Psychology 100 Final Review

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Psychology 100 Final Review - Quiz

90 questions. Go off. Enjoy.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the definition of semanticity?

    • A.

      The ability to reference what is not here and/or past events

    • B.

      The ability to communicate new ideas

    • C.

      The use of symbols to communicate meaning

    • D.

      The smallest unit of speech

    Correct Answer
    C. The use of symbols to communicate meaning
    Explanation
    Semanticity refers to the ability to communicate meaning through the use of symbols. This means that when we communicate, we are able to use words, gestures, or other symbols to convey specific meanings to others. Semanticity allows us to understand and interpret the intended meaning behind these symbols, enabling effective communication and understanding between individuals.

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  • 2. 

    Which part of the brain is the last to be myelinated?

    • A.

      Cerebellum

    • B.

      Frontal lobe

    • C.

      Parietal lobe

    • D.

      Temporal lobe

    Correct Answer
    B. Frontal lobe
    Explanation
    The frontal lobe is the last part of the brain to be myelinated. Myelination is the process of forming a protective covering called myelin around nerve fibers, which helps to increase the speed and efficiency of nerve impulse transmission. The frontal lobe is responsible for various higher cognitive functions such as decision-making, problem-solving, and impulse control. The fact that it is the last to be myelinated suggests that these complex cognitive abilities continue to develop and mature throughout adolescence and early adulthood.

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  • 3. 

    Baby Lightning sees his mum look at a tire so he looks at the tire. This is an example of:

    • A.

      Joint attention

    • B.

      Social referencing

    • C.

      Separation anxiety

    • D.

      Stranger anxiety 

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint attention
    Explanation
    Joint attention refers to the ability to share attention with someone else towards a common object or event. In this scenario, Baby Lightning sees his mum looking at a tire and he also looks at the tire, indicating that he is sharing his attention with his mum towards the tire. This demonstrates joint attention, as both Baby Lightning and his mum are focused on the same object.

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  • 4. 

    What is a typical bird?

    • A.

      Kiwi

    • B.

      Penguin

    • C.

      Ostrich

    • D.

      Robin

    Correct Answer
    D. Robin
    Explanation
    A typical bird is usually small to medium-sized, has feathers, a beak, and lays eggs. It is capable of flight and has wings. The robin fits this description as it is a small bird with feathers, a beak, and lays eggs. It is also known for its ability to fly and has wings. The other options, kiwi, penguin, and ostrich, do not fit the typical bird description as they have different characteristics such as being flightless or having unique physical features.

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  • 5. 

    Which is an example of a free morpheme?

    • A.

      "oy" in boy

    • B.

      "boy" in boyish

    • C.

      "ish" in boyish

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. "boy" in boyish
    Explanation
    The example of a free morpheme in this question is "boy" in "boyish". A free morpheme is a morpheme that can stand alone as a word and does not need to be attached to any other morphemes to have meaning. In this case, "boy" is a complete word that can be used independently, while "ish" is a bound morpheme that cannot function as a standalone word.

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  • 6. 

    When Olivia's dad leaves she is not upset and not concerned by the presence of a stranger. When her dad comes back she ignores him. Olivia likely has a __________ attachment. 

    • A.

      Secure

    • B.

      Insecure, anxious/resistant

    • C.

      Insecure, advoidant

    • D.

      Disorganized

    Correct Answer
    C. Insecure, advoidant
    Explanation
    Olivia's lack of upset or concern when her dad leaves and her ignoring him when he returns suggests that she has an insecure, avoidant attachment. This type of attachment style is characterized by a child who avoids or ignores their caregiver, showing little distress when they leave and little interest when they return. It is likely that Olivia has developed this attachment style as a result of inconsistent or unresponsive caregiving, leading her to learn that her needs may not be met by seeking proximity to her caregiver.

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  • 7. 

    Which is false?

    • A.

      Until around 12 months, babies can distinguish all phonemes

    • B.

      Binary code could be classified as a language

    • C.

      Language is processed in the left hemisphere

    • D.

      Phonemes exist on a continuum, there are shades of grey between phonemes

    Correct Answer
    D. pHonemes exist on a continuum, there are shades of grey between pHonemes
    Explanation
    Phonemes exist on a continuum, there are shades of grey between phonemes. This statement is false because phonemes are discrete units of sound that distinguish one word from another in a particular language. They do not exist on a continuum and there are clear distinctions between different phonemes.

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  • 8. 

    What is not true about typical category members?

    • A.

      They are the mental representation of a category

    • B.

      They are often the best example

    • C.

      They are categorized faster

    • D.

      They are usually said before atypical members

    Correct Answer
    A. They are the mental representation of a category
    Explanation
    Typical category members are not necessarily the mental representation of a category. While they may be commonly associated with a category, they do not necessarily encompass all the characteristics or attributes of that category. Other members may also represent the category, but in a less typical or common way.

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  • 9. 

    Siena fails a weight conservation test showing she is still in the ____________ and is likely __________ year(s) old.

    • A.

      Formal operational stage, 10

    • B.

      Sensorimotor stage, 2

    • C.

      Concrete operational stage, 4

    • D.

      Preoperational stage, 6

    Correct Answer
    D. Preoperational stage, 6
    Explanation
    Siena fails a weight conservation test, which is a task that requires understanding that the weight of an object remains the same even if its appearance or arrangement changes. This suggests that she is still in the preoperational stage of cognitive development. The preoperational stage typically occurs between the ages of 2 and 7, so it is likely that Siena is around 6 years old. In this stage, children struggle with logical reasoning and are often influenced by the way things appear rather than understanding underlying concepts.

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  • 10. 

    Which term matches it's definition?

    • A.

      Schemata, mental framework

    • B.

      Accommodation, process that reorganizes schemata

    • C.

      Equilibration, example in memory of a particular category

    • D.

      Examplar, mental representations of a category

    Correct Answer
    A. Schemata, mental framework
    Explanation
    The term "schemata" refers to mental frameworks or structures that help organize and interpret information. These frameworks allow individuals to make sense of the world by categorizing and organizing new information based on existing knowledge and experiences. Therefore, the term "schemata" accurately matches its definition as a mental framework.

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  • 11. 

    Jay sees a 4 legged creature. He compares it to an ideal dog to categorize it. This is an example of:

    • A.

      Examplar theory

    • B.

      Prototype theory

    • C.

      Family resemblance theory

    • D.

      Fuzzy category theory

    Correct Answer
    B. Prototype theory
    Explanation
    The given scenario describes Jay comparing a 4 legged creature to an ideal dog to categorize it. This aligns with the concept of Prototype theory, which suggests that people categorize objects based on their resemblance to a typical or idealized example of that category. In this case, Jay is using the prototype of a dog to determine if the creature he sees fits into the category of a dog.

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  • 12. 

    A parenting style high in warmth and high in expectations is:

    • A.

      Authoritative

    • B.

      Authoritarian

    • C.

      Uninvolved

    • D.

      Permissive

    Correct Answer
    A. Authoritative
    Explanation
    An authoritative parenting style is characterized by high levels of warmth and support, as well as high expectations for the child. This style encourages independence and self-discipline while also providing a nurturing and loving environment. Parents who are authoritative set clear boundaries and rules but also allow for open communication and flexibility. They provide guidance and support, while also allowing their child to make decisions and learn from their own experiences. This approach fosters a healthy balance between discipline and nurturing, leading to positive outcomes for the child's development and well-being.

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  • 13. 

    Meghan sees her little sister crying and gives her a hug to comfort her. She has demonstrated:

    • A.

      Theory of mind

    • B.

      Object permanence

    • C.

      Insecure attachment

    • D.

      Social referencing

    Correct Answer
    A. Theory of mind
    Explanation
    Meghan's action of giving her little sister a hug to comfort her demonstrates theory of mind. Theory of mind refers to the ability to understand and attribute mental states, such as emotions and intentions, to oneself and others. In this scenario, Meghan is able to recognize her sister's emotional state (crying) and respond with empathy by offering physical comfort (hug), indicating her understanding of her sister's mental state and her ability to show compassion.

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  • 14. 

    Which parenting style matches its' likely outcome?

    • A.

      Authoritative, antisocial

    • B.

      Authoritarian, self confident and socially competent

    • C.

      Permissive, low impulse control and responsibility

    • D.

      Neglectful, more likely to conform

    Correct Answer
    C. Permissive, low impulse control and responsibility
    Explanation
    Permissive parenting style is characterized by a lack of rules and discipline, allowing children to have freedom and make their own decisions. This parenting style often leads to low impulse control and responsibility in children, as they are not taught boundaries and consequences for their actions. Therefore, the likely outcome of permissive parenting is children with low impulse control and a lack of responsibility.

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  • 15. 

    Which does not influence early menarche and accelerated puberty?

    • A.

      Bioreactivity

    • B.

      Family support

    • C.

      Global improvements in health

    • D.

      Poor self concept and low academic performance 

    Correct Answer
    D. Poor self concept and low academic performance 
    Explanation
    Poor self concept and low academic performance do not influence early menarche and accelerated puberty. Early menarche and accelerated puberty are primarily influenced by factors such as bioreactivity, family support, and global improvements in health. These factors can affect the timing and onset of puberty in individuals. However, poor self concept and low academic performance are not directly related to the onset of puberty and do not have a significant impact on the timing of menarche.

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  • 16. 

    What is untrue about perineuronal nets?

    • A.

      More form during puberty

    • B.

      They fill the extraneuronal space in the cerebellum

    • C.

      They decrease neural plasticity 

    • D.

      They increase the stability and efficiency in communication

    Correct Answer
    B. They fill the extraneuronal space in the cerebellum
    Explanation
    Perineuronal nets do not fill the extraneuronal space in the cerebellum. Perineuronal nets are specialized structures made of extracellular matrix molecules that surround certain neurons in the brain. They are known to increase the stability and efficiency in communication between neurons and play a role in regulating neural plasticity. However, their formation is not specifically associated with puberty.

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  • 17. 

    What does synaptic pruning do?

    • A.

      It removes the unused connections and strengthens the used connections

    • B.

      It decreases white matter in regions for higher cognition

    • C.

      It increases the number of synapses on pyramidal neurons

    • D.

      Increases myelin in the brain 

    Correct Answer
    A. It removes the unused connections and strengthens the used connections
    Explanation
    Synaptic pruning is a process that occurs in the brain during development, where unnecessary or unused connections between neurons are eliminated. This allows for more efficient and effective communication between neurons by strengthening the connections that are frequently used. By removing the unused connections, the brain can optimize its neural network and improve overall cognitive function.

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  • 18. 

    Which is not a cognitive change associated with adolescence? 

    • A.

      Shift from concrete to abstract thinking

    • B.

      More sensitive to novelty

    • C.

      Increased reward seeking

    • D.

      Increased connections in the dorsal ventral area

    Correct Answer
    D. Increased connections in the dorsal ventral area
    Explanation
    During adolescence, there are significant cognitive changes that occur. One of these changes is the shift from concrete to abstract thinking, which refers to the ability to think and reason about concepts that are not directly observable. Adolescents also become more sensitive to novelty, meaning they are more interested and curious about new experiences and ideas. Additionally, there is an increased reward-seeking behavior during adolescence, as they are more motivated by the potential for rewards. However, increased connections in the dorsal ventral area is not a cognitive change associated with adolescence. This answer does not align with the known cognitive changes that occur during this developmental stage.

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  • 19. 

    What is the word for committing to an identity without exploring the options?

    • A.

      Foreclosure

    • B.

      Identity diffusion

    • C.

      Moratorium

    • D.

      Identity achievement

    Correct Answer
    A. Foreclosure
    Explanation
    Foreclosure refers to committing to an identity without exploring other options. It means making a decision or adopting a particular identity without considering alternative choices or exploring different possibilities. This term is commonly used in the context of identity development, particularly in adolescence, where individuals may prematurely commit to a specific identity without fully exploring or considering other potential paths or options.

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  • 20. 

    Which is not a characteristic of emerging adulthood?

    • A.

      Identity exploration

    • B.

      Instability

    • C.

      Self-focused

    • D.

      Security

    Correct Answer
    D. Security
    Explanation
    Emerging adulthood is a developmental stage characterized by exploration and uncertainty, as individuals transition from adolescence to adulthood. During this phase, individuals often focus on identity exploration, experience instability in various aspects of their lives, and tend to be self-focused. However, security is not typically considered a characteristic of emerging adulthood. This stage is often marked by a sense of insecurity and a lack of stability, as individuals navigate through various life transitions and make important life decisions.

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  • 21. 

    What is true about ageing?

    • A.

      Feeling old and being satisfied with ageing is related to longer life and better health

    • B.

      Recall speed decreases but processing speed increases

    • C.

      Older people tend to have fewer social partners

    • D.

      Personality is unstable as you age

    Correct Answer
    C. Older people tend to have fewer social partners
    Explanation
    As people age, they tend to have fewer social partners. This could be due to various factors such as retirement, loss of friends and family members, or physical limitations that make it more difficult to maintain social connections. This decrease in social partners can have an impact on an individual's social support network and overall well-being.

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  • 22. 

    General intelligence most matches:

    • A.

      Book smarts

    • B.

      Street smarts

    • C.

      Multiple intelligences

    • D.

      Working memory

    Correct Answer
    A. Book smarts
    Explanation
    Book smarts refers to a person's ability to acquire knowledge through formal education and academic pursuits. It involves strong analytical and logical thinking skills, as well as a deep understanding of various subjects. General intelligence, which is often measured by IQ tests, is closely related to book smarts as it reflects a person's overall cognitive abilities, including problem-solving, critical thinking, and learning capacity. Therefore, the answer "Book smarts" is the most suitable match for general intelligence among the given options.

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  • 23. 

    What is the Flynn effect?

    • A.

      Average IQ increases over time

    • B.

      A person's IQ decreases with age

    • C.

      A person's IQ increases with age

    • D.

      Average IQ decreases over time

    Correct Answer
    A. Average IQ increases over time
    Explanation
    The Flynn effect refers to the phenomenon where average IQ scores have been increasing over time. This means that, on average, people today have higher IQ scores compared to previous generations. This increase in IQ scores has been observed across different countries and is believed to be due to factors such as improved nutrition, increased access to education, and changes in the environment that promote cognitive development.

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  • 24. 

    What is true about IQ?

    • A.

      It is measured by dividing mental age by chronological age

    • B.

      It follows a normal bell curve distribution

    • C.

      It is most influenced by shared environmental factors 

    • D.

      It has no correlation to school achievement

    Correct Answer
    B. It follows a normal bell curve distribution
    Explanation
    IQ follows a normal bell curve distribution because the majority of people fall within the average range, with fewer individuals falling at the extremes of high or low IQ scores. This distribution suggests that IQ is influenced by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in a range of scores that cluster around the average.

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  • 25. 

     "I think Xi is the best, so everyone else thinks Xi is the best" is an example of:

    • A.

      False consensus effect

    • B.

      Conjunction Fallacy

    • C.

      Base-Rate Fallacy

    • D.

      Availability Heuristics

    Correct Answer
    A. False consensus effect
    Explanation
    The false consensus effect refers to the tendency for individuals to overestimate the extent to which their own beliefs, opinions, preferences, or behaviors are shared by others. In this case, the statement suggests that because the speaker believes Xi is the best, they assume that everyone else also shares this belief. This demonstrates the false consensus effect as it involves an overestimation of the consensus or agreement among others.

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  • 26. 

    What are availability heuristics?

    • A.

      The tendency to ignore base-rates about information in favour of salient information

    • B.

      A mental shortcut that relies on immediate examples that come to mind when evaluating something

    • C.

      A mental shortcut that quickly evaluates given information to make accurate decisions 

    • D.

      The tendency to believe that what you believe is what everyone else believes

    Correct Answer
    B. A mental shortcut that relies on immediate examples that come to mind when evaluating something
    Explanation
    Availability heuristics refer to a mental shortcut where individuals rely on immediate examples that come to mind when evaluating something. This means that people tend to make judgments or decisions based on the information that is readily available to them, rather than considering the actual statistical or factual base rates. This heuristic is influenced by the salience or prominence of certain information, which can lead to biases and errors in decision-making.

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  • 27. 

    What is the best example of a conjunction fallacy?

    • A.

      Jay, who is gay is more likely to have a dog and a boyfriend then just a dog. 

    • B.

      A highly reported plane crash happens, so Jay chooses to drive as it is safer. 

    • C.

      When asked what his favourite colour is, Jay looks at his blue shirt and says blue.

    • D.

      Jay likes psychology so he assumes everyone likes psychology. 

    Correct Answer
    A. Jay, who is gay is more likely to have a dog and a boyfriend then just a dog. 
    Explanation
    The best example of a conjunction fallacy is when Jay, who is gay, is more likely to have a dog and a boyfriend than just a dog. This is a conjunction fallacy because it assumes that having both a dog and a boyfriend is more likely than just having a dog, even though the latter is a subset of the former. It is a fallacy because the probability of having both a dog and a boyfriend is actually lower than the probability of having just a dog.

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  • 28. 

    What is not a component of "g"? 

    • A.

      Verbal comprehension

    • B.

      Perceptual reasoning

    • C.

      Kinesthetic ability

    • D.

      Processing speed

    Correct Answer
    C. Kinesthetic ability
    Explanation
    Kinesthetic ability refers to the ability to coordinate physical movement and is not a component of "g," which stands for general intelligence. Verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, and processing speed are all components of "g" and contribute to overall cognitive abilities.

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  • 29. 

    What does "g" NOT correlate with?

    • A.

      Work performance

    • B.

      Criminal behaviour

    • C.

      Educational achievement

    • D.

      Subjective well-being

    Correct Answer
    D. Subjective well-being
    Explanation
    The letter "g" does not correlate with subjective well-being. This means that there is no significant relationship or connection between the concept of "g" and an individual's subjective well-being. It suggests that the level of general intelligence, often represented by "g," does not have a direct impact on a person's subjective feelings of happiness, satisfaction, or overall well-being.

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  • 30. 

    What is the difference between satisfaction and satisfactoriness?

    • A.

      Abilities corresponds with satisfaction, while interests correspond with satisfactoriness

    • B.

      Satisfaction= do you like it? Satisfactoriness= can you do it?

    • C.

      Satisfaction corresponds with the environment while satisfactoriness corresponds with the individual

    • D.

      There is no difference, satisfactoriness is a made up word 

    Correct Answer
    B. Satisfaction= do you like it? Satisfactoriness= can you do it?
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that satisfaction refers to whether a person likes something or not, while satisfactoriness refers to whether a person is capable of doing something or not. Satisfaction is related to personal preferences and whether something brings contentment or fulfillment, while satisfactoriness is related to one's abilities and whether they have the necessary skills or capabilities to perform a task or meet a requirement.

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  • 31. 

    What is NOT true about interests?

    • A.

      There are 6 major themes: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising and conventional

    • B.

      There is a small correlation between interests and abilities

    • C.

      Interests are the biggest influence for mastery

    • D.

      Interests can be separated into 6 categories based on "people vs. things" and "data vs. ideas"

    Correct Answer
    C. Interests are the biggest influence for mastery
    Explanation
    Interests being the biggest influence for mastery is not true. While interests can certainly play a role in developing mastery in a particular area, there are other factors that also contribute to mastery, such as practice, dedication, and natural abilities. Interests alone are not the sole determining factor for achieving mastery in a specific field.

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  • 32. 

    Jay likes science, math and does well in well-structured environments. The two interest categories that would best describe him would be:

    • A.

      Investigative and conventional

    • B.

      Realistic and enterprising

    • C.

      Artistic and social

    • D.

      Conventional and realistic

    Correct Answer
    A. Investigative and conventional
    Explanation
    The answer "Investigative and conventional" best describes Jay based on the given information. Jay's interest in science and math suggests that he has a curiosity and inclination towards exploring and investigating concepts. Additionally, his preference for well-structured environments indicates that he is likely to prefer conventional and organized approaches in his work and daily life. Therefore, the combination of investigative and conventional interests suits Jay's characteristics and preferences.

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  • 33. 

    Siena sees a t-shirt that costs $1200. She then sees a t-shirt that costs $100 and exclaims "WOW! What cheap t-shirt!" Siena has fallen victim to ____________ bias

    • A.

      Anchoring

    • B.

      Framing

    • C.

      Heuristics

    • D.

      Overconfidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Anchoring
    Explanation
    Siena's perception of the $100 t-shirt as being cheap is influenced by the initial anchor of the $1200 t-shirt. This anchoring bias occurs when people rely too heavily on the first piece of information they receive when making judgments or decisions. In this case, Siena's judgment of the $100 t-shirt as cheap is biased because she is comparing it to the much higher price of the $1200 t-shirt, rather than evaluating its price objectively.

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  • 34. 

    Ximonthy's Burger Shack advertises their burgers as 95% lean and not as 5% fat. This is due to ___________ bias.

    • A.

      Framing

    • B.

      Anchoring

    • C.

      Heuristics

    • D.

      Overconfidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Framing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is framing. Framing bias refers to the way information is presented or framed, which can influence how people perceive and interpret it. In this case, Ximonthy's Burger Shack chooses to advertise their burgers as 95% lean instead of 5% fat, which frames the information in a positive light and emphasizes the healthier aspect of the burgers. By framing the information in this way, they are likely trying to appeal to health-conscious customers and make their burgers seem more desirable.

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  • 35. 

    What is the best definition of drive states?

    • A.

      Affective experiences that motivate organisms to fulfill goals related to their survival and reproduction

    • B.

      Affective experiences that motivate organisms to fulfill goals related to homeostasis

    • C.

      Behaviours that occur to achieve a goal beneficial to survival and reproduction

    • D.

      Behaviours that occur to achieve homeostasis

    Correct Answer
    A. Affective experiences that motivate organisms to fulfill goals related to their survival and reproduction
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Affective experiences that motivate organisms to fulfill goals related to their survival and reproduction." Drive states refer to the affective experiences that motivate organisms to fulfill goals related to their survival and reproduction. These experiences can include hunger, thirst, sexual desire, and other physiological needs that drive individuals to engage in behaviors necessary for their survival and reproductive success.

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  • 36. 

    What does not occur due to drive states? 

    • A.

      Narrowing of attention

    • B.

      Collapse of time perspective

    • C.

      Lowered altruism

    • D.

      Increased aggression 

    Correct Answer
    D. Increased aggression 
    Explanation
    Drive states can lead to a variety of behavioral changes, including increased aggression. When individuals experience a strong drive or motivation, such as hunger or thirst, they may become more aggressive in their pursuit of satisfying that drive. This can manifest as increased assertiveness, competitiveness, or even hostility towards others who may hinder their progress in achieving their goal. Therefore, increased aggression is a possible outcome of drive states.

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  • 37. 

    Who would be most likely to have a high subjective well-being?

    • A.

      Bob, who always feels a very high level of positive emotions

    • B.

      Ben, who has a lot of fluctuation in what he feels 

    • C.

      Brenda, who feels happy no matter what the context is

    • D.

      Bertha, who experiences high levels of emotional coherence

    Correct Answer
    D. Bertha, who experiences high levels of emotional coherence
    Explanation
    Bertha would be most likely to have a high subjective well-being because she experiences high levels of emotional coherence. This means that her emotions are consistent and aligned with each other, leading to a sense of harmony and stability in her emotional state. This coherence can contribute to overall feelings of well-being and contentment. On the other hand, Bob may experience a high level of positive emotions, but if they are not consistent or coherent, his well-being may be more variable. Ben, who has fluctuating emotions, may experience more ups and downs in his well-being. Brenda feeling happy regardless of the context does not necessarily indicate emotional coherence.

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  • 38. 

    What area of the brain is not implicated in desire?

    • A.

      Orbitofrontal cortex

    • B.

      Nucleus accumben

    • C.

      Lateral hypothalamus

    • D.

      Amygdala

    Correct Answer
    A. Orbitofrontal cortex
    Explanation
    The orbitofrontal cortex is not implicated in desire. This area of the brain is primarily involved in decision-making, impulse control, and emotional regulation. It plays a role in evaluating the reward value of stimuli and helps in making choices based on the potential outcomes. However, desire is more closely associated with the nucleus accumbens, lateral hypothalamus, and amygdala, which are involved in motivation, pleasure, and emotional processing.

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  • 39. 

    This area is implicated in both desire and liking.

    • A.

      Amygdala

    • B.

      Prefrontal cortex

    • C.

      Nucleus accumbens

    • D.

      Ventral pallidum

    Correct Answer
    C. Nucleus accumbens
    Explanation
    The nucleus accumbens is the correct answer because it is a brain region that has been implicated in both desire and liking. It is part of the brain's reward circuitry and is involved in the experience of pleasure and motivation. Studies have shown that activation of the nucleus accumbens is associated with the anticipation and experience of rewards, as well as the reinforcement of certain behaviors. Therefore, this brain region plays a crucial role in both the desire for rewards and the experience of pleasure or liking.

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  • 40. 

    What model of stress focuses on the flight or fight response?

    • A.

      Response Model

    • B.

      Stimulus Model

    • C.

      Transactional Model

    • D.

      Biopsychosocial Model

    Correct Answer
    A. Response Model
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Response Model. The Response Model of stress focuses on the flight or fight response, which is a physiological reaction to a perceived threat. This model suggests that when faced with stressors, the body automatically prepares to either confront the threat or escape from it. This response involves the activation of the sympathetic nervous system and the release of stress hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol.

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  • 41. 

    In what model of stress does the body react to the stressor, adjusts then wears out after prolonged exposure?

    • A.

      Stimulus Model

    • B.

      Response Model

    • C.

      Transactional Model

    • D.

      Biopsychosocial Model

    Correct Answer
    A. Stimulus Model
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Response Model. In the Response Model of stress, the body initially reacts to the stressor, mobilizing its resources to cope with the situation. However, if the stressor persists for a prolonged period of time, the body's adaptive mechanisms can become exhausted, leading to physical and psychological wear and tear. This model emphasizes the physiological and psychological responses to stress and the potential negative consequences of prolonged exposure to stressors.

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  • 42. 

    Jay feels overwhelmed due to exams so he takes a long bath. This is an example of ______ coping

    • A.

      Emotion focused

    • B.

      Problem focused

    • C.

      Proactive 

    • D.

      Stress inoculation

    Correct Answer
    A. Emotion focused
    Explanation
    This scenario demonstrates emotion-focused coping because Jay is using a bath as a means to alleviate his feelings of being overwhelmed. This coping strategy involves managing and regulating one's emotions in response to stressors, rather than directly addressing the source of stress. By taking a long bath, Jay is seeking comfort and relaxation to help him cope with his exam-related stress.

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  • 43. 

    Jay feels stressed about his Psych 100 exam so he takes fake exams. This is ________ coping.

    • A.

      Stress inoculation

    • B.

      Proactive

    • C.

      Emotion focused

    • D.

      Problem focused

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress inoculation
    Explanation
    Stress inoculation coping refers to a strategy where an individual prepares themselves for future stressful situations by exposing themselves to milder stressors. In this case, Jay is feeling stressed about his Psych 100 exam, so he takes fake exams as a way to simulate the stress he will experience during the actual exam. By doing so, he is building up his resilience and ability to handle stress, making him better equipped to handle the real exam when the time comes.

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  • 44. 

    Ximonthy's partner sees that he is stressed about his new job so he listens to Ximonthy's complaints. This is an example of __________ support.

    • A.

      Emotional

    • B.

      Companionship

    • C.

      Tangible

    • D.

      Informational

    Correct Answer
    A. Emotional
    Explanation
    This scenario describes emotional support. Ximonthy's partner is providing emotional support by listening to his complaints and offering a listening ear. This type of support helps to alleviate stress and provides comfort and understanding.

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  • 45. 

    Alex has been feeling stressed out recently so he and his friends have a paint night. This is an example of _______ support. 

    • A.

      Companionship

    • B.

      Emotional

    • C.

      Tangible

    • D.

      Informational

    Correct Answer
    A. Companionship
    Explanation
    This scenario exemplifies companionship support because Alex and his friends come together to engage in a recreational activity, providing emotional support and a sense of camaraderie. This type of support focuses on the presence, understanding, and connection between individuals, offering comfort and a sense of belonging.

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  • 46. 

    What decreases resiliency to stress?

    • A.

      Coping

    • B.

      Self-efficacy

    • C.

      Type A personality

    • D.

      Optimism

    Correct Answer
    C. Type A personality
    Explanation
    Type A personality decreases resiliency to stress because individuals with this personality type are often characterized as being highly competitive, ambitious, and time-conscious. They tend to be more prone to experiencing chronic stress due to their intense drive for achievement and perfectionism. This constant pressure and urgency can lead to increased stress levels, which in turn can decrease their ability to effectively cope with and bounce back from stressful situations.

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  • 47. 

    What does not impact subjective well-being?

    • A.

      Inborn temperament

    • B.

      Resiliency

    • C.

      Sufficient material resources

    • D.

      Age

    Correct Answer
    D. Age
    Explanation
    Age does not impact subjective well-being. Subjective well-being refers to an individual's personal evaluation of their own happiness and life satisfaction. While factors such as inborn temperament, resiliency, and sufficient material resources can influence subjective well-being, age itself does not have a direct impact on it. Other factors, such as health, relationships, and personal circumstances, may play a more significant role in determining subjective well-being.

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  • 48. 

    What is not a measured component of subjective well-being?

    • A.

      Life satisfaction

    • B.

      Positive feelings

    • C.

      Low negative feelings

    • D.

      Amount of social support

    Correct Answer
    D. Amount of social support
    Explanation
    The amount of social support is not a measured component of subjective well-being. Subjective well-being refers to an individual's overall evaluation of their own life and includes factors such as life satisfaction, positive feelings, and low negative feelings. While social support can contribute to subjective well-being, it is not directly measured as a component in assessing one's well-being.

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  • 49. 

    The theory that mental illness is caused by trauma and stress is called:

    • A.

      Supernatural 

    • B.

      Somatogenic

    • C.

      Psychogenic

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Psychogenic
    Explanation
    The theory that mental illness is caused by trauma and stress is called psychogenic. This theory suggests that psychological factors, such as traumatic experiences or high levels of stress, can contribute to the development of mental disorders. It emphasizes the importance of understanding the psychological and emotional factors that can impact an individual's mental health.

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  • 50. 

    John feels excessive worry about everyday things and has difficulty sleeping. Some days the worry is so bad that he doesn't want to get out of bed. Based on the information given John likely has: 

    • A.

      Generalized anxiety disorder

    • B.

      Panic Disorder

    • C.

      Social Anxiety disorder

    • D.

      Post-traumatic stress disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Generalized anxiety disorder
    Explanation
    Based on the information given, John experiences excessive worry about everyday things and has difficulty sleeping. This suggests that he may have generalized anxiety disorder. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various aspects of life, often accompanied by physical symptoms such as difficulty sleeping. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, social anxiety disorder involves intense fear and avoidance of social situations, and post-traumatic stress disorder is typically triggered by a traumatic event. None of these disorders align with the symptoms described for John.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 02, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    JAY
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