1.
What is the definition of semanticity?
Correct Answer
C. The use of symbols to communicate meaning
Explanation
Semanticity refers to the ability to communicate meaning through the use of symbols. This means that when we communicate, we are able to use words, gestures, or other symbols to convey specific meanings to others. Semanticity allows us to understand and interpret the intended meaning behind these symbols, enabling effective communication and understanding between individuals.
2.
Which part of the brain is the last to be myelinated?
Correct Answer
B. Frontal lobe
Explanation
The frontal lobe is the last part of the brain to be myelinated. Myelination is the process of forming a protective covering called myelin around nerve fibers, which helps to increase the speed and efficiency of nerve impulse transmission. The frontal lobe is responsible for various higher cognitive functions such as decision-making, problem-solving, and impulse control. The fact that it is the last to be myelinated suggests that these complex cognitive abilities continue to develop and mature throughout adolescence and early adulthood.
3.
Baby Lightning sees his mum look at a tire so he looks at the tire. This is an example of:
Correct Answer
A. Joint attention
Explanation
Joint attention refers to the ability to share attention with someone else towards a common object or event. In this scenario, Baby Lightning sees his mum looking at a tire and he also looks at the tire, indicating that he is sharing his attention with his mum towards the tire. This demonstrates joint attention, as both Baby Lightning and his mum are focused on the same object.
4.
What is a typical bird?
Correct Answer
D. Robin
Explanation
A typical bird is usually small to medium-sized, has feathers, a beak, and lays eggs. It is capable of flight and has wings. The robin fits this description as it is a small bird with feathers, a beak, and lays eggs. It is also known for its ability to fly and has wings. The other options, kiwi, penguin, and ostrich, do not fit the typical bird description as they have different characteristics such as being flightless or having unique physical features.
5.
Which is an example of a free morpheme?
Correct Answer
B. "boy" in boyish
Explanation
The example of a free morpheme in this question is "boy" in "boyish". A free morpheme is a morpheme that can stand alone as a word and does not need to be attached to any other morphemes to have meaning. In this case, "boy" is a complete word that can be used independently, while "ish" is a bound morpheme that cannot function as a standalone word.
6.
When Olivia's dad leaves she is not upset and not concerned by the presence of a stranger. When her dad comes back she ignores him. Olivia likely has a __________ attachment.
Correct Answer
C. Insecure, advoidant
Explanation
Olivia's lack of upset or concern when her dad leaves and her ignoring him when he returns suggests that she has an insecure, avoidant attachment. This type of attachment style is characterized by a child who avoids or ignores their caregiver, showing little distress when they leave and little interest when they return. It is likely that Olivia has developed this attachment style as a result of inconsistent or unresponsive caregiving, leading her to learn that her needs may not be met by seeking proximity to her caregiver.
7.
Which is false?
Correct Answer
D. pHonemes exist on a continuum, there are shades of grey between pHonemes
Explanation
Phonemes exist on a continuum, there are shades of grey between phonemes. This statement is false because phonemes are discrete units of sound that distinguish one word from another in a particular language. They do not exist on a continuum and there are clear distinctions between different phonemes.
8.
What is not true about typical category members?
Correct Answer
A. They are the mental representation of a category
Explanation
Typical category members are not necessarily the mental representation of a category. While they may be commonly associated with a category, they do not necessarily encompass all the characteristics or attributes of that category. Other members may also represent the category, but in a less typical or common way.
9.
Siena fails a weight conservation test showing she is still in the ____________ and is likely __________ year(s) old.
Correct Answer
D. Preoperational stage, 6
Explanation
Siena fails a weight conservation test, which is a task that requires understanding that the weight of an object remains the same even if its appearance or arrangement changes. This suggests that she is still in the preoperational stage of cognitive development. The preoperational stage typically occurs between the ages of 2 and 7, so it is likely that Siena is around 6 years old. In this stage, children struggle with logical reasoning and are often influenced by the way things appear rather than understanding underlying concepts.
10.
Which term matches it's definition?
Correct Answer
A. Schemata, mental framework
Explanation
The term "schemata" refers to mental frameworks or structures that help organize and interpret information. These frameworks allow individuals to make sense of the world by categorizing and organizing new information based on existing knowledge and experiences. Therefore, the term "schemata" accurately matches its definition as a mental framework.
11.
Jay sees a 4 legged creature. He compares it to an ideal dog to categorize it. This is an example of:
Correct Answer
B. Prototype theory
Explanation
The given scenario describes Jay comparing a 4 legged creature to an ideal dog to categorize it. This aligns with the concept of Prototype theory, which suggests that people categorize objects based on their resemblance to a typical or idealized example of that category. In this case, Jay is using the prototype of a dog to determine if the creature he sees fits into the category of a dog.
12.
A parenting style high in warmth and high in expectations is:
Correct Answer
A. Authoritative
Explanation
An authoritative parenting style is characterized by high levels of warmth and support, as well as high expectations for the child. This style encourages independence and self-discipline while also providing a nurturing and loving environment. Parents who are authoritative set clear boundaries and rules but also allow for open communication and flexibility. They provide guidance and support, while also allowing their child to make decisions and learn from their own experiences. This approach fosters a healthy balance between discipline and nurturing, leading to positive outcomes for the child's development and well-being.
13.
Meghan sees her little sister crying and gives her a hug to comfort her. She has demonstrated:
Correct Answer
A. Theory of mind
Explanation
Meghan's action of giving her little sister a hug to comfort her demonstrates theory of mind. Theory of mind refers to the ability to understand and attribute mental states, such as emotions and intentions, to oneself and others. In this scenario, Meghan is able to recognize her sister's emotional state (crying) and respond with empathy by offering physical comfort (hug), indicating her understanding of her sister's mental state and her ability to show compassion.
14.
Which parenting style matches its' likely outcome?
Correct Answer
C. Permissive, low impulse control and responsibility
Explanation
Permissive parenting style is characterized by a lack of rules and discipline, allowing children to have freedom and make their own decisions. This parenting style often leads to low impulse control and responsibility in children, as they are not taught boundaries and consequences for their actions. Therefore, the likely outcome of permissive parenting is children with low impulse control and a lack of responsibility.
15.
Which does not influence early menarche and accelerated puberty?
Correct Answer
D. Poor self concept and low academic performance
Explanation
Poor self concept and low academic performance do not influence early menarche and accelerated puberty. Early menarche and accelerated puberty are primarily influenced by factors such as bioreactivity, family support, and global improvements in health. These factors can affect the timing and onset of puberty in individuals. However, poor self concept and low academic performance are not directly related to the onset of puberty and do not have a significant impact on the timing of menarche.
16.
What is untrue about perineuronal nets?
Correct Answer
B. They fill the extraneuronal space in the cerebellum
Explanation
Perineuronal nets do not fill the extraneuronal space in the cerebellum. Perineuronal nets are specialized structures made of extracellular matrix molecules that surround certain neurons in the brain. They are known to increase the stability and efficiency in communication between neurons and play a role in regulating neural plasticity. However, their formation is not specifically associated with puberty.
17.
What does synaptic pruning do?
Correct Answer
A. It removes the unused connections and strengthens the used connections
Explanation
Synaptic pruning is a process that occurs in the brain during development, where unnecessary or unused connections between neurons are eliminated. This allows for more efficient and effective communication between neurons by strengthening the connections that are frequently used. By removing the unused connections, the brain can optimize its neural network and improve overall cognitive function.
18.
Which is not a cognitive change associated with adolescence?
Correct Answer
D. Increased connections in the dorsal ventral area
Explanation
During adolescence, there are significant cognitive changes that occur. One of these changes is the shift from concrete to abstract thinking, which refers to the ability to think and reason about concepts that are not directly observable. Adolescents also become more sensitive to novelty, meaning they are more interested and curious about new experiences and ideas. Additionally, there is an increased reward-seeking behavior during adolescence, as they are more motivated by the potential for rewards. However, increased connections in the dorsal ventral area is not a cognitive change associated with adolescence. This answer does not align with the known cognitive changes that occur during this developmental stage.
19.
What is the word for committing to an identity without exploring the options?
Correct Answer
A. Foreclosure
Explanation
Foreclosure refers to committing to an identity without exploring other options. It means making a decision or adopting a particular identity without considering alternative choices or exploring different possibilities. This term is commonly used in the context of identity development, particularly in adolescence, where individuals may prematurely commit to a specific identity without fully exploring or considering other potential paths or options.
20.
Which is not a characteristic of emerging adulthood?
Correct Answer
D. Security
Explanation
Emerging adulthood is a developmental stage characterized by exploration and uncertainty, as individuals transition from adolescence to adulthood. During this phase, individuals often focus on identity exploration, experience instability in various aspects of their lives, and tend to be self-focused. However, security is not typically considered a characteristic of emerging adulthood. This stage is often marked by a sense of insecurity and a lack of stability, as individuals navigate through various life transitions and make important life decisions.
21.
What is true about ageing?
Correct Answer
C. Older people tend to have fewer social partners
Explanation
As people age, they tend to have fewer social partners. This could be due to various factors such as retirement, loss of friends and family members, or physical limitations that make it more difficult to maintain social connections. This decrease in social partners can have an impact on an individual's social support network and overall well-being.
22.
General intelligence most matches:
Correct Answer
A. Book smarts
Explanation
Book smarts refers to a person's ability to acquire knowledge through formal education and academic pursuits. It involves strong analytical and logical thinking skills, as well as a deep understanding of various subjects. General intelligence, which is often measured by IQ tests, is closely related to book smarts as it reflects a person's overall cognitive abilities, including problem-solving, critical thinking, and learning capacity. Therefore, the answer "Book smarts" is the most suitable match for general intelligence among the given options.
23.
What is the Flynn effect?
Correct Answer
A. Average IQ increases over time
Explanation
The Flynn effect refers to the phenomenon where average IQ scores have been increasing over time. This means that, on average, people today have higher IQ scores compared to previous generations. This increase in IQ scores has been observed across different countries and is believed to be due to factors such as improved nutrition, increased access to education, and changes in the environment that promote cognitive development.
24.
What is true about IQ?
Correct Answer
B. It follows a normal bell curve distribution
Explanation
IQ follows a normal bell curve distribution because the majority of people fall within the average range, with fewer individuals falling at the extremes of high or low IQ scores. This distribution suggests that IQ is influenced by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in a range of scores that cluster around the average.
25.
"I think Xi is the best, so everyone else thinks Xi is the best" is an example of:
Correct Answer
A. False consensus effect
Explanation
The false consensus effect refers to the tendency for individuals to overestimate the extent to which their own beliefs, opinions, preferences, or behaviors are shared by others. In this case, the statement suggests that because the speaker believes Xi is the best, they assume that everyone else also shares this belief. This demonstrates the false consensus effect as it involves an overestimation of the consensus or agreement among others.
26.
What are availability heuristics?
Correct Answer
B. A mental shortcut that relies on immediate examples that come to mind when evaluating something
Explanation
Availability heuristics refer to a mental shortcut where individuals rely on immediate examples that come to mind when evaluating something. This means that people tend to make judgments or decisions based on the information that is readily available to them, rather than considering the actual statistical or factual base rates. This heuristic is influenced by the salience or prominence of certain information, which can lead to biases and errors in decision-making.
27.
What is the best example of a conjunction fallacy?
Correct Answer
A. Jay, who is gay is more likely to have a dog and a boyfriend then just a dog.
Explanation
The best example of a conjunction fallacy is when Jay, who is gay, is more likely to have a dog and a boyfriend than just a dog. This is a conjunction fallacy because it assumes that having both a dog and a boyfriend is more likely than just having a dog, even though the latter is a subset of the former. It is a fallacy because the probability of having both a dog and a boyfriend is actually lower than the probability of having just a dog.
28.
What is not a component of "g"?
Correct Answer
C. Kinesthetic ability
Explanation
Kinesthetic ability refers to the ability to coordinate physical movement and is not a component of "g," which stands for general intelligence. Verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, and processing speed are all components of "g" and contribute to overall cognitive abilities.
29.
What does "g" NOT correlate with?
Correct Answer
D. Subjective well-being
Explanation
The letter "g" does not correlate with subjective well-being. This means that there is no significant relationship or connection between the concept of "g" and an individual's subjective well-being. It suggests that the level of general intelligence, often represented by "g," does not have a direct impact on a person's subjective feelings of happiness, satisfaction, or overall well-being.
30.
What is the difference between satisfaction and satisfactoriness?
Correct Answer
B. Satisfaction= do you like it? Satisfactoriness= can you do it?
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that satisfaction refers to whether a person likes something or not, while satisfactoriness refers to whether a person is capable of doing something or not. Satisfaction is related to personal preferences and whether something brings contentment or fulfillment, while satisfactoriness is related to one's abilities and whether they have the necessary skills or capabilities to perform a task or meet a requirement.
31.
What is NOT true about interests?
Correct Answer
C. Interests are the biggest influence for mastery
Explanation
Interests being the biggest influence for mastery is not true. While interests can certainly play a role in developing mastery in a particular area, there are other factors that also contribute to mastery, such as practice, dedication, and natural abilities. Interests alone are not the sole determining factor for achieving mastery in a specific field.
32.
Jay likes science, math and does well in well-structured environments. The two interest categories that would best describe him would be:
Correct Answer
A. Investigative and conventional
Explanation
The answer "Investigative and conventional" best describes Jay based on the given information. Jay's interest in science and math suggests that he has a curiosity and inclination towards exploring and investigating concepts. Additionally, his preference for well-structured environments indicates that he is likely to prefer conventional and organized approaches in his work and daily life. Therefore, the combination of investigative and conventional interests suits Jay's characteristics and preferences.
33.
Siena sees a t-shirt that costs $1200. She then sees a t-shirt that costs $100 and exclaims "WOW! What cheap t-shirt!" Siena has fallen victim to ____________ bias
Correct Answer
A. Anchoring
Explanation
Siena's perception of the $100 t-shirt as being cheap is influenced by the initial anchor of the $1200 t-shirt. This anchoring bias occurs when people rely too heavily on the first piece of information they receive when making judgments or decisions. In this case, Siena's judgment of the $100 t-shirt as cheap is biased because she is comparing it to the much higher price of the $1200 t-shirt, rather than evaluating its price objectively.
34.
Ximonthy's Burger Shack advertises their burgers as 95% lean and not as 5% fat. This is due to ___________ bias.
Correct Answer
A. Framing
Explanation
The correct answer is framing. Framing bias refers to the way information is presented or framed, which can influence how people perceive and interpret it. In this case, Ximonthy's Burger Shack chooses to advertise their burgers as 95% lean instead of 5% fat, which frames the information in a positive light and emphasizes the healthier aspect of the burgers. By framing the information in this way, they are likely trying to appeal to health-conscious customers and make their burgers seem more desirable.
35.
What is the best definition of drive states?
Correct Answer
A. Affective experiences that motivate organisms to fulfill goals related to their survival and reproduction
Explanation
The correct answer is "Affective experiences that motivate organisms to fulfill goals related to their survival and reproduction." Drive states refer to the affective experiences that motivate organisms to fulfill goals related to their survival and reproduction. These experiences can include hunger, thirst, sexual desire, and other physiological needs that drive individuals to engage in behaviors necessary for their survival and reproductive success.
36.
What does not occur due to drive states?
Correct Answer
D. Increased aggression
Explanation
Drive states can lead to a variety of behavioral changes, including increased aggression. When individuals experience a strong drive or motivation, such as hunger or thirst, they may become more aggressive in their pursuit of satisfying that drive. This can manifest as increased assertiveness, competitiveness, or even hostility towards others who may hinder their progress in achieving their goal. Therefore, increased aggression is a possible outcome of drive states.
37.
Who would be most likely to have a high subjective well-being?
Correct Answer
D. Bertha, who experiences high levels of emotional coherence
Explanation
Bertha would be most likely to have a high subjective well-being because she experiences high levels of emotional coherence. This means that her emotions are consistent and aligned with each other, leading to a sense of harmony and stability in her emotional state. This coherence can contribute to overall feelings of well-being and contentment. On the other hand, Bob may experience a high level of positive emotions, but if they are not consistent or coherent, his well-being may be more variable. Ben, who has fluctuating emotions, may experience more ups and downs in his well-being. Brenda feeling happy regardless of the context does not necessarily indicate emotional coherence.
38.
What area of the brain is not implicated in desire?
Correct Answer
A. Orbitofrontal cortex
Explanation
The orbitofrontal cortex is not implicated in desire. This area of the brain is primarily involved in decision-making, impulse control, and emotional regulation. It plays a role in evaluating the reward value of stimuli and helps in making choices based on the potential outcomes. However, desire is more closely associated with the nucleus accumbens, lateral hypothalamus, and amygdala, which are involved in motivation, pleasure, and emotional processing.
39.
This area is implicated in both desire and liking.
Correct Answer
C. Nucleus accumbens
Explanation
The nucleus accumbens is the correct answer because it is a brain region that has been implicated in both desire and liking. It is part of the brain's reward circuitry and is involved in the experience of pleasure and motivation. Studies have shown that activation of the nucleus accumbens is associated with the anticipation and experience of rewards, as well as the reinforcement of certain behaviors. Therefore, this brain region plays a crucial role in both the desire for rewards and the experience of pleasure or liking.
40.
What model of stress focuses on the flight or fight response?
Correct Answer
A. Response Model
Explanation
The correct answer is Response Model. The Response Model of stress focuses on the flight or fight response, which is a physiological reaction to a perceived threat. This model suggests that when faced with stressors, the body automatically prepares to either confront the threat or escape from it. This response involves the activation of the sympathetic nervous system and the release of stress hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol.
41.
In what model of stress does the body react to the stressor, adjusts then wears out after prolonged exposure?
Correct Answer
A. Stimulus Model
Explanation
The correct answer is the Response Model. In the Response Model of stress, the body initially reacts to the stressor, mobilizing its resources to cope with the situation. However, if the stressor persists for a prolonged period of time, the body's adaptive mechanisms can become exhausted, leading to physical and psychological wear and tear. This model emphasizes the physiological and psychological responses to stress and the potential negative consequences of prolonged exposure to stressors.
42.
Jay feels overwhelmed due to exams so he takes a long bath. This is an example of ______ coping
Correct Answer
A. Emotion focused
Explanation
This scenario demonstrates emotion-focused coping because Jay is using a bath as a means to alleviate his feelings of being overwhelmed. This coping strategy involves managing and regulating one's emotions in response to stressors, rather than directly addressing the source of stress. By taking a long bath, Jay is seeking comfort and relaxation to help him cope with his exam-related stress.
43.
Jay feels stressed about his Psych 100 exam so he takes fake exams. This is ________ coping.
Correct Answer
A. Stress inoculation
Explanation
Stress inoculation coping refers to a strategy where an individual prepares themselves for future stressful situations by exposing themselves to milder stressors. In this case, Jay is feeling stressed about his Psych 100 exam, so he takes fake exams as a way to simulate the stress he will experience during the actual exam. By doing so, he is building up his resilience and ability to handle stress, making him better equipped to handle the real exam when the time comes.
44.
Ximonthy's partner sees that he is stressed about his new job so he listens to Ximonthy's complaints. This is an example of __________ support.
Correct Answer
A. Emotional
Explanation
This scenario describes emotional support. Ximonthy's partner is providing emotional support by listening to his complaints and offering a listening ear. This type of support helps to alleviate stress and provides comfort and understanding.
45.
Alex has been feeling stressed out recently so he and his friends have a paint night. This is an example of _______ support.
Correct Answer
A. Companionship
Explanation
This scenario exemplifies companionship support because Alex and his friends come together to engage in a recreational activity, providing emotional support and a sense of camaraderie. This type of support focuses on the presence, understanding, and connection between individuals, offering comfort and a sense of belonging.
46.
What decreases resiliency to stress?
Correct Answer
C. Type A personality
Explanation
Type A personality decreases resiliency to stress because individuals with this personality type are often characterized as being highly competitive, ambitious, and time-conscious. They tend to be more prone to experiencing chronic stress due to their intense drive for achievement and perfectionism. This constant pressure and urgency can lead to increased stress levels, which in turn can decrease their ability to effectively cope with and bounce back from stressful situations.
47.
What does not impact subjective well-being?
Correct Answer
D. Age
Explanation
Age does not impact subjective well-being. Subjective well-being refers to an individual's personal evaluation of their own happiness and life satisfaction. While factors such as inborn temperament, resiliency, and sufficient material resources can influence subjective well-being, age itself does not have a direct impact on it. Other factors, such as health, relationships, and personal circumstances, may play a more significant role in determining subjective well-being.
48.
What is not a measured component of subjective well-being?
Correct Answer
D. Amount of social support
Explanation
The amount of social support is not a measured component of subjective well-being. Subjective well-being refers to an individual's overall evaluation of their own life and includes factors such as life satisfaction, positive feelings, and low negative feelings. While social support can contribute to subjective well-being, it is not directly measured as a component in assessing one's well-being.
49.
The theory that mental illness is caused by trauma and stress is called:
Correct Answer
C. Psychogenic
Explanation
The theory that mental illness is caused by trauma and stress is called psychogenic. This theory suggests that psychological factors, such as traumatic experiences or high levels of stress, can contribute to the development of mental disorders. It emphasizes the importance of understanding the psychological and emotional factors that can impact an individual's mental health.
50.
John feels excessive worry about everyday things and has difficulty sleeping. Some days the worry is so bad that he doesn't want to get out of bed. Based on the information given John likely has:
Correct Answer
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
Explanation
Based on the information given, John experiences excessive worry about everyday things and has difficulty sleeping. This suggests that he may have generalized anxiety disorder. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various aspects of life, often accompanied by physical symptoms such as difficulty sleeping. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, social anxiety disorder involves intense fear and avoidance of social situations, and post-traumatic stress disorder is typically triggered by a traumatic event. None of these disorders align with the symptoms described for John.