1.
Some genes located on the same chromosome do not show perfect linkage because?
Correct Answer
C. Crossover events occur between homologous genes
Explanation
Correct answer is: (C) crossover events occur between homologous genes
2.
During an experiment with drosophilia, it was discovered that all females had red eyes. A conclusing based on this observation would be?
Correct Answer
E. Both (A) and (B) are correct
Explanation
Correct answer is: (E) both (A) and (B) are correct
3.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding genetic mapping?
Correct Answer
E. Mapping is used to determine the composition of a gene.
Explanation
Correct answer is: (E) Mapping is used ot determine the compositon of a gene.
4.
Evidence that physical recombination occurs between two chromosomes was provided by?
Correct Answer
A. McClintock and Creighton
Explanation
Correct answer: (A) McClintock and Creighton
5.
The chromosomal theory of inheritance holds that
Correct Answer
D. Genes are arranged in a linear order on chromosomes
Explanation
Correct answer is: (D) genes are arranged in a linear order on chromosomes
6.
Which of the following was demonstrated by Frederick and Griffiths?
Correct Answer
B. A genetic trait can be transferred from one organism to another
Explanation
Correct answer is: (B) a genetic trait can be transferred from one organsim to another
7.
Who first conducted the X-ray diffraction studies of DNA?
Correct Answer
A. Franklin and Wilkins
Explanation
Correct answer is: (A) Franklin and Wilkins
8.
Which of the follwing scientists provided definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory?
Correct Answer
B. Morgan
Explanation
Correct answer is: (B) Morgan
9.
The relationship between genes and enzymes was shown by?
Correct Answer
B. Beadle and Tatum
Explanation
Correct answer is: (B) Beadle and Tatum
10.
The notion of one-gene/one-enzyme is true or not? If not, it is because of which of the following?
Correct Answer
D. All A-C are correct
Explanation
Correct answer is: (D) All A-C are correct
11.
Which of the following is not a product of transcription?
Correct Answer
B. DNA
Explanation
Correct answer is: (B) DNA
12.
Which of the following is true about wild-type organisms?
Correct Answer
C. They are also referred to as standard-types
Explanation
Correct answer is: (C) They are also referred to as standard-types
13.
The correct structure of DNA components can be presented as
Correct Answer
B. pHospHate-sugar-base
Explanation
Correct answer is: (B) phosphate-sugar-base
14.
Which of the following is a characteristic of double-stranded DNA?
Correct Answer
E. A, B and C
Explanation
Correct answer is: (E) A, B and C
15.
Which of the following DNA molecules is the most stable?
Correct Answer
D. GCGTGCAC
CGCACGTG
Explanation
Correct answer is: (D)
16.
Double-stranded DNA consists of two antiparallel strands, meaning that one strand is oriented in the 5' to 3' direction, while the other is oriented in the 3' to 5' direction.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Correct answer is: (A) True
17.
Asymmetrical spacing of the backbones of the DNA double helix generates major and minor grooves.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Correct Answer is: (A) True
18.
In experiments conducted by Griffitsh, the inabilityy of the avirulent strain to produce a lethal infection was due to
Correct Answer
B. Destruction by the host's white blood cells
Explanation
Correct answer is: (B) Destruction by the host's white blood cells
19.
Experiments conducted by Frederick Griffiths laid the foundation for?
Correct Answer
B. DNA as the genetic material
Explanation
Correct answer is: (B) DNA as the genetic material
20.
Which of the following would be the substance of choice to destroy the DNA in a solution?
Correct Answer
D. Deoxyribonuclease
Explanation
Correct answer is: deoxyribonuclease
21.
The analytic tools used to show that DNA was the transforming substance include all of the following except
Correct Answer
D. Heat inactivation
Explanation
Correct answer is: (D) heat inactivation
22.
All of the following are found in RNA except
Correct Answer
B. Deoxyribose
Explanation
Correct answer is: deoxyribose
23.
Which of the following is not found in RNA and DNA?
Correct Answer
D. Sulfur
Explanation
Correct answer is: (D) sulfur
24.
The bonds that connect adenine to thymine in a DNA double helix are
Correct Answer
C. Hydrogen
Explanation
The correct answer: (C) hydrogen
25.
Phosphodiester bonds are examples of
Correct Answer
C. Convalent bonds
Explanation
Correct answer is: convalent bonds
26.
The ability of two polynucleotide strands to hybridize is based on which of the following principles?
Correct Answer
C. Complementary base pairing
Explanation
The correct answer is: (C) complementary base pairing
27.
Rapid cooling of DNA following heating at high temperature will cause
Correct Answer
C. The strands to remain separated
Explanation
The correct answer: (C) the strands to remain separted. a common procedure to ensure that denatured DNA stays denatured is to brunge the hot dna solution into ice also called quenching.
28.
Which of the following features is common to DNA, RNA, and proteins?
Correct Answer
D. They are polymers.
Explanation
The correct answer is: (D) They are polymers
29.
The messenger hypothesis states that
Correct Answer
C. Messenger RNAs carry genetic inforamtion to ribosomes
Explanation
The correct answer is: (C) messenger RNAs carry genetic information to ribosomes
30.
In an experiment conducted to toest the messenger hypothesis, whch states that messenger RNA carries the genetic information 35S was used instead of 32P. What is one possible outcome of this experiment?
Correct Answer
B. No label would be found in the RNA
Explanation
The correct answer is: (B) No label would be found in the RNA
31.
Predict the consequence of treating the 70s ribosomal with urea:
Correct Answer
D. The unit would dissociate from RNA and protein components.
Explanation
The correct asnswer is: (D) the unit would dissociate from RNA and protein components
32.
A new mutant cell line was accidentall created in the lab. This mutant was found to be deficient in the enzyme aminacyl-tRNA synthetase. Which of the following would most likely to observe in this cell line?
Correct Answer
C. Most tRNA molecules would not be able to attach to amino acids
Explanation
The correct answers is: (C) Most tRNA molecules would not be able to attach to amino acids
33.
Which is the following is not requried during the elongation phase of translation in bacteria?
Correct Answer
E. Ribonuclease
Explanation
The correct answer is: (E) ribonuclease
34.
Which of the following is likely to contribute to a shift in the reading frame in an mRNA molecule?
Correct Answer
C. Removal of a single base
Explanation
The correct answer is: (C) removal of a single base
35.
A gene can accept occasional changes, which allows organisms to evolve
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Genes can indeed accept occasional changes, which is known as genetic variation. This genetic variation is crucial for the process of evolution as it allows organisms to adapt to their environment over time. These changes can occur through various mechanisms such as mutations, gene flow, and genetic recombination. Therefore, the statement "A gene can accept occasional changes, which allows organisms to evolve" is true.
36.
MRNA encodes a gene
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
mRNA does not encode a gene. mRNA is a molecule that is transcribed from a gene and carries the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for making a specific protein or functional RNA molecule. Therefore, mRNA is a product of gene expression, not the gene itself.
37.
The noncoding strand of a gene is the same as the antisense strand
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The noncoding strand of a gene is not the same as the antisense strand. The noncoding strand is the template strand that is transcribed into RNA, while the antisense strand is the complementary strand to the coding (sense) strand.
38.
An amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen are found in all amino acids
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
All amino acids have a common structure consisting of an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen atom. The amino group contains a nitrogen atom bonded to two hydrogen atoms, while the carboxyl group consists of a carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom and single-bonded to a hydroxyl group. These functional groups are essential for the formation of peptide bonds and the overall structure and function of proteins. Therefore, it is true that all amino acids contain an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen atom.
39.
A segments of DNA is considered upstream when t is located on the 5' end of the start site.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because in DNA, the 5' end refers to the end of the DNA strand that has a phosphate group attached to the 5th carbon of the sugar molecule. The start site is where transcription begins, and if a segment of DNA is located on the 5' end of the start site, it is considered upstream.
40.
Restriction enzymes were discoverd by
Correct Answer
B. Linn and Arber
Explanation
The correct answer is: (B) Linn and Arber
41.
The complementary sequence of oneof the following is a palindrome. Which one?
Correct Answer
A. GAATTC
Explanation
The correct answer is: (A) GAATTC
42.
Select the component that is most critical to the function of as plasmid?
Correct Answer
D. Origin of replication
Explanation
The origin of replication is the component that is most critical to the function of a plasmid. It is responsible for initiating the replication process and allows the plasmid to be replicated and passed on to daughter cells. Without the origin of replication, the plasmid would not be able to replicate and would not be maintained in the cell population. The other components listed, such as tetracycline resistance, ampicillin resistance, EcoRI site, and ligase, are important for certain applications or functions of the plasmid but are not essential for its basic replication and maintenance.
43.
An experimenter is able to select recombinant colonies from a bacterial culture plate based on the color of the colonies. Which of the following is a correct statement.
Correct Answer
C. Colonies that contain recombinants are colorless due to the distruption of the lacZ gene by the insert
Explanation
The correct statement is that colonies that contain recombinants are colorless due to the disruption of the lacZ gene by the insert. This is because the lacZ gene is responsible for producing an enzyme called beta-galactosidase, which is required for the breakdown of a colorless substrate called X-gal into a blue product. When the lacZ gene is disrupted by the insert, the colonies are unable to produce the enzyme and therefore do not turn blue.
44.
One approach to prevent religation of the ends of a restricted plasmid DNA is to
Correct Answer
C. Treat the plasmid with alkaline pHospHatase to remove pHospHate for the sticky ends
Explanation
Treating the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase is an effective approach to prevent religation of the ends of a restricted plasmid DNA. This is because alkaline phosphatase removes the phosphate groups from the sticky ends of the DNA, which are necessary for the ends to rejoin and religate. By removing the phosphate groups, the sticky ends become blunt ends, making it difficult for the DNA to reconnect and religate. Therefore, treating the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase helps to prevent the unwanted rejoining of the DNA ends and maintains the integrity of the restricted plasmid.
45.
A recombinant plasmid was constructed with several restriction enzyme sites and an ampicillin resistance marker. This recombinant was used to transform a host bacteria that also has the ampicillin resistant gene. Which of the following statements is true regarding this experiment?
Correct Answer
E. All of the choices are true
Explanation
All of the choices are true. Since the recombinant plasmid contains an ampicillin resistance marker, all transformed bacteria, including both the transformed and untransformed ones, will be able to grow on a plate containing ampicillin. Additionally, the presence of multiple restriction enzyme sites in the plasmid makes it difficult to screen for a colony containing the plasmid. Therefore, it is true that it will be difficult to screen for a colony containing a plasmid. Lastly, it is recommended to use an ampicillin-sensitive bacterial host for screening purposes.
46.
How many enzymes should be used in a plasmid DNA and an insert if there is one desired site to ligate the insert in the vector to a specific orientation?
Correct Answer
B. 2
Explanation
If there is one desired site to ligate the insert in the vector to a specific orientation, two enzymes should be used in the plasmid DNA and insert. One enzyme will cut the plasmid DNA at the desired site, creating a linear vector. The other enzyme will cut the insert at a compatible site, creating sticky ends that can base pair with the sticky ends of the linear vector. This will allow the insert to be ligated into the vector in the desired orientation.
47.
A bacterial sample was contaminated with an unknown preparation of vector DNA. In order to identify the vector, the bacteria was streaked on a plate and incubated overnight. Examination of the plate revealed at least 120 clear plaques. Which of the following is a plausible conclusion?
Correct Answer
B. The vector could be a pHage
Explanation
Based on the information provided, the presence of at least 120 clear plaques indicates that the vector could be a phage. Phages are viruses that infect bacteria and can form clear plaques on a bacterial lawn. Plasmids, Ti plasmids, puc18, and cosmids are all types of vectors, but they do not typically form clear plaques. Therefore, the most plausible conclusion is that the vector is a phage.
48.
In constructing a cDNA library, which of the following would you use to generate rare restriction sites on the cDNA strands?
Correct Answer
D. Ligate cDNA to specific linkers
Explanation
To generate rare restriction sites on the cDNA strands, one would use the technique of ligating cDNA to specific linkers. Linkers are short DNA sequences that contain rare restriction sites. By ligating these linkers to the cDNA strands, rare restriction sites can be introduced. This allows for the identification and isolation of specific DNA fragments within the cDNA library using the corresponding restriction enzymes. Restriction enzymes, PCR with multiple cycles, and BamHI restriction followed by ligation are not methods specifically used to generate rare restriction sites on the cDNA strands.
49.
Which of the following enzymes cannot catalyze the formation of a phosphodiester bond?
Correct Answer
A. Endonuclease
Explanation
Endonucleases are enzymes that cleave phosphodiester bonds within a DNA or RNA molecule. They do not catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds. Therefore, the correct answer is endonuclease.
50.
A disadvantage of using a prokaryotic expression systems for eukaryotic proteins is that the proteins are
Correct Answer
B. Improperly folded
Explanation
Using a prokaryotic expression system for eukaryotic proteins can lead to the proteins being improperly folded. Prokaryotic cells lack the machinery and post-translational modifications required for proper folding of eukaryotic proteins. As a result, the proteins may not adopt their correct three-dimensional structure and may be functionally inactive or unstable. This can affect their biological activity and overall usefulness in research or industrial applications.