Tll 6th National Law Quiz Finals 2019
TOTAL TIME LIMIT - 9 MINUTES
- 1.
The recent verdict, which is well known as the Sabarimala judgement was pronounced by the Supreme Court, 4:1, where Justice Indu Malhotra dissented. Name the ruling.
- A.
Public Interest Lawyers Association of Kerala v. Union of India
- B.
Public Interest Lawyers Association of Kerala v. State of Kerala
- C.
Mahadevi Lakshmi Temple v. State of Kerala
- D.
Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala
Correct Answer
D. Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala -
- 2.
Which of the following did not comprise in the 5 Judge Constitutional Bench decision, striking down Section 377 to the extent that it criminalizes consensual homo sexual acts?
- A.
Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- B.
Justice Dipak Misra
- C.
Justice Indu Malhotra
- D.
Justice J.S. Khehar
Correct Answer
D. Justice J.S. Khehar -
- 3.
Which of the following Provision provided for the offence of Adultery in the Indian Penal Code, which was lately struck down by the Apex Court.
- A.
Section 498
- B.
Section 499
- C.
Section 496
- D.
Section 497
Correct Answer
D. Section 497Explanation
Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code provided for the offence of Adultery. However, it was struck down by the Apex Court, meaning it is no longer valid or enforceable.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The Constitution [103rd] Amendment Act was assented to by the President on 12th January 2019. The Bill was passed in the Lok Sabha as well as the Rajya Sabha. How many members in total were against the bill, in both the Lok Sabha as well as the Rajya Sabha?
- A.
29
- B.
19
- C.
36
- D.
10
Correct Answer
D. 10 -
- 5.
Lately, the Parliament moved on to remove Leprosy as a ground of divorce in various Personal Laws. Which of the following is a statute which was not amended by way of this decision?
- A.
Hindu Marriage Act
- B.
Parsi Marriages Act
- C.
Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
- D.
Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act
Correct Answer
B. Parsi Marriages ActExplanation
The given question is asking which statute was not amended by the decision to remove leprosy as a ground for divorce in various Personal Laws. The correct answer is the Parsi Marriages Act. This means that the Parliament did not make any changes to the Parsi Marriages Act regarding the removal of leprosy as a ground for divorce.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How many times till date has the The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Ordinance [Triple Talaq Ordinance] been repromulgated till date?
- A.
0
- B.
1
- C.
2
- D.
3
Correct Answer
B. 1Explanation
The correct answer is 1. This means that the Triple Talaq Ordinance has been repromulgated once till date. Repromulgation refers to the reissuing of an ordinance by the President after the expiration of the previous ordinance.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What body got a Constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act 2018?
- A.
National Human Rights Commission
- B.
National Commission for Women
- C.
National Commission for Backward Classes
- D.
NITI Aayog
Correct Answer
C. National Commission for Backward ClassesExplanation
The correct answer is National Commission for Backward Classes. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act 2018 granted Constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes. This means that the commission now has a legal framework and authority to safeguard the rights and interests of backward classes in India. The amendment aims to empower the commission to effectively address the issues faced by backward classes and promote their social and educational development.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following Judge does forms part of the present day Collegium of the Apex Court?
- A.
Justice Madan Lokur
- B.
Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- C.
Justice Indu Malhotra
- D.
Justice S.A. Bobde
Correct Answer
D. Justice S.A. BobdeExplanation
Justice S.A. Bobde forms part of the present day Collegium of the Apex Court.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following recent Report of the Law Commission of India deals with Gambling and Sports betting in India?
- A.
316
- B.
276
- C.
319
- D.
259
Correct Answer
B. 276 -
- 10.
Who was the preceding Solicitor General of India, before Tushar Mehta was appointed in October 2018?
- A.
Mohan Parasaran
- B.
Gopal Subramaniam
- C.
Mukul Rohatgi
- D.
Ranjit Kumar
Correct Answer
D. Ranjit KumarExplanation
Ranjit Kumar was the preceding Solicitor General of India before Tushar Mehta was appointed in October 2018.Rate this question:
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- 11.
If everything goes as per the normal procedure, who shall be appointed as the next Chief Justice of India after CJI Ranjan Gogoi's term expires on 17 November '2019 ?
- A.
Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- B.
Justice N.V. Ramana
- C.
Justice U.U. Lalit
- D.
Justice S.A. Bobde
Correct Answer
D. Justice S.A. BobdeExplanation
Justice S.A. Bobde shall be appointed as the next Chief Justice of India after CJI Ranjan Gogoi's term expires on 17 November 2019.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When was the 25th High Court of India established?
- A.
January 1, 2019
- B.
February 1, 2019
- C.
December 1, 2018
- D.
Not yet established
Correct Answer
A. January 1, 2019Explanation
The 25th High Court of India was established on January 1, 2019.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Triple Talaq was held unconstitutional in 2017 by the Apex Court with a majority of 3:2. Which of the following Judge did not form part of the majority?
- A.
Justice Nariman
- B.
Justice Lalit
- C.
Justice Kurien Joseph
- D.
Justice Khehar
Correct Answer
D. Justice KheharExplanation
Justice Khehar did not form part of the majority in the decision to hold Triple Talaq unconstitutional.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following ruling of the Apex Court criminalized Marital rape for women of the age group 15-19?
- A.
Independent Thought v. Union of India
- B.
Common Caused [Regd. Society] v. Union of India
- C.
Common Cause [Regd. Society] v. Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
D. None of the Above -
- 15.
Who is the first Indian High Court judge to have been sentenced to imprisonment for contempt of Court?
- A.
Justice C.S. Karnan
- B.
Justice Markandey Katju
- C.
Justice A.K. Ganguly
- D.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
A. Justice C.S. KarnanExplanation
Justice C.S. Karnan is the correct answer because he is the first Indian High Court judge to have been sentenced to imprisonment for contempt of Court. This landmark case occurred in 2017 when the Supreme Court of India found Justice Karnan guilty of contempt for making allegations against several judges without any evidence. He was sentenced to six months of imprisonment, making him the first sitting High Court judge to be imprisoned for contempt in the history of Indian judiciary.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following Judge/Judges were recently recommended by the Supreme Court collegium to be appointed as Supreme Court Judges?
- A.
Justice Aniruddha Bose
- B.
Justice A.S. Bopanna
- C.
Neither [a] nor [b]
- D.
Both [a] and [b]
Correct Answer
D. Both [a] and [b]Explanation
Both Justice Aniruddha Bose and Justice A.S. Bopanna were recently recommended by the Supreme Court collegium to be appointed as Supreme Court Judges.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which nation's Apex Court struck down the National Identification and Registration Act?
- A.
Canada
- B.
Sudan
- C.
Jamaica
- D.
West Indies
Correct Answer
C. JamaicaExplanation
The correct answer is Jamaica. Jamaica's Apex Court struck down the National Identification and Registration Act.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The word 'Socialist' was removed from the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by which Amendment ?
- A.
42nd
- B.
44th
- C.
61st
- D.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
D. None of the AboveExplanation
The word 'Socialist' was not removed from the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by any of the mentioned amendments. Therefore, the correct answer is 'None of the Above'.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which Act extended the use of English as an official language alongwith Hindi, even after 15 years of the commencement of the Constitution?
- A.
Indian Languages Act 1966
- B.
Hindi Language Officiating Act 1965
- C.
Official Languages Act 1963
- D.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
C. Official Languages Act 1963Explanation
The Official Languages Act 1963 extended the use of English as an official language along with Hindi, even after 15 years of the commencement of the Constitution. This act recognized the continued use of English for official purposes of the central government, even though Hindi was declared as the official language of the Indian government. This was done to ensure effective communication and administration in the diverse linguistic landscape of India.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which Article provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
- A.
124
- B.
324
- C.
148
- D.
168
Correct Answer
C. 148Explanation
Article 148 of the Indian Constitution provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The Comptroller and Auditor General is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments and ensuring transparency and accountability in the financial management of public funds. This article establishes the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General as an independent authority, separate from the executive, to ensure impartiality in auditing government accounts.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The Parliament of India consists of
- A.
House of People and Council of States
- B.
President, Prime Minister, House of People and Council of States
- C.
House of People, Council of States, Speaker
- D.
House of People, President and Council of States
Correct Answer
D. House of People, President and Council of StatesExplanation
The Parliament of India consists of three main components: the House of People (also known as the Lok Sabha), the President, and the Council of States (also known as the Rajya Sabha). The House of People represents the people of India and is directly elected by them. The President is the head of state and is elected by an electoral college. The Council of States represents the states and union territories of India and its members are elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies. Therefore, the correct answer is "House of People, President, and Council of States."Rate this question:
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- 22.
Directive Principles of State Policy are provided under Articles?
- A.
34-50
- B.
34-50
- C.
35-51
- D.
36-51
Correct Answer
D. 36-51Explanation
The Directive Principles of State Policy are provided under Articles 36-51 of the Indian Constitution. These principles are guidelines or instructions given to the state to promote the welfare of the people and establish a just society. They are not enforceable by any court but are considered fundamental in the governance of the country. These principles cover a wide range of areas such as social justice, economic welfare, international relations, and environmental protection.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How many members of the Anglo Indian Community can the Governor of a state nominate to the Legislative Assembly of the state?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
1/6th
- D.
No such power
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
The Governor of a state can nominate 1 member of the Anglo Indian Community to the Legislative Assembly of the state.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which judge was not on the Bench while deciding the Landmark Apex Court ruling - Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala?
- A.
Justice Iyer
- B.
Justice Palekar
- C.
Justice Mathew
- D.
Justice Reddy
Correct Answer
A. Justice IyerExplanation
Justice Iyer was not on the Bench while deciding the Landmark Apex Court ruling - Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following Union Territories sends their members to the Council of States [Rajya Sabha]?
- A.
Goa and Pondicherry
- B.
Daman, Diu and Chandigarh
- C.
Pondicherry and New Delhi
- D.
New Delhi and Jammu, Kashmir
Correct Answer
C. Pondicherry and New DelhiExplanation
Pondicherry and New Delhi send their members to the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). The Council of States is the upper house of the Parliament of India, and it represents the states and union territories. While Pondicherry is a Union Territory, New Delhi is the capital territory of India. Both territories have representation in the Rajya Sabha, allowing them to have a voice in the legislative process at the national level.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Members of a Gram Panchayat are elected for a period of ?
- A.
4 years
- B.
5 years
- C.
6 years
- D.
Until the Sarpanch dies
Correct Answer
B. 5 yearsExplanation
Members of a Gram Panchayat are elected for a period of 5 years. This is the standard term for elected representatives in local government bodies in India. It allows for a reasonable amount of time for the elected members to implement their plans and policies, and also ensures regular elections to maintain accountability and provide opportunities for new candidates to participate in the democratic process.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with Municipalities?
- A.
6
- B.
3
- C.
11
- D.
12
Correct Answer
D. 12Explanation
Schedule 12 of the Constitution of India deals with Municipalities. This schedule contains provisions for the establishment, composition, powers, and functions of municipalities in the country. It outlines the powers and responsibilities of municipalities in areas such as urban planning, public health, sanitation, and local governance. The schedule also provides for the devolution of powers and functions to municipalities and the establishment of State Election Commissions to conduct municipal elections.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following was not held by the landmark ruling of A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak 1988?
- A.
Legal remedy is a right and cannot be refused by the Court
- B.
Courts can go beyond their competent jurisdiction, if justice is being done.
- C.
Finality is a good thing, but justice is better.
- D.
Neither party of the case is prejudiced by the accidental acts or omissions of the Court
Correct Answer
B. Courts can go beyond their competent jurisdiction, if justice is being done.Explanation
The landmark ruling of A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak 1988 did not hold that courts can go beyond their competent jurisdiction, even if justice is being done.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The total number of Members nominated by the President to both the Lok Sabha[House of Representatives] and Rajya Sabha [Council of States] is ?
- A.
18
- B.
12
- C.
14
- D.
16
Correct Answer
C. 14Explanation
The total number of Members nominated by the President to both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is 14. The President has the power to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha and 2 members to the Lok Sabha. This ensures that the President has the ability to appoint individuals who bring diverse perspectives and expertise to the Parliament, enhancing its functioning and representation.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The minimum age requirement to become the Speaker of Lok Sabha is?
- A.
25
- B.
30
- C.
35
- D.
45
Correct Answer
A. 25Explanation
The minimum age requirement to become the Speaker of Lok Sabha is 25. This means that an individual must be at least 25 years old to hold the position of Speaker in the Lok Sabha, which is the lower house of the Indian Parliament.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a maximum period of ?
- A.
3 Months
- B.
6 Months
- C.
12 Months
- D.
Indefinitely
Correct Answer
B. 6 MonthsExplanation
A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a maximum period of 6 months. This time limit ensures that non-members of Parliament, who may not have the same level of accountability and responsibility as elected representatives, do not hold the position of Minister for an extended period of time. This allows for a balance of power and ensures that the government remains accountable to the elected representatives in Parliament.Rate this question:
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- 32.
One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha [Council of States] from the Legislative Council [Vidhan Parishad] is ?
- A.
Indirect Election
- B.
Power of Impeachment
- C.
Nomination of Members
- D.
Tenure of Membership
Correct Answer
B. Power of ImpeachmentExplanation
The distinguishing feature of the Rajya Sabha from the Legislative Council is the power of impeachment. The Rajya Sabha has the authority to impeach the President of India, while the Legislative Council does not possess this power. Impeachment is a process by which a high-ranking official can be removed from office for misconduct or violation of the constitution. This power gives the Rajya Sabha an important role in the checks and balances system of the Indian government.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A is a citizen of India, domiciled in Uttar Pradesh. A was appointed as the Governor of Tamil Nadu. Is his appointment valid?
- A.
Absolutely valid
- B.
Invalid
- C.
A situation not contemplated by the Constitution and thus may be referred to the Apex Court.
- D.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
A. Absolutely validExplanation
The appointment of A as the Governor of Tamil Nadu is absolutely valid because there is no constitutional requirement that a Governor must be a domiciled citizen of the state in which they are appointed. As long as A is a citizen of India, they are eligible for the position regardless of their domicile. The Constitution does not restrict the appointment of Governors based on their domicile, therefore A's appointment is valid.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A is the President of India. His term ends but he is again re elected [at the age of 80] and serves another term. On the expiry of his 2nd term, he is again re-elected. Decide.
- A.
Can be re-elected
- B.
Cannot be re-elected because an Indian President cannot be re-elected twice.
- C.
Cannot be re-elected as he is past the maximum age requirement of a President.
- D.
Re-election of the President is a fraud on the Constitution. Thus, invalid.
Correct Answer
A. Can be re-elected -
- 35.
A family was praying since past many years to have a son. Once during pregnancy the wife went to the Doctor for Sex Determination test and the sex was determined to be a male. The child is born, while you are giving the TLL 6th National LAW Quiz Finals 2019. The family was delighted and they celebrated. However, in 2025, the police came to arrest the wife. The child killed the policemen. What offence has the child committed?
- A.
The wife should be arrested for sex determination test as it is an offence.
- B.
The child has committed the offence of Murder.
- C.
No offences has been committed by the child.
- D.
The child has committed the offence of culpable homicide.
Correct Answer
C. No offences has been committed by the child.Explanation
The child has not committed any offense because the question does not provide any information or evidence to suggest that the child intentionally killed the policemen. Without any indication of intent or wrongdoing on the part of the child, it cannot be assumed that the child has committed any offense.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Right to Private Defence is a very essential right of every individual. However it may not be available to all, at all times. This right of Private defence
- A.
Does not extend to defending strangers
- B.
Is not available against trespassers
- C.
Is not available to aggressors
- D.
Is not available to minors
Correct Answer
C. Is not available to aggressorsExplanation
The right to private defence allows individuals to protect themselves, their property, and others from imminent harm. However, this right is not available to aggressors, meaning that if someone initiates an attack or is the one starting the violence, they cannot claim the right to private defence. This limitation prevents individuals from using this right as an excuse to harm others without justification.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following is not a true element of FIR [First Information Report] as according to its definition?
- A.
Can be of any offence.
- B.
Has to be signed by the person giving it.
- C.
Has to be read over to the informant.
- D.
Can be given Orally.
Correct Answer
A. Can be of any offence.Explanation
The correct answer is "Can be of any offence." This statement is not a true element of a First Information Report (FIR) as per its definition. An FIR is a written document that is filed with the police to report the commission of a cognizable offense. It must be signed by the person giving it, and it is not necessary for it to be read over to the informant. However, an FIR cannot be of any offense, as it specifically pertains to cognizable offenses.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is a Compoundable Offence as per CrPC?
- A.
Section 376 IPC
- B.
Section 509 IPC
- C.
Section 300 IPC
- D.
Section 415 IPC
Correct Answer
B. Section 509 IPCExplanation
Section 509 IPC is a compoundable offence as per CrPC. Compoundable offences are those offences where the complainant can enter into a compromise with the accused and withdraw the case. Section 509 IPC deals with the offence of word, gesture, or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman. This offence can be compounded if the complainant agrees to withdraw the case and enter into a compromise with the accused.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Indian Penal Code provides for the definition of 'Person'. Which word is not included in the definition clause?
- A.
Human Beings
- B.
Company
- C.
Association
- D.
Body of Persons
Correct Answer
A. Human BeingsExplanation
The Indian Penal Code provides a definition of 'Person', which includes Company, Association, and Body of Persons. However, the word "Human Beings" is not included in the definition clause.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is not one of the nominated Members of the Rajya Sabha [Council of States] ?
- A.
Subramaniam Swamy
- B.
Mary Kom
- C.
K.T.S. Tulsi
- D.
Swapan Gopi
Correct Answer
D. Swapan GopiExplanation
Swapan Gopi is not one of the nominated Members of the Rajya Sabha. The question asks for the individual who is not a nominated member, and Swapan Gopi is the only option that does not belong to the Rajya Sabha.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a Member of Parliament, as per the Indian Constitution?
- A.
If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.
- B.
If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State.
- C.
If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government.
- D.
If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.
Correct Answer
A. If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.Explanation
According to the Indian Constitution, a person can be disqualified from being elected as a Member of Parliament if they have voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign state, if they hold an office of profit under the state government, or if they are disqualified under the Tenth Schedule. However, being detained under the Preventive Detention Law is not one of the grounds for disqualification.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who is the present Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
- A.
P.J. Kurien
- B.
Najma Heptullah
- C.
M. Thambidurai
- D.
Harivansh Singh
Correct Answer
D. Harivansh SinghExplanation
Harivansh Singh is the present Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.Rate this question:
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- 43.
How many representations come from the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
- A.
18
- B.
16
- C.
20
- D.
22
Correct Answer
C. 20Explanation
In the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament, there are a total of 543 seats. Out of these, 20 seats are reserved for the representatives from the Union Territories. Therefore, the correct answer is 20.Rate this question:
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- 44.
I had been a lawyer before I became a Member of Parliament. I was the Governor of Bihar before becoming the President of India. Who am I?
- A.
Pranab Mukherjee
- B.
Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
- C.
Rajendra Prasad
- D.
Ramnath Kovind
Correct Answer
D. Ramnath KovindExplanation
Ramnath Kovind is the correct answer because the statement mentions that the person was the Governor of Bihar before becoming the President of India. Ramnath Kovind fits this description as he served as the Governor of Bihar from 2015 to 2017 before being elected as the 14th President of India in 2017.Rate this question:
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- 45.
When did the Supreme Court of India came into being?
- A.
26 January 1950
- B.
15 August 1947
- C.
28 January 1950
- D.
16 August 1947
Correct Answer
C. 28 January 1950Explanation
The Supreme Court of India came into being on 28 January 1950. This is the date when the Constitution of India came into effect, and the Supreme Court was established as the highest judicial body in the country. Prior to this, the Federal Court of India served as the highest court. The establishment of the Supreme Court on 28 January 1950 marked a significant milestone in the Indian legal system and its independence from British rule.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is the motto of the Supreme Court of India?
- A.
Dharma Chakra Parivartanay
- B.
Satyamev Jayate
- C.
Dharmo Rakshati Rakshata
- D.
Yato Dharmastato Jayah
Correct Answer
D. Yato Dharmastato JayahExplanation
The motto of the Supreme Court of India is "Yato Dharmastato Jayah" which translates to "Where there is righteousness, there is victory." This motto reflects the core principle of the Supreme Court, which is to uphold justice and righteousness in all its decisions. It emphasizes the importance of following the path of righteousness and how it leads to victory in the pursuit of justice.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following was never the strength of the Supreme Court of India?
- A.
8
- B.
26
- C.
31
- D.
10
Correct Answer
D. 10 -
- 48.
The Constitution provides for the eligibility to be appointed to the Supreme Court of India. It has been provided that a distinguished jurist may be appointed to the Court. In whose opinion shall he be a distinguished jurist?
- A.
Chief Justice of India
- B.
Collegium of the Apex Court
- C.
President of India
- D.
Chief Justice on recommendation of the 2nd senior most Judge
Correct Answer
C. President of IndiaExplanation
The Constitution provides for the eligibility to be appointed to the Supreme Court of India, including the appointment of a distinguished jurist. The question asks in whose opinion the person should be considered a distinguished jurist. The correct answer is the President of India. This means that it is the President's opinion that determines whether someone is qualified to be appointed as a distinguished jurist to the Supreme Court.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A retired Judge from the Supreme Court can
- A.
Practice in any other Court but not Supreme Court
- B.
Practice in District Courts
- C.
Practice in Tribunals only and no Court
- D.
Not practice
Correct Answer
D. Not practiceExplanation
A retired Judge from the Supreme Court is not allowed to practice law after retirement. This is because they have already served their tenure as a judge and are no longer eligible to practice in any court, including the Supreme Court.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which committee was formed and was notably regarded for the 2013 Criminal Law Amendment after the horrific incident of Nirbhaya?
- A.
Justice A.P. Shah Committee
- B.
Justice Ajit Prakash Committee
- C.
Justice A.S. Verma Committee
- D.
Justice J.S. Verma Committee
Correct Answer
D. Justice J.S. Verma CommitteeExplanation
The correct answer is Justice J.S. Verma Committee. This committee was formed in response to the horrific incident of Nirbhaya in 2012. The committee was tasked with reviewing the existing laws on sexual assault and recommending amendments to provide better protection for women. The committee's recommendations formed the basis for the 2013 Criminal Law Amendment, which introduced stricter punishments for sexual offenses and expanded the definition of sexual assault. The committee was headed by Justice J.S. Verma, a former Chief Justice of India, and its recommendations were widely regarded as a landmark in addressing issues of sexual violence in the country.Rate this question:
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