1.
Monopolistic competition has:
Correct Answer
A. Many suppliers with a variety of products, each of which has a small market
Explanation
Monopolistic competition refers to a market structure where there are many suppliers offering a range of products, and each supplier has a small market share. In this type of competition, products may have slight differences, leading to product differentiation. This market structure allows for some level of competition among suppliers, as they strive to attract customers based on the unique features of their products. However, due to the large number of suppliers and their relatively small market share, there is not a significant level of competition compared to other market structures.
2.
Perfect competition has:
Correct Answer
C. Many suppliers selling essentially the same product
Explanation
Perfect competition is a market structure where there are many suppliers selling essentially the same product. In this type of market, there is no differentiation among the products, and each supplier has little control over the market price. The presence of many suppliers ensures that no single supplier can influence the market price, and consumers have a wide range of choices. This leads to intense competition among the suppliers, resulting in efficient production and allocation of resources.
3.
Market share is measured as:
Correct Answer
A. Company sales in $s divided by total industry $ sales over a specified time period x 100%
Explanation
Market share is measured by calculating the company's sales in dollars and dividing it by the total industry sales in dollars over a specified time period. This value is then multiplied by 100% to express it as a percentage. This calculation helps determine the portion or percentage of the market that the company holds in terms of sales revenue.
4.
Market share is measured:
Correct Answer
E. All the listed options are correct
Explanation
Market share can be measured globally, by country, by region of a country, or by segment of users. This means that market share can be calculated on a global scale, or it can be broken down by country, region, or specific segments of users. All of these options are valid ways to measure market share and provide valuable insights into the market position of a company or product.
5.
The key to competitive research is to focus on and understand:
Correct Answer
B. Competitors’ added-value processes
Explanation
Competitors' added-value processes refer to the unique features or benefits that competitors offer to their customers, which differentiate them from other players in the market. Understanding these processes is crucial in competitive research as it allows businesses to identify and analyze the specific value propositions that their competitors bring to the table. By gaining insights into competitors' added-value processes, companies can better assess their own competitive position and make informed decisions to improve their own products or services to stay ahead in the market.
6.
____________ is $s spent on advertising divided by all $s spent on advertising by industry.
Correct Answer
B. Voice share
Explanation
Voice share refers to the portion of advertising expenditure that a particular industry or company has compared to the total advertising expenditure across all industries. It represents the share of voice or presence that a company or industry has in the advertising space. By calculating voice share, one can determine the level of advertising investment and visibility in relation to competitors or the overall market.
7.
How many competitive forces are there in the Porter Model?
Correct Answer
E. 5
Explanation
The Porter Model consists of five competitive forces that determine the attractiveness and profitability of an industry. These forces include the threat of new entrants, the bargaining power of buyers, the bargaining power of suppliers, the threat of substitute products or services, and the intensity of competitive rivalry. Each of these forces plays a crucial role in shaping the competitive landscape of an industry and influencing the strategies of firms operating within it. Therefore, the correct answer is 5.
8.
Which of the following is correct? Marketing views suppliers and buyers:
Correct Answer
C. Mostly as partners, sometimes as competition
Explanation
Marketing views suppliers and buyers mostly as partners because they work together to create and deliver value to customers. Suppliers provide the necessary resources and materials, while buyers provide the demand for the products or services. However, there are instances where competition arises, such as when suppliers compete for contracts or buyers compare different suppliers to get the best deal. Nonetheless, the overall perspective is that suppliers and buyers have a collaborative relationship in the marketing process.
9.
Which of the following are not part of the competitive added-value chain?
Correct Answer
C. Resource allocation processes
Explanation
Resource allocation processes are not part of the competitive added-value chain because they involve the allocation and distribution of resources within an organization, such as budgeting, financial planning, and resource allocation. While these processes are important for the overall functioning of an organization, they do not directly contribute to creating value for customers or differentiating a company from its competitors. The competitive added-value chain primarily focuses on activities that directly impact the creation, production, and delivery of goods or services to customers, such as supply processes, manufacturing/operations processes, marketing and sales processes, and service processes.
10.
Which of the following are not part of the competitive added-value chain?
Correct Answer
D. System control processes
Explanation
System control processes are not part of the competitive added-value chain because they are primarily focused on monitoring and managing the overall system or organization, rather than directly adding value to the final product or service. These processes involve activities such as planning, organizing, and controlling resources, as well as setting performance targets and evaluating performance. While important for efficient operations, system control processes are not directly involved in the creation, production, or delivery of the product or service, which are the key components of the competitive added-value chain.
11.
The biggest driver of change in channels is:
Correct Answer
C. New technology
Explanation
New technology is the biggest driver of change in channels because it constantly introduces innovative ways of conducting business and reaching customers. It enables companies to streamline their operations, improve efficiency, and enhance customer experience. With the rapid advancements in technology, businesses are forced to adapt and embrace these changes in order to stay competitive. Additionally, new technology often disrupts traditional business models, creating new opportunities for startups and new competitors to enter the market and challenge established players. As a result, companies need to continuously invest in and leverage new technology to stay ahead in the ever-evolving business landscape.
12.
The future of popular music depends on:
Correct Answer
D. A and B above
Explanation
The future of popular music depends on reducing file sharing and finding a profitable way to sell music on the Internet. File sharing has been a major issue for the music industry, as it leads to loss of revenue for artists and labels. By reducing file sharing, artists and labels can ensure that their music is being properly compensated for. Additionally, finding a profitable way to sell music on the Internet is crucial in the digital age, where streaming services have become dominant. By finding innovative ways to monetize music online, artists and labels can sustain their careers and continue creating music.
13.
The three stages of an individual distributor audit are, in order:
Correct Answer
C. Performance metric analysis, fit analysis and added-value chain analysis
Explanation
The correct answer is Performance metric analysis, fit analysis and added-value chain analysis. This is because the question asks for the three stages of an individual distributor audit in order. Performance metric analysis is typically the first stage, where the distributor's performance metrics are evaluated. Fit analysis comes next, where the distributor's fit with the company's goals and values is assessed. Finally, added-value chain analysis is conducted to determine how the distributor adds value to the company's supply chain.
14.
Channel research identifies where a distributor or trading partner is comparatively weak and/or strong:
Correct Answer
D. Along its added-value chain
Explanation
The correct answer is "Along its added-value chain". Channel research helps identify the areas where a distributor or trading partner is comparatively weak or strong. This includes examining the brand of product they carry, the skills of their management, the resources they possess, and their performance along the added-value chain. By analyzing these factors, businesses can determine where improvements or adjustments need to be made to enhance their overall channel performance and competitiveness.
15.
__________ is/are important in undertaking distribution channel research.
Correct Answer
B. Process thinking skills
Explanation
Process thinking skills are important in undertaking distribution channel research because they enable individuals to analyze and understand the various steps and components involved in the distribution process. This includes identifying key stakeholders, mapping out the flow of products or services, and identifying potential bottlenecks or inefficiencies. By applying process thinking skills, researchers can gain a deeper understanding of how distribution channels operate and identify opportunities for improvement or optimization.
16.
The most important economic trends that the North American marketer must track are economic trends in:
Correct Answer
C. Emerging nations
Explanation
The correct answer is "Emerging nations" because these countries are experiencing rapid economic growth and development, making them important markets for North American marketers. Keeping track of economic trends in emerging nations allows marketers to identify new opportunities for expansion and investment. Additionally, the growth of these economies can also impact North American markets through increased trade and competition. Therefore, monitoring economic trends in emerging nations is crucial for North American marketers to stay competitive and capitalize on potential business prospects.
17.
What trend precipitated the recent U.S. recession?
Correct Answer
D. Chinese consumers saving a lot rather than spending
Explanation
The recent U.S. recession was precipitated by Chinese consumers saving a lot rather than spending. When Chinese consumers save more and spend less, it reduces the demand for goods and services from other countries, including the United States. This decrease in demand can lead to a decline in U.S. exports and overall economic growth. Additionally, reduced spending by Chinese consumers can also impact global financial markets and investor confidence, further contributing to a recession.
18.
What underlies dynamic analysis?
Correct Answer
C. Positive feedback effects
Explanation
Dynamic analysis is the study of how systems change and evolve over time. It involves analyzing the interactions and feedback loops within a system. Positive feedback effects refer to situations where a change in one part of a system leads to further changes that reinforce the initial change. This can create a self-reinforcing cycle, amplifying the effects of the initial change. Therefore, positive feedback effects are a key factor that underlies dynamic analysis, as they play a significant role in understanding how systems behave and evolve over time.
19.
Environment analysis involves:
Correct Answer
C. Analyzing the dynamics that are driving trends
Explanation
Environment analysis involves analyzing the dynamics that are driving trends. This process goes beyond simply collecting a lot of data or presenting economic trends. It involves understanding the underlying factors and forces that are influencing the trends in the environment. By analyzing these dynamics, organizations can gain insights into the opportunities and threats that exist in the external environment, and make informed decisions accordingly.
20.
As the number of gas pumps at convenience stores increased:
Correct Answer
D. All of the above options are true
Explanation
The statement suggests that with the increase in the number of gas pumps at convenience stores, traditional gas station revenues fell because customers now had the convenience of filling up their tanks at these stores. Additionally, gas stations stocked and sold more convenience products to attract customers and compensate for the decrease in gas revenues. On the other hand, convenience store convenience product revenues fell because customers were primarily visiting for gas and not purchasing other products. Therefore, all of the given options are true.
21.
Vicious circles:
Correct Answer
D. Are created by positive feedback effects
Explanation
Vicious circles are created by positive feedback effects. This means that certain actions or events lead to a chain reaction, where each subsequent event reinforces and amplifies the initial action. In the context of management or any other situation, this can result in a cycle of negative outcomes that are difficult to break.
22.
Much of current marketing law in North America is:
Correct Answer
C. The result of lobbyists seeking competitive advantage
Explanation
The correct answer is "The result of lobbyists seeking competitive advantage." This means that much of the current marketing law in North America has been influenced and shaped by lobbyists who have sought to gain advantages for their respective industries or companies. These lobbyists use their influence, connections, and resources to persuade lawmakers and shape legislation in a way that benefits their clients' interests and gives them a competitive edge in the market.
23.
A basic principle of free market economics is:
Correct Answer
C. Regulation is needed to make markets fair and efficient
Explanation
Regulation is needed to make markets fair and efficient because without any regulation, there is a risk of monopolies forming and abusing their power, which can lead to unfair competition and higher prices for consumers. Regulations help ensure that businesses operate in a transparent and ethical manner, protecting consumers from fraud and deception. They also promote competition and prevent market failures, such as externalities and information asymmetry. By setting standards and enforcing rules, regulations aim to create a level playing field for all participants in the market, fostering fair and efficient economic outcomes.
24.
The swapping of internet music files is:
Correct Answer
A. Only legal if you have the permission of the copyright holder
Explanation
The swapping of internet music files is only legal if you have the permission of the copyright holder. This means that if you have obtained the necessary rights or licenses to share or distribute the music files, then it is considered legal. However, if you do not have the permission of the copyright holder, it would be considered copyright infringement and therefore illegal.
25.
An obsessive resentment of market law and regulation:
Correct Answer
C. Can result in disaster and disgrace
Explanation
An obsessive resentment of market law and regulation can result in disaster and disgrace. When individuals strongly oppose any form of regulation or control in the market, it can lead to unchecked behavior and unethical practices. Without proper oversight, market participants may engage in fraudulent activities, manipulation, or exploitation, which can ultimately lead to financial crises, scandals, and reputational damage. The absence of regulation can also create an environment where businesses prioritize profit over the well-being of consumers and the overall stability of the market.
26.
How many planning documents are recommended?
Correct Answer
D. 4
Explanation
The recommended number of planning documents is 4. This suggests that there are specific planning documents that are necessary for effective planning. The question does not provide any additional context or information about what these planning documents are, but based on the given options, it is clear that the recommended number is 4.
27.
Some large companies __________ which contain running reports on changing buyer demand, global supply-chain developments and latest information on competition.
Correct Answer
B. Use market insight blogs
Explanation
Large companies use market insight blogs to stay updated on changing buyer demand, global supply-chain developments, and the latest information on competition. These blogs provide real-time information and analysis, allowing companies to make informed decisions and stay ahead in the market. Unlike market research reports, which can be costly and time-consuming to obtain, market insight blogs offer a more efficient and accessible way to gather relevant information. Additionally, blogs often provide valuable insights and perspectives from industry experts and thought leaders, further enhancing companies' understanding of the market.
28.
Two studies undertaken by The Conference Board of Fortune 1000 company marketing planning practices revealed that __________ present an analysis of the latest insights into changing customer preferences and behavior, competitor behavior and channel behavior.
Correct Answer
C. Less than one in three
Explanation
The answer "Less than one in three" is correct because the studies conducted by The Conference Board of Fortune 1000 company marketing planning practices revealed that only a small proportion of companies, specifically less than one in three, present an analysis of the latest insights into changing customer preferences and behavior, competitor behavior, and channel behavior. This suggests that a majority of companies are not effectively utilizing these insights in their marketing planning practices.
29.
A network of market observers is used:
Correct Answer
D. All of these options are correct
Explanation
A network of market observers is used for multiple purposes. Firstly, it is used to gather intelligence, which means collecting information and data about the market. Secondly, it is used to make sense of market metrics, which involves analyzing and interpreting the collected data to understand the market trends and patterns. Lastly, it is used to come to a consensus as to what is happening in the market, which means reaching a collective agreement or understanding among the observers about the current state of the market. Therefore, all of these options are correct as they describe the different roles and functions of a network of market observers.
30.
Manager thinking quality, rationality and insight is bound by:
Correct Answer
D. A and B
Explanation
The correct answer is A and B. The quality of the tools and methods used by managers to process information is important because it affects their ability to make informed decisions. If they have access to reliable and efficient tools, they are more likely to gather accurate information and analyze it effectively. Additionally, market intelligence is crucial for managers as it provides them with valuable insights about the market trends, customer preferences, and competitors, which helps them make strategic decisions. The amount managers are paid, however, is not directly related to their thinking quality, rationality, and insight.
31.
Which of the following is not internal secondary data:
Correct Answer
A. A satisfaction survey of customers
Explanation
A satisfaction survey of customers is not considered internal secondary data because it is collected directly from external sources, specifically the customers themselves. Internal secondary data refers to information that is already available within the organization, such as financial reports, old market research studies, and sales records. These data sources are generated and maintained by the organization itself and can be used for analysis and decision-making purposes.
32.
Which of the following is not an environment in a market analysis:
Correct Answer
D. Psychological Environment
Explanation
The psychological environment is not typically considered as part of a market analysis. Market analysis focuses on external factors that can impact a business, such as the economic, technological, and legal environments. The psychological environment, on the other hand, refers to the attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors of individuals and is more relevant to consumer behavior analysis rather than market analysis.
33.
Which of the following is not a best practice in calling experts:
Correct Answer
C. Do not use a list of questions; it is too obvious you are undertaking a survey
Explanation
Using a list of questions is not a best practice in calling experts because it can make it obvious that you are conducting a survey. This may make the experts less willing to provide genuine and thoughtful responses. It is important to create a more natural and engaging conversation by asking open-ended questions and allowing the expert to share their insights and expertise.
34.
In a SWOT analysis the threats and opportunities are __________ .
Correct Answer
D. External to your organization and about your future business
Explanation
In a SWOT analysis, threats and opportunities refer to factors that are external to your organization and are related to your future business. This means that they are outside factors that could potentially impact your organization in the future, such as changes in the market, emerging trends, or new competitors. These factors are not directly within your control and are considered external to your organization. It is important to identify and analyze these threats and opportunities to develop strategies and plans to mitigate risks and capitalize on potential opportunities in the future.
35.
It is recommended that you answer which of the following questions in undertaking aSWOT analysis:
Correct Answer
E. All of these questions
Explanation
The correct answer is "All of these questions" because a SWOT analysis involves evaluating the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of a business idea or venture. In order to fully assess these factors, it is necessary to consider all of the questions listed. Each question addresses a different aspect of the analysis, such as buyer utility, pricing, sales volume, and adoption hurdles and threats. Therefore, considering all of these questions will provide a comprehensive understanding of the potential strengths and weaknesses of the business idea, as well as the opportunities and threats it may face.
36.
Patents are part of which of the four SWOT elements?
Correct Answer
A. Strengths
Explanation
Patents are considered a strength in the SWOT analysis. Patents provide a competitive advantage by protecting intellectual property and preventing others from copying or using the patented technology or invention. They can also generate revenue through licensing or selling the patent rights. Having patents demonstrates innovation, uniqueness, and expertise, which are all strengths that can contribute to the success of a business.
37.
Poor distribution reach is part of which of the four SWOT elements?
Correct Answer
B. Weaknesses
Explanation
Poor distribution reach is considered a weakness because it indicates a limitation or deficiency in the company's ability to effectively reach and distribute its products or services to its target market. This can result in missed opportunities for sales and growth, as well as a competitive disadvantage compared to companies with stronger distribution networks. Therefore, it falls under the weaknesses element of the SWOT analysis, which focuses on internal factors that hinder the company's performance.
38.
Competitor innovations are part of which of the four SWOT elements?
Correct Answer
D. Threats
Explanation
Competitor innovations can be seen as a threat to a company's position in the market. These innovations may attract customers away from the company's products or services, potentially leading to a loss of market share. Therefore, competitor innovations fall under the "Threats" element of the SWOT analysis, as they pose a risk to the company's competitive advantage and overall success.
39.
Managers who spend the quiet time allocated to thinking about the SWOT analysis putting out fires:
Correct Answer
D. Reveal themselves as forever lieutenants
Explanation
The correct answer is "Reveal themselves as forever lieutenants." This answer suggests that managers who spend their allocated quiet time on putting out fires are revealing themselves as forever lieutenants, implying that they are not effectively prioritizing strategic thinking and are instead constantly focused on immediate problems. This indicates a lack of ability to think strategically and prioritize long-term goals, which may hinder their career progression.
40.
The implementation plan:
Correct Answer
A. Is a map of activities and processes to be undertaken
Explanation
The implementation plan refers to a map of activities and processes that need to be carried out. It outlines the specific steps and tasks that need to be undertaken in order to execute a particular project or strategy. This plan helps to provide a clear roadmap for the team, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same goals. It allows for better coordination and organization of resources, ensuring that the project is completed successfully.
41.
Each process must be mapped to reveal:
Correct Answer
E. All of these options are true
Explanation
The statement suggests that in order to reveal important information about a process, such as dependencies between activities, bottlenecks, responsible parties, and unnecessary tasks, each process must be mapped. This means that by mapping the process, one can gain insights into how activities are interrelated, identify areas where there might be delays or constraints, determine who is accountable for each task, and identify any tasks that may not contribute to the overall goal. Therefore, all of the options mentioned in the statement are true.
42.
Managers who are excellent at getting things done:
Correct Answer
E. All of these options are true
Explanation
Managers who are excellent at getting things done demonstrate several key behaviors. They break down processes into specific tasks and next actions, which helps them stay organized and focused on completing each step. They also use to-do lists that are reviewed weekly, ensuring that they prioritize and stay on top of their tasks. Having well-sorted filing systems allows them to easily retrieve information and documents as needed. Additionally, they have the habit of doing easy, simple things right away, which helps prevent tasks from piling up and becoming overwhelming. Therefore, all of these options are true for managers who are excellent at getting things done.
43.
Managers whose personal task and process management skills are weak:
Correct Answer
C. Are often not good at orchestrating and managing organization wide processes
Explanation
Managers whose personal task and process management skills are weak are often not good at orchestrating and managing organization wide processes. This means that they struggle to effectively coordinate and oversee the various processes and tasks that take place throughout the entire organization. They may lack the ability to create efficient workflows, allocate resources effectively, and ensure that all processes are aligned with the organization's goals and objectives. As a result, they may face challenges in achieving optimal productivity and performance at the organizational level.
44.
The person you hand-off the product of a task to is called:
Correct Answer
D. An internal customer
Explanation
When you complete a task and pass it on to someone else, that person can be referred to as an "internal customer". This term is used to emphasize the importance of providing a high-quality product or service to the next person in the process, just as you would for an external customer. It highlights the idea that each person in a workflow relies on the work of others to be successful, and that satisfying their needs is crucial for overall efficiency and effectiveness.
45.
The internal customer is expected to blow the whistle on (call attention to):
Correct Answer
E. All of these options
Explanation
The internal customer is expected to blow the whistle on poor quality hand-off, serious unscheduled delays or cost over-runs, and the doubtful added-value to both the customer and owners of the previous process activity. This means that the internal customer should raise concerns and draw attention to any issues related to these areas.
46.
As each member of a team is likely to be responsible for managing specific partnerships, the team must always be concerned about ________ , with each team member preoccupied with and promoting the implementation perspective and interests of the alliance partner they are working with.
Correct Answer
A. Common team goals
Explanation
In order for a team to effectively manage partnerships, it is important for each team member to be focused on and promote the implementation perspective and interests of the alliance partner they are working with. This can only be achieved if the team has common team goals that everyone is working towards. Common team goals provide a shared purpose and direction for the team, ensuring that individual team members prioritize the overall objectives of the team and work together towards achieving them. This helps in maintaining a cohesive and coordinated approach in managing partnerships.
47.
Entrepreneurial business development teams are most effective when senior management and the organization map the ___________ .
Correct Answer
E. B and C
Explanation
Entrepreneurial business development teams are most effective when senior management and the organization map the processes that add value to the customer and the processes that add value to the owners. This means that the team should focus on identifying and implementing strategies that not only benefit the customers but also contribute to the overall growth and profitability of the organization. By aligning their efforts with these two aspects, the team can ensure a balanced approach that caters to both customer satisfaction and business success.
48.
In budgeting, the order of use of the budget documents is:
Correct Answer
C. Gap analysis, Capital Creation analysis, P&L statement
Explanation
In budgeting, the order of use of the budget documents is Gap analysis, Capital Creation analysis, P&L statement. This order is important because it follows a logical sequence. Gap analysis helps identify the difference between the desired financial outcomes and the current financial situation. Capital Creation analysis then determines the resources needed to bridge the gap identified in the gap analysis. Finally, the P&L statement provides a comprehensive overview of the company's financial performance. By following this order, organizations can effectively assess their financial situation, plan for future investments, and evaluate their profitability.
49.
The profit and loss budget statement is presented:
Correct Answer
E. Month to month and year to year
Explanation
The profit and loss budget statement is presented month to month and year to year because it allows for a comprehensive analysis of the company's financial performance over different time periods. Monitoring the profit and loss on a monthly basis helps identify short-term trends and fluctuations, enabling timely adjustments and decision-making. On the other hand, comparing the performance year to year provides a broader perspective on the company's overall financial health and long-term trends. This combination of monthly and yearly analysis ensures a balanced approach to budgeting and financial management.
50.
Lifestyle trends are part of which of the four SWOT elements?
Correct Answer
C. Opportunities
Explanation
Lifestyle trends are part of the "Opportunities" element in the SWOT analysis. This is because lifestyle trends can present new and emerging opportunities for businesses to capitalize on. By identifying and understanding these trends, businesses can adapt their products or services to meet the changing needs and preferences of consumers, thereby gaining a competitive advantage and increasing their market share.