intestines. The peritoneum is a thin, serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the organs within it. The visceral peritoneum specifically covers the external surface of the stomach and intestines, providing a protective layer and allowing for smooth movement of the organs during digestion and other abdominal activities.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
The early stage of vomiting causes
- A.
Metabolic alkalosis
- B.
Metabolic acidosis
- C.
Increased respirations
- D.
Increased excretion of hydrogen ions
Correct Answer
A. Metabolic alkalosisExplanation
The early stage of vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis because when a person vomits, they lose stomach acid which is acidic in nature. This loss of acid leads to an increase in the pH level of the blood, resulting in alkalosis. Additionally, vomiting can also cause a loss of electrolytes like potassium and chloride, further contributing to metabolic alkalosis.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Prolonged vomiting cause a state of acidosis due to:
- A.
Catabolism of proteins and lipids
- B.
Continued loss of gastric secretions
- C.
Loss of pancreatic enzymes
- D.
Retention of sodium ions and water
Correct Answer
A. Catabolism of proteins and lipidsExplanation
Prolonged vomiting can lead to a state of acidosis because it causes the catabolism (breakdown) of proteins and lipids. When vomiting occurs for an extended period, the body starts breaking down its own proteins and lipids as a source of energy. This catabolism releases acidic byproducts, which can accumulate in the body and disrupt the acid-base balance, resulting in acidosis.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
What is the first change in arterial blood gases with diarrhea?
- A.
Increased bicarbonate ion
- B.
Decreased bicarbonate ion
- C.
Increased carbonic acid
- D.
Increased serum pH
Correct Answer
B. Decreased bicarbonate ionExplanation
With diarrhea, there is an excessive loss of bicarbonate ions through the gastrointestinal tract. Bicarbonate ions play a crucial role in maintaining the acid-base balance in the body. Their decreased levels result in a decrease in the overall bicarbonate concentration in the arterial blood gases. This leads to a condition called metabolic acidosis, where there is an excess of acid in the blood. Consequently, the correct answer is "Decreased bicarbonate ion."Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Dehydration causes acidosis because of increased:
- A.
Ketones produced
- B.
CO2 retained in the lungs and kidneys
- C.
Hypovolemia and lactic acid production
- D.
Metabolic rate
Correct Answer
C. Hypovolemia and lactic acid productionExplanation
Dehydration can lead to hypovolemia, which is a decrease in blood volume. This decrease in blood volume can cause a decrease in blood flow to organs and tissues, leading to tissue hypoxia. In response to tissue hypoxia, the body produces lactic acid as a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism. This lactic acid production can contribute to acidosis, which is an imbalance in the body's pH levels. Therefore, hypovolemia and lactic acid production are correct explanations for why dehydration can cause acidosis.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?
- A.
Requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII
- B.
Is entirely voluntary
- C.
Is controlled by a center in the hypothalamus
- D.
Does not effect respiration
Correct Answer
A. Requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XIIExplanation
Swallowing requires coordination of multiple cranial nerves, including V (trigeminal), IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), and XII (hypoglossal). These nerves are responsible for various aspects of the swallowing process, such as sensory input, motor control of muscles involved, and coordination with other structures. Swallowing is not entirely voluntary, as it can also be triggered reflexively. The hypothalamus does not control swallowing; instead, it is regulated by the medulla oblongata. Swallowing does not directly affect respiration, as there are separate pathways for swallowing and breathing to prevent interference.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
What does the defecation reflex require?
- A.
Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system
- B.
Contraction of the internal anal sphincter
- C.
Coordination through the sacral spinal cord
- D.
Voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles
Correct Answer
C. Coordination through the sacral spinal cordExplanation
The defecation reflex requires coordination through the sacral spinal cord. This means that when the rectum is distended, sensory signals are sent to the sacral spinal cord, which then coordinates the appropriate motor response. The sacral spinal cord communicates with the muscles of the rectum and anus to initiate the relaxation of the internal anal sphincter and contraction of the external anal sphincter, allowing for the passage of feces. This coordination ensures the proper timing and control of the defecation process.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
What is the definition of achalasia?
- A.
A herniation of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle
- B.
Recurrent reflux of chyme into the esophagus
- C.
Absence of a connection between the esophagus to the stomach
- D.
Lack of a nerve plexus to relax the lower esophageal sphincter
Correct Answer
D. Lack of a nerve plexus to relax the lower esopHageal spHincterExplanation
The correct answer is "Lack of a nerve plexus to relax the lower esophageal sphincter." Achalasia is a disorder characterized by the inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax properly due to the absence or degeneration of the nerve cells in the esophageal wall. This results in difficulty in swallowing and the accumulation of food in the esophagus.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
What does esophageal atresia cause?
- A.
Direct passage of saliva and food from the mouth into the trachea
- B.
Repeated reflex of gastric secretions into the esophagus
- C.
No fluid or food entering the stomach
- D.
Gastric distention and cramps
Correct Answer
C. No fluid or food entering the stomachExplanation
Esophageal atresia is a condition where the esophagus does not properly connect to the stomach. This causes a blockage, preventing any fluid or food from entering the stomach. Therefore, the correct answer is "No fluid or food entering the stomach."Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Which of the following applies to the cleft palate?
- A.
The mandibular processes do not fuse
- B.
The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of pregnancy
- C.
Exposure to enviromental factors in the last trimester causes the defect
- D.
Speech and eating are not affected
Correct Answer
B. The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of pregnancyExplanation
The correct answer is that the hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of pregnancy. This is a characteristic of cleft palate, where there is a gap or split in the roof of the mouth. It occurs when the tissues of the palate do not fully join together during fetal development. This can lead to difficulties with feeding, speech, and other oral functions.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Oral candidiasis is considered to
- A.
Be a common bacterial infection in infants and young children
- B.
Cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue
- C.
Cause white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scratched off
- D.
Be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
Correct Answer
D. Be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouthExplanation
Oral candidiasis is considered to be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth. This means that it is caused by the fungus Candida, which normally exists in the mouth but can overgrow and cause an infection when the immune system is weakened. It is not a bacterial infection, as stated in the first option. Oral candidiasis can cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue, as mentioned in the second option. It also causes white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scratched off, as stated in the third option. Therefore, the correct answer is that oral candidiasis is an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?
- A.
Active infection is usually asymptomatic
- B.
The virus builds up a resistance
- C.
The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia
- D.
The virus mutates; therefore, no effective immunity develops
Correct Answer
C. The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve gangliaExplanation
The reason why herpes simplex infection tends to recur is because the virus persists in a latent form in sensory nerve ganglia. This means that even after the initial infection clears up, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells. When certain triggers such as stress, illness, or weakened immune system occur, the virus can reactivate and cause new outbreaks of infection. This is why individuals with herpes may experience recurrent episodes of symptoms throughout their lifetime.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
What does the term periodontitis refer to?
- A.
Erosion of the enamel tooth surface
- B.
Bacterial damage to the ligaments and bone surrounding teeth
- C.
Inflammation and infection of the gingivae
- D.
Formation of calcified plaque on the tooth
Correct Answer
B. Bacterial damage to the ligaments and bone surrounding teethExplanation
Periodontitis refers to bacterial damage to the ligaments and bone surrounding teeth. This condition is characterized by inflammation and infection of the gingivae, which can lead to the destruction of the supporting structures of the teeth. If left untreated, periodontitis can cause tooth loss and other oral health complications.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
What is/are common location(s) for oral cancer?
- A.
Floor of the mouth or tongue borders
- B.
Mucosa lining the cheeks
- C.
Hard and soft palate
- D.
Gingivae near the teeth
Correct Answer
A. Floor of the mouth or tongue bordersExplanation
Oral cancer commonly occurs in the floor of the mouth or the borders of the tongue. These locations are susceptible to oral cancer due to their exposure to various irritants, such as tobacco, alcohol, and viral infections. The floor of the mouth and tongue borders also have a high concentration of saliva glands, which can contribute to the development of cancerous cells. Early detection and regular dental check-ups are important in identifying oral cancer in these areas and increasing the chances of successful treatment.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?
- A.
An abnormally long esophagus
- B.
Increased intra-abdominal pressure
- C.
Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm
- D.
A small fundus in the stomach
Correct Answer
B. Increased intra-abdominal pressureExplanation
Hiatal hernia occurs when the upper part of the stomach bulges through the diaphragm into the chest cavity. Increased intra-abdominal pressure is a common cause of hiatal hernia. This pressure can be caused by factors such as obesity, pregnancy, heavy lifting, straining during bowel movements, or persistent coughing or vomiting. The increased pressure pushes the stomach upward, causing it to protrude through the diaphragm opening. This can lead to symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, difficulty swallowing, and regurgitation.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
What is a common sign of acute gastritis?
- A.
Colicky right upper quadrant pain
- B.
Vomitting with epigastric tenderness
- C.
Projectile vomitting after eating
- D.
Diarrhea with abdominal distention
Correct Answer
B. Vomitting with epigastric tendernessExplanation
Vomiting with epigastric tenderness is a common sign of acute gastritis. Acute gastritis is an inflammation of the stomach lining that can be caused by various factors such as infection, medication, or excessive alcohol consumption. Vomiting is a common symptom of gastritis, and the presence of epigastric tenderness suggests inflammation in the upper part of the abdomen, which is consistent with the condition. The other options do not specifically indicate gastritis or its associated symptoms.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?
- A.
Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions
- B.
Hyperchlorhydria and chronic peptic ulcers
- C.
Frequent vomitting and diarrhea
- D.
Episodes of acute inflammation and edema of the mucosa
Correct Answer
A. AtropHy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretionsExplanation
The pathophysiology of chronic gastritis includes atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions. This means that the lining of the stomach becomes thinner and the cells responsible for producing stomach acid and other digestive enzymes are reduced in number. This can lead to a decrease in the production of stomach acid and digestive enzymes, which can impair the digestion and absorption of nutrients.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?
- A.
Unrefridgerated custards or salad dressings
- B.
Poorly canned foods
- C.
Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs
- D.
Contaminated water
Correct Answer
C. Raw or undercooked poultry or eggsExplanation
Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs can be a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella. Salmonella is a type of bacteria that can contaminate poultry and eggs, and when these food items are not cooked properly, the bacteria can survive and cause infection when consumed. Cooking poultry and eggs thoroughly kills the bacteria and reduces the risk of gastroenteritis.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?
- A.
A long term, heavy cigarette smoker
- B.
Patient with arthritis taking enteric-coated aspirin on a daily basis
- C.
A person with an autoimmune reaction in the gastric mucosa
- D.
An individual with an allergy to shellfish
Correct Answer
D. An individual with an allergy to shellfishExplanation
An individual with an allergy to shellfish is likely to develop acute gastritis because allergies can cause inflammation in the stomach lining. Shellfish allergies can trigger an immune response in the body, leading to symptoms such as stomach pain, nausea, and vomiting. This immune reaction can also cause irritation and inflammation in the gastric mucosa, which can result in acute gastritis.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve?
- A.
Absence of peristalsis in the lower section of the stomach
- B.
Failure of an opening to develop between the stomach and duodenum
- C.
Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of smooth muscle in the pylorus
- D.
Thickening of the gastric wall due to chronic inflammation
Correct Answer
C. HypertropHy and hyperplasia of smooth muscle in the pylorusExplanation
Congenital pyloric stenosis involves the hypertrophy and hyperplasia of smooth muscle in the pylorus. This condition causes the muscles in the pylorus, which is the opening between the stomach and the small intestine, to become abnormally thickened and enlarged. This results in a narrowing of the pylorus, leading to obstruction of food passage from the stomach to the intestine.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely:
- A.
Have an increase in appetite
- B.
Have chronic diarrhea
- C.
Develop severe colicky pains
- D.
Vomit undigested foods from previous meals
Correct Answer
D. Vomit undigested foods from previous mealsExplanation
A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely vomit undigested foods from previous meals. Pyloric stenosis is a condition where the opening between the stomach and small intestine becomes narrowed, causing food to be unable to pass through easily. This leads to frequent vomiting, often of partially digested or undigested food from previous meals. The other options, such as an increase in appetite, chronic diarrhea, and severe colicky pains, are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Prolonged or severe stress predisposes to peptic ulcer disease because:
- A.
Of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands
- B.
Of reduced bicarbonate content in bile and pancreatic secretions
- C.
Stress increases the number of acid/pepsinogen secreting cells
- D.
Increased epinephrine increases motility
Correct Answer
A. Of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glandsExplanation
Prolonged or severe stress can lead to peptic ulcer disease because it reduces blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands. This reduced blood flow can impair the ability of the gastric wall and mucous glands to protect the stomach lining from the damaging effects of stomach acid and pepsin. Without proper blood flow, the stomach lining becomes more susceptible to damage and the development of ulcers.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
The pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease may involve any of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Decreased resistance of the mucosal barrier
- B.
Increased stimulation of pepsin and acid secretions
- C.
Infection by H. pylori
- D.
Increased stimulation of mucus-producting glands
Correct Answer
D. Increased stimulation of mucus-producting glandsExplanation
Peptic ulcer disease is characterized by the formation of open sores in the lining of the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine. The pathophysiology of this condition involves various factors. Decreased resistance of the mucosal barrier refers to a weakened protective layer that normally prevents damage to the stomach lining. Increased stimulation of pepsin and acid secretions results in increased acidity in the stomach, which can contribute to the development of ulcers. Infection by H. pylori is a well-known cause of peptic ulcers, as the bacteria can damage the protective mucosal layer. However, increased stimulation of mucus-producing glands is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?
- A.
Severe anemia
- B.
Chemical peritonitis
- C.
Severe gastric hemorrhage
- D.
Pyloric obstruction
Correct Answer
B. Chemical peritonitisExplanation
A perforated gastric ulcer is a condition where a hole forms in the stomach lining, allowing stomach acid and other contents to leak into the abdominal cavity. This leakage can lead to chemical peritonitis, which is inflammation of the lining of the abdominal cavity due to the presence of irritants such as stomach acid. This can cause severe pain, fever, and abdominal tenderness. Therefore, chemical peritonitis is the likely consequence of a perforated gastric ulcer.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?
- A.
Abdominal discomfort between meals and at night
- B.
Nausea and diarrhea
- C.
Hematemesis and hypotension
- D.
Sharp colicky pain with food intake
Correct Answer
C. Hematemesis and hypotensionExplanation
Hematemesis and hypotension are frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers. Hematemesis refers to the vomiting of blood, which can occur when the ulcers in the stomach or duodenum bleed. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, may also be present due to the blood loss. These symptoms are often indicative of a severe and potentially life-threatening condition, requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal discomfort between meals and at night, nausea and diarrhea, and sharp colicky pain with food intake are not typically the first signs of stress ulcers.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
What would be the result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma?
- A.
Occult blood in the stool and anemia
- B.
Hematemesis and shock
- C.
Abdominal pain and distention
- D.
Red blood on the surface of the stool
Correct Answer
A. Occult blood in the stool and anemiaExplanation
Chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma can lead to occult blood in the stool and anemia. Occult blood refers to blood that is not visible to the naked eye but can be detected through laboratory tests. Gastric carcinoma is a type of stomach cancer, and chronic bleeding from this condition can result in small amounts of blood being present in the stool over time. This can lead to the development of anemia, which is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood. Therefore, the presence of occult blood in the stool and anemia would be the expected result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Following gastric resection, the onset of nausea, cramps, and dizziness immediately after meals indicates:
- A.
A large volume of chyme has entered the intestines, causing distention
- B.
Severe hypoglycemia has developed
- C.
The pylorus is restricting the flow of chyme
- D.
Bile and pancreatic secretions are irritating the small intestine
Correct Answer
A. A large volume of chyme has entered the intestines, causing distentionExplanation
After gastric resection, the stomach is smaller and has a reduced capacity to hold food. Therefore, if a large volume of chyme (partially digested food) enters the intestines immediately after meals, it can cause distention. This distention can lead to symptoms such as nausea, cramps, and dizziness. The other options, such as severe hypoglycemia, pylorus restriction, or irritation by bile and pancreatic secretions, do not directly explain the symptoms of nausea, cramps, and dizziness immediately after meals.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Which of the following is/are (a) manifestation(s) of hemolytic jaundice?
- A.
Increased unconjugated bilirubin in the blood
- B.
Increased bleeding tendencies
- C.
Pale stool and dark urine
- D.
Elevated liver enzymes in the blood
Correct Answer
A. Increased unconjugated bilirubin in the bloodExplanation
Hemolytic jaundice is characterized by an increase in unconjugated bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are broken down. In hemolytic jaundice, there is an excessive breakdown of red blood cells, leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin levels. This can result in yellowing of the skin and eyes, a condition known as jaundice. Increased bleeding tendencies, pale stool, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes are not specific manifestations of hemolytic jaundice.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Why does mild hyperbilirubinemia occur in newborns?
- A.
Blood incompatibility between mother and child
- B.
There is damage to many erythrocytes during the birth process
- C.
Poor circulation and albumin transport for bilirubin
- D.
The immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly enough
Correct Answer
D. The immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly enoughExplanation
Mild hyperbilirubinemia occurs in newborns because their immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly enough. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are broken down. In newborns, the liver is still developing and may not be able to efficiently process and eliminate bilirubin from the body. This can lead to a buildup of bilirubin in the blood, resulting in mild hyperbilirubinemia.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Predisposing factors to cholelithiasis include excessive:
- A.
Bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bile
- B.
Water content in the bile
- C.
Bile salts in the bile
- D.
Bicarbonate ions in the bile
Correct Answer
A. Bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bileExplanation
Excessive bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bile can predispose an individual to cholelithiasis, which is the formation of gallstones. When there is an imbalance in the bile composition, it can lead to the formation of solid particles, such as cholesterol or bilirubin, that can clump together and form gallstones. These stones can obstruct the bile ducts and cause symptoms such as abdominal pain and jaundice. Therefore, an excessive concentration of bilirubin or cholesterol in the bile is a predisposing factor for cholelithiasis.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
What is the major effect when a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct?
- A.
Intrahepatic jaundice
- B.
Acute pancreatitis
- C.
Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant
- D.
Inflammation and infection in the gall bladder
Correct Answer
C. Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrantExplanation
When a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct, it can cause severe colicky pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. This is because the obstruction prevents the flow of bile from the gallbladder to the small intestine, leading to distension and increased pressure in the gallbladder. The resulting pain is often described as intermittent and cramp-like, and it can be quite intense. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, and fever. Intrahepatic jaundice, acute pancreatitis, and inflammation and infection in the gallbladder are not the major effects of cystic duct obstruction.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?
- A.
Bile is no longer available for digestion
- B.
Bile is stored in the liver sinusoids until a fatty meal is consumed
- C.
Bile is not diluted and is less effective as an emulsifier
- D.
Small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenum
Correct Answer
D. Small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenumExplanation
After a cholecystectomy, the gallbladder is removed, but the liver still continues to produce bile. The bile is then secreted in small amounts and flows directly into the duodenum, which is the first part of the small intestine. This allows for the digestion and absorption of fats in the absence of the gallbladder. Therefore, small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenum after a cholecystectomy.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?
- A.
It is also called serum hepatitis
- B.
It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route
- C.
It contains a double strand of DNA
- D.
It frequently leads to chronic hepatitis
Correct Answer
B. It is transmitted by the fecal-oral routeExplanation
Hepatitis A infection is transmitted by the fecal-oral route, meaning that the virus is spread through contaminated food, water, or objects that have come into contact with the feces of an infected person. This mode of transmission occurs when a person ingests the virus by consuming contaminated food or water. It is important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands thoroughly and avoiding consumption of contaminated food or water, to prevent the spread of hepatitis A infection.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?
- A.
Acute infection is present
- B.
Chronic infection has developed
- C.
Liver failure is in progress
- D.
The usual prolonged recovery from any viral infection is occuring
Correct Answer
B. Chronic infection has developedExplanation
If the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum, it can be concluded that chronic infection has developed. This is because the persistence of high antigen levels indicates an ongoing and long-term infection rather than an acute infection which would typically result in a decline in antigen levels over time. Chronic hepatitis B infection can lead to serious liver damage and complications if left untreated.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?
- A.
HAV
- B.
HBV
- C.
HCV
- D.
HEV
Correct Answer
C. HCVExplanation
HCV, or Hepatitis C Virus, is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted through blood transfusion. Unlike HAV and HEV, which are primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water, HCV is mainly spread through contact with infected blood. HBV, another type of hepatitis, can also be transmitted through blood transfusion, but HCV is more prevalent in this mode of transmission.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What causes elevated serum levels of AST and ALT during the preicteric stage of hepatitis?
- A.
Systemic effects of viral infection
- B.
Obstruction of bile ducts and malabsorption
- C.
Necrosis of liver cells
- D.
Ammonia toxicity
Correct Answer
C. Necrosis of liver cellsExplanation
During the preicteric stage of hepatitis, the liver cells undergo necrosis, which leads to the release of liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) into the bloodstream. These enzymes are normally present inside liver cells and their elevated levels in the serum indicate liver cell damage. Therefore, necrosis of liver cells is the cause of elevated serum levels of AST and ALT during the preicteric stage of hepatitis.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Apr 14, 2019Quiz Created by
Belinda
- Computed Tomography Quizzes
- EEG Quizzes
- First Aid Quizzes
- GCP Quizzes
- Healing Quizzes
- Mammography Quizzes
- Medical Coding Quizzes
- Medical Science Quizzes
- Medical Term Quizzes
- Medical Terminology Quizzes
- Medical Training Quizzes
- Medical Vocabulary Quizzes
- MRI Quizzes
- Nuclear Medicine Quizzes
- Obstetrics And Gynecology Quizzes
- Phlebotomy Quizzes
- Pulmonary Quizzes
- Radiography Quizzes
- Radiology Quizzes
- Syndrome Quizzes
- Ultrasound Quizzes
- Vital Signs Quizzes
- Xray Quizzes
Back to top