Manual Of Rules Pt. 2

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team

The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.

Learn about Our Editorial Process

| By CarrotCake

CarrotCake

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 315

Questions: 98 | Attempts: 139 | Updated: Aug 1, 2024

Questions

Settings

Feedback

During the Quiz End of Quiz

Play as

Quiz Flashcard

Create your own Quiz

Last portion of Manual of Rules

Questions and Answers

1.

The FTO has two primary roles to fulfill;
- A.
  
  A mentor to the probationary PSO
- B.
  
  A PSO assuming full patrol responsibility
- C.
  
  A trainer who will recommend the acceptance or dismissal of a probationary officer
- D.
  
  A trainer and evaluator of probationary PSO's
Correct Answer(s)
B. A PSO assuming full patrol responsibility
D. A trainer and evaluator of probationary PSO's

Explanation
The correct answer is "A PSO assuming full patrol responsibility" and "A trainer and evaluator of probationary PSO's". This means that the FTO (Field Training Officer) is responsible for training and evaluating probationary PSOs (Police Service Officers) while also assuming full patrol responsibility themselves. They serve as both a mentor and trainer for the probationary officers, ensuring they are prepared to handle patrol duties and making recommendations for their acceptance or dismissal.

Rate this question:

1
0
2.

Probationary PSO's may wear their uniform to and from the workplace only upon approval from a supervisor
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
The Chief of Police may make exceptions for lateral hires.

Rate this question:
3.

Probationary PSOs shall not be utilized on the overtime call in list unless they have completed Step II of the program and there is an FTO available on the shift to ride with the PSO.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
Step I needs to be completed

Rate this question:
4.

A probationary PSO working a day of overtime, who rides with an FTO, will have the day counted as a day worked towards the completion of the program.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
The statement is false because a probationary PSO working a day of overtime, who rides with an FTO, will not have the day counted as a day worked towards the completion of the program.

Rate this question:
5.

A probationary officer who requires an extension of training will have such extension administered with a formal _________
- A.
  
  Extension of Training Plan
- B.
  
  Extended Performance Plan
- C.
  
  Employment Status Hearing
- D.
  
  Performance Improvement Plan
Correct Answer
D. Performance Improvement Plan

Explanation
When a probationary officer requires an extension of training, it is likely because they are not meeting the expected performance standards. A Performance Improvement Plan (PIP) is a formal process used by employers to help employees improve their performance. It outlines specific areas where the employee is falling short and provides a timeline and specific goals for improvement. By implementing a PIP, the employer can monitor the officer's progress and provide additional support and training as needed. Therefore, a probationary officer who requires an extension of training would have such extension administered with a formal Performance Improvement Plan.

Rate this question:
6.

Recommendations for termination from the FTO program may be initiated at any time during the probationary period and a Employment Status Hearing will be recommended
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Recommendations for termination from the FTO program can be made at any point during the probationary period, indicating that there is no specific time frame for when these recommendations can be initiated. Additionally, it states that an Employment Status Hearing will be recommended, further emphasizing the seriousness of the situation and the potential consequences for the individual in question. Therefore, the statement is true.

Rate this question:
7.

Anonymous complaints should always be accepted for investigation. They should be advised that no personal response will be sent.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Anonymous complaints should always be accepted for investigation because they may contain valuable information that can help uncover wrongdoing or address issues within an organization. By accepting anonymous complaints, individuals who may fear retaliation or have concerns about their identity being revealed are more likely to come forward and report misconduct. However, it is important to inform them that no personal response will be sent to maintain their anonymity.

Rate this question:
8.

If a complainant filing a citizen complaint elects to complete the form out of the station, the complainants signature shall be notarized prior to submitting the complaint form.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
If a complainant chooses to fill out the citizen complaint form outside of the police station, their signature on the form must be notarized before submitting it. This means that the complainant must have their signature verified by a notary public, confirming that it is their genuine signature. Therefore, the statement "If a complainant filing a citizen complaint elects to complete the form out of the station, the complainants signature shall be notarized prior to submitting the complaint form" is true.

Rate this question:
9.

Regarding a citizen complaint, the appropriate preliminary disposition for minor complaints that are false on their face or involve actions that are proper and legal or when they are resolved through discussion between the supervisor and complainant should be classified:
- A.
  
  Resolved
- B.
  
  Proper Conduct
- C.
  
  No Further Action Required
- D.
  
  Unfounded
- E.
  
  Inconclusive
Correct Answer
C. No Further Action Required

Explanation
When a citizen complaint is determined to be false on its face or involves actions that are proper and legal, or when it is resolved through discussion between the supervisor and complainant, the appropriate preliminary disposition would be to classify it as "No Further Action Required". This means that there is no need for any further investigation or action to be taken regarding the complaint.

Rate this question:
10.

Regarding a citizen complaint, the appropriate preliminary disposition for any complaint alleging a criminal act, excessive use of force, racial harassment or intimidation or any serious violations of departmental rules or regulations AND/OR a complaint where the facts cannot be clearly established or cases where the employee has a prior record of instances where further investigation is warranted is:
- A.
  
  Sustained
- B.
  
  Improper Conduct
- C.
  
  Further Action Required
- D.
  
  Founded
- E.
  
  Investigation Required
Correct Answer
C. Further Action Required

Explanation
The appropriate preliminary disposition for a citizen complaint alleging a criminal act, excessive use of force, racial harassment or intimidation, serious violations of departmental rules or regulations, or cases where the facts cannot be clearly established or the employee has a prior record of instances where further investigation is warranted is "Further Action Required." This means that the complaint requires additional investigation or action to determine the appropriate course of action or resolution.

Rate this question:
11.

When a recommended final disposition invovling a citizen complaint is "Improper Conduct", the investigating supervisor may also choose what corrective action should be taken.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
Supervisor can RECOMMEND the corrective action

Rate this question:
12.

Complaints against a member of the department resulting in a finding of improper conduct, policy failure or any other disposition will be retained for 10 years.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
They will be retained indefinitely

Rate this question:
13.

When an investigation of a complaint against a member of the department is completed, the completed file will be placed in the employees personnel file.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
They are kept secure and seperate. A Written notice of discipline will be filed in the employees personnel file.

Rate this question:
14.

Records, files, documents and other items compiled and maintained as a result of a personnel complaint investigation shall NOT be subject to disclosure to the public except as required by law or court order.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The given statement is true. Records, files, documents, and other items that are compiled and maintained as a result of a personnel complaint investigation are not subject to disclosure to the public, unless required by law or court order. This means that the information gathered during such investigations is kept confidential and not made available to the public unless legally mandated.

Rate this question:
15.

Upon completion of an investigation to a citizen complaint, the _______ shall notify the complainant of the disposition once completed
- A.
  
  Chief of Police
- B.
  
  Captain
- C.
  
  Lieutenant
- D.
  
  Supervisor taking the initial complaint
Correct Answer
B. Captain

Explanation
If an employee is disciplined, the complainant will be told only that "Appropriate action was taken".

Rate this question:
16.

In order to be eligible for off-duty employment, a police employee must not be on suspension with or without pay
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
Only suspension WITHOUT pay

Rate this question:
17.

An employee shall not work any off-duty employment within 24 hours of using sick-time for regular employment
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
This statement is true because it states that an employee is not allowed to work any off-duty employment within 24 hours of using sick time for their regular employment. This policy is in place to ensure that employees have enough time to rest and recover after using sick time and to prevent any potential conflicts of interest or additional strain on the employee's health.

Rate this question:
18.

Regarding secondary employment, employees shall report when their employment terminates for ANY reason
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Employees are required to report when their secondary employment terminates for any reason. This means that regardless of the cause of termination, whether it is voluntary or involuntary, employees must inform their employer about it. This reporting requirement ensures transparency and allows the employer to keep track of the employee's secondary employment status.

Rate this question:
19.

An officer making the arrest or the officer in charge of the investigation for any domestic assault crime shall act as the complainant and shall swear to the complaint and warrant as necessary
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The given statement is true. According to the statement, an officer who makes an arrest or is in charge of the investigation for any domestic assault crime is required to act as the complainant. This means that the officer takes on the role of the person filing the complaint against the accused. The officer is also responsible for swearing to the complaint and warrant as necessary. This ensures that the legal process is followed correctly and that the complaint is properly documented.

Rate this question:
20.

Entry into NCIC is not required for enforcement of a foreign protection order
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Confirmation can be made via NLETS, by admin message from the entering agency, contact with the issuing court or law enforcement agency, or another reliable method. A copy of the PPO is acceptable if complete and no signs of invalidity.
-AND-
Evidence the PPO has been served

Rate this question:
21.

A person arrested with or without a warrant for domestic violence shall not be released until the subject is arraigned or interim bond is set by a judge.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The statement is true. When a person is arrested for domestic violence, they cannot be released until they have been arraigned (formally charged) or until an interim bond (temporary release with certain conditions) is set by a judge. This is to ensure the safety of the victim and to prevent further harm.

Rate this question:
22.

The department shall retain all completed domestic violence reports and shall file a copy of all Standard Domestic Relationship Incident Reports with the Wayne County Prosecutors Office within 24 hours of the report.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
Within 48 hours, it is also the responsibility of the officer in charge of the case to ensure the report is sent to the prosecutor

Rate this question:
23.

A supervisor should respond and take charge of a domestic violence scene when the assailant is a criminal justice employee or public official.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
In cases of domestic violence where the assailant is a criminal justice employee or public official, it is important for a supervisor to respond and take charge of the scene. This is because there may be a conflict of interest or bias if the perpetrator is a fellow colleague or someone in a position of power. By having a supervisor take charge, it ensures that the situation is handled impartially and professionally.

Rate this question:
24.

An employee reporting sick for their next regularly scheduled tour of duty must do so no later than two hours prior to reporting time
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
No later than ONE hour

Rate this question:
25.

Employees who no longer require the use of sick time shall make notification no less than two hours prior to the scheduled return date
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Employees are required to notify their employer at least two hours before their scheduled return date if they no longer need to use sick time. This means that if an employee has previously requested sick time but then becomes well before their scheduled return date, they must inform their employer within the specified timeframe. This ensures that the employer is aware and can make necessary arrangements, if needed. Therefore, the given statement is true.

Rate this question:
26.

Any employee who is convicted of a MVC driving misdemeanor violation shall notify his or her immediate supervisor within 24 hours
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
As soon as possible

Rate this question:
27.

Any employee who accumulates more than ____ points based on civil infractions on his/her driving record in a ____ year period may be subject to departmental review to determine their eligibility to operate city vehicles
- A.
  
  4 , one
- B.
  
  5 , one
- C.
  
  6 , one
- D.
  
  4 , two
- E.
  
  5 , two
- F.
  
  6 , two
Correct Answer
E. 5 , two

Explanation
In this question, the correct answer is "5, two." This means that any employee who accumulates more than 5 points based on civil infractions on his/her driving record in a two-year period may be subject to departmental review to determine their eligibility to operate city vehicles. The question is asking for the specific number of points and the length of the period in which these points are accumulated. The correct answer provides both the number of points (5) and the length of the period (two years) that would trigger a departmental review.

Rate this question:
28.

A person may keep or house racing pigeons as a hobby or business
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
As a hobby, not as a business

Rate this question:
29.

"Proper enclosure" for a dog means secure confinement indoors or a secure confinement in a locked pen, fenced yard, or structure measuring ________ (W, L, H)
- A.
  
  12 x 6 x 12
- B.
  
  6 x 12 x 6
- C.
  
  4 x 8 x 4
- D.
  
  8 x 4 x 8
Correct Answer
B. 6 x 12 x 6

Explanation
The correct answer is 6 x 12 x 6. This measurement indicates the width, length, and height of the enclosure that is considered proper for confining a dog securely.

Rate this question:
30.

Any person who shall permit any dog to remain about any premesis owned or occupied by him for a period of ___ days shall be deemed the owner
- A.
  
  3
- B.
  
  5
- C.
  
  7
- D.
  
  10
- E.
  
  14
Correct Answer
B. 5

Explanation
If a person allows a dog to stay on their property for a period of 5 days, they will be considered the owner of the dog. This suggests that after 5 days, the person has taken responsibility for the dog and is therefore considered the owner.

Rate this question:
31.

"Responsible person" means a person at least 16 years old who is familiar with the dog and has the size and experience to be able to keep the dog under complete control at all times.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
18 years old

Rate this question:
32.

No person shall keep or harbor any dog _______ or older within the city without first obtaining a license
- A.
  
  1 month
- B.
  
  2 months
- C.
  
  4 months
- D.
  
  6 months
- E.
  
  12 months
Correct Answer
C. 4 months

Explanation
The correct answer is 4 months because the sentence states that no person can keep or harbor a dog within the city without first obtaining a license. This implies that the dog must be at least 4 months old in order to be eligible for a license.

Rate this question:
33.

No license shall be issued for any dog _______ or older unless satisfactory evidence of rabies immunization within 12 months of the date of the application is proven
- A.
  
  1 month
- B.
  
  2 months
- C.
  
  4 months
- D.
  
  6 months
- E.
  
  12 months
Correct Answer
D. 6 months

Explanation
The correct answer is 6 months. This means that no license can be issued for a dog that is 6 months or older unless there is evidence of rabies immunization within the past 12 months. This requirement ensures that the dog is protected against rabies and reduces the risk of the disease spreading to other animals or humans.

Rate this question:
34.

No person owning, possessing or having charge or responsiblity of any dog _______ or older shall permit such dog to be at large, unless it is wearing the dog tag issued for it and it is on a leash held by a person capable of restraining the actions of the dog
- A.
  
  1 month
- B.
  
  2 months
- C.
  
  4 months
- D.
  
  6 months
- E.
  
  12 months
Correct Answer
C. 4 months

Explanation
According to the given statement, no person can allow a dog that is four months or older to be at large without wearing a dog tag and being on a leash held by a capable person. This suggests that at four months, the dog is considered old enough to require these precautions for safety and control.

Rate this question:
35.

The owner of a dog which has bitten a person or domestic animal without provocation shall be guilty of a civil infraction and shall be punished by a fine not to exceeed $200
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
Misdemeanor punished by a fine not to exceeed $500 and/or up to 90 days in jail

Rate this question:
36.

Determination of a dangerous dog - An investigation shall be initiated within ____ days after the situation becomes known to the Public Safety Department. When a determination is made the department shall notify the owner of the dog in writing or certified mail and/or hand delivery of the status within ____ days after the completion of the investigation
- A.
  
  7 , 7
- B.
  
  7 , 10
- C.
  
  14 , 7
- D.
  
  14 , 5
- E.
  
  7 , 14
- F.
  
  14 , 10
Correct Answer
D. 14 , 5

Explanation
According to the given information, an investigation shall be initiated within a certain number of days after the situation becomes known. The first blank should be filled with a number that represents the number of days for initiating the investigation. The second blank should be filled with a number that represents the number of days for notifying the owner of the dog about the determination. The correct answer is "14 , 5" because it is the only option where the first blank is 14 and the second blank is 5.

Rate this question:
37.

Upon notification that an owners dog is determined to be vicious, the owner may bring a petition to the municipal court within ____ business days seeking review of the determination
- A.
  
  5
- B.
  
  7
- C.
  
  10
- D.
  
  14
- E.
  
  30
Correct Answer
C. 10

Explanation
Upon notification that an owner's dog is determined to be vicious, the owner may bring a petition to the municipal court within 10 business days seeking review of the determination. This means that the owner has a limited time frame of 10 business days to challenge the determination that their dog is vicious. If they fail to bring a petition within this time period, they may not be able to seek a review of the determination.

Rate this question:
38.

When the Public Safety Department impounds a dangerous dog and after 30 days the owner has not satisfied all the requirements of the holding permit, the animal may be euthanized on the 31st day.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
If the Public Safety Department impounds a dangerous dog and the owner fails to meet all the requirements of the holding permit within 30 days, the animal may be euthanized on the 31st day. This means that if the owner does not comply with the necessary actions to ensure the safety and well-being of the dog within the given time frame, the department has the authority to euthanize the dog as a precautionary measure.

Rate this question:
39.

An owner of a "dangerous dog" must notify the department within 7 business days if the dog has died
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
Within 5 business days. The department must also be notifed with 24 hours if the dog has been sold or given away

Rate this question:
40.

It is unlawful to permit a "dangerous dog" outside a proper enclosure unless the dangerous dog is under the control of a responsbile person, muzzled, and restrained by a leash not exceeding ____ feet in length
- A.
  
  4
- B.
  
  6
- C.
  
  7
- D.
  
  10
- E.
  
  12
Correct Answer
A. 4

Explanation
In order to comply with the law, a "dangerous dog" must be kept in a proper enclosure unless it is being controlled by a responsible person. If the dog is outside the enclosure, it must be muzzled and restrained by a leash. The leash cannot exceed 4 feet in length.

Rate this question:
41.

An owner of a "dangerous dog" who violated any of the provisions of 6-24 through 6-25 regarding ownership and responsibilites of such dog shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and a fine of $500 or imprisonment of no greater than 90 days
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
If an owner of a "dangerous dog" violates any of the provisions of 6-24 through 6-25 regarding ownership and responsibilities of such a dog, they will be guilty of a misdemeanor and can face a fine of $500 or imprisonment for up to 90 days. This means that the statement is true.

Rate this question:
42.

Any dog held for the observation of rabies shall be held for a period of observation normally _____ days
- A.
  
  3
- B.
  
  5
- C.
  
  7
- D.
  
  10
- E.
  
  14
Correct Answer
D. 10

Explanation
Dogs held for observation of rabies are typically held for a period of 10 days. This allows for monitoring of the dog's behavior and health to determine if they show any signs of rabies. During this time, if the dog remains healthy and does not exhibit any symptoms, it can be concluded that the dog does not have rabies. This observation period is important for public safety as it helps to prevent the spread of the disease.

Rate this question:
43.

Any dog impounded for having bitten any person shall be held for not less than ____ days
- A.
  
  3
- B.
  
  5
- C.
  
  7
- D.
  
  10
- E.
  
  14
Correct Answer
B. 5

Explanation
Dogs that have bitten someone are impounded for a certain period of time as a safety precaution. The correct answer is 5 days, which means that any dog that has bitten a person must be held for at least 5 days. This allows for observation and evaluation of the dog's behavior and health to determine if it poses a risk to others. Holding the dog for this period also ensures that proper measures can be taken to prevent further incidents and protect public safety.

Rate this question:
44.

After a dog has been kept for ____ full days and has not been redeemed by the owner it may be destroyed in a humane manner if diseased, injured, or of little value. The dog may also be given away.
- A.
  
  3
- B.
  
  5
- C.
  
  7
- D.
  
  10
- E.
  
  14
Correct Answer
A. 3

Explanation
After a dog has been kept for 3 full days and has not been redeemed by the owner, it may be destroyed in a humane manner if diseased, injured, or of little value. The dog may also be given away.

Rate this question:
45.

A dog held for the observation of rabies and determined to not be afflicted shall notify the owner that the dog is ready to be released. If any owner shall fail to retrieve the dog within ______ it may be destroyed, sold or given away
- A.
  
  24 hours
- B.
  
  48 hours
- C.
  
  72 hours
- D.
  
  5 days
- E.
  
  7 days
- F.
  
  10 days
Correct Answer
B. 48 hours

Explanation
If a dog is held for observation for rabies and is determined to not be afflicted, the owner must be notified that the dog is ready to be released. If the owner fails to retrieve the dog within 48 hours, it may be destroyed, sold, or given away.

Rate this question:
46.

The Department of Public Service may cause the destruction or other disposition of any vicious cat not earlier than _____ hours after impoundment if the same is unclaimed
- A.
  
  24
- B.
  
  48
- C.
  
  72
- D.
  
  96
- E.
  
  36
Correct Answer
D. 96

Explanation
The book says Department of Public SERVICE

Rate this question:
47.

Construction Noises - It shall be unlawful for any person to erect, demolish, alter, or repair any building, or excavate any streets and highways, except between the hours of ____ AM and ____ PM on weekdays, unless a permit has first been obtained from the City Manager
- A.
  
  9:00 , 5:00
- B.
  
  8:00 , 4:00
- C.
  
  7:00 , 6:00
- D.
  
  8:00 , 5:00
- E.
  
  8:00 , 6:00
Correct Answer
C. 7:00 , 6:00

Explanation
The correct answer is 7:00 AM and 6:00 PM. This answer is supported by the statement that it shall be unlawful to engage in construction activities outside of these hours without a permit.

Rate this question:
48.

Operations of loud speakers in the course of a public address that is non-commercial in nature shall be permitted for four hours each day (except Sunday and legal holidays) and shall be permitted between the hours of ______ and _______, and between the hours of _______ and ________
- A.
  
  10:30AM , 12:30PM / 3:30PM , 5:30PM
- B.
  
  11:00AM , 1:00PM / 4:00PM , 6:00PM
- C.
  
  11:30AM , 1:30PM / 4:30PM , 6:30PM
- D.
  
  12:00OPM , 2:00PM / 5:00PM , 7:00PM
Correct Answer
C. 11:30AM , 1:30PM / 4:30PM , 6:30PM

Explanation
NOTE that it is permissable on Saturday

Rate this question:
49.

Sound amplifying equipment mounted on vehicles must travel at a speed of at least 10 MpH except when truck is stopped or impeded by traffic. Where stopped by traffic, the sound amplifying equipment shall not be operated for longer than 30 seconds at each stop
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
It may be operated for up to 1 minute at each stop.

Rate this question:
50.

Sound amplifiers may not be used within _____ of hospitals, schools, churches, or courthouses
- A.
  
  100 feet
- B.
  
  100 yards
- C.
  
  200 feet
- D.
  
  200 yards
- E.
  
  500 feet
- F.
  
  500 yards
Correct Answer
B. 100 yards

Explanation
Sound amplifiers may not be used within 100 yards of hospitals, schools, churches, or courthouses. This restriction is likely in place to prevent excessive noise and disturbances in areas where peace and quiet are necessary, such as healthcare facilities, educational institutions, places of worship, and legal establishments. By enforcing this rule, the authorities aim to maintain a peaceful and respectful environment in these sensitive locations.

Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
Aug 01, 2024

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Oct 23, 2011

Quiz Created by
CarrotCake

Manual Of Rules Pt. 2

The FTO has two primary roles to fulfill;

Probationary PSO's may wear their uniform to and from the workplace only upon approval from a supervisor

Probationary PSOs shall not be utilized on the overtime call in list unless they have completed Step II of the program and there is an FTO available on the shift to ride with the PSO.

A probationary PSO working a day of overtime, who rides with an FTO, will have the day counted as a day worked towards the completion of the program.

A probationary officer who requires an extension of training will have such extension administered with a formal _________

Recommendations for termination from the FTO program may be initiated at any time during the probationary period and a Employment Status Hearing will be recommended

Anonymous complaints should always be accepted for investigation. They should be advised that no personal response will be sent.

If a complainant filing a citizen complaint elects to complete the form out of the station, the complainants signature shall be notarized prior to submitting the complaint form.

Regarding a citizen complaint, the appropriate preliminary disposition for minor complaints that are false on their face or involve actions that are proper and legal or when they are resolved through discussion between the supervisor and complainant should be classified:

When a recommended final disposition invovling a citizen complaint is "Improper Conduct", the investigating supervisor may also choose what corrective action should be taken.

Complaints against a member of the department resulting in a finding of improper conduct, policy failure or any other disposition will be retained for 10 years.

When an investigation of a complaint against a member of the department is completed, the completed file will be placed in the employees personnel file.

Records, files, documents and other items compiled and maintained as a result of a personnel complaint investigation shall NOT be subject to disclosure to the public except as required by law or court order.

Upon completion of an investigation to a citizen complaint, the _______ shall notify the complainant of the disposition once completed

In order to be eligible for off-duty employment, a police employee must not be on suspension with or without pay

An employee shall not work any off-duty employment within 24 hours of using sick-time for regular employment

Regarding secondary employment, employees shall report when their employment terminates for ANY reason

An officer making the arrest or the officer in charge of the investigation for any domestic assault crime shall act as the complainant and shall swear to the complaint and warrant as necessary

Entry into NCIC is not required for enforcement of a foreign protection order

A person arrested with or without a warrant for domestic violence shall not be released until the subject is arraigned or interim bond is set by a judge.

The department shall retain all completed domestic violence reports and shall file a copy of all Standard Domestic Relationship Incident Reports with the Wayne County Prosecutors Office within 24 hours of the report.

A supervisor should respond and take charge of a domestic violence scene when the assailant is a criminal justice employee or public official.

An employee reporting sick for their next regularly scheduled tour of duty must do so no later than two hours prior to reporting time

Employees who no longer require the use of sick time shall make notification no less than two hours prior to the scheduled return date

Any employee who is convicted of a MVC driving misdemeanor violation shall notify his or her immediate supervisor within 24 hours

Any employee who accumulates more than ____ points based on civil infractions on his/her driving record in a ____ year period may be subject to departmental review to determine their eligibility to operate city vehicles

A person may keep or house racing pigeons as a hobby or business

"Proper enclosure" for a dog means secure confinement indoors or a secure confinement in a locked pen, fenced yard, or structure measuring ________ (W, L, H)

Any person who shall permit any dog to remain about any premesis owned or occupied by him for a period of ___ days shall be deemed the owner

"Responsible person" means a person at least 16 years old who is familiar with the dog and has the size and experience to be able to keep the dog under complete control at all times.

No person shall keep or harbor any dog _______ or older within the city without first obtaining a license

No license shall be issued for any dog _______ or older unless satisfactory evidence of rabies immunization within 12 months of the date of the application is proven

No person owning, possessing or having charge or responsiblity of any dog _______ or older shall permit such dog to be at large, unless it is wearing the dog tag issued for it and it is on a leash held by a person capable of restraining the actions of the dog

The owner of a dog which has bitten a person or domestic animal without provocation shall be guilty of a civil infraction and shall be punished by a fine not to exceeed $200

Upon notification that an owners dog is determined to be vicious, the owner may bring a petition to the municipal court within ____ business days seeking review of the determination

When the Public Safety Department impounds a dangerous dog and after 30 days the owner has not satisfied all the requirements of the holding permit, the animal may be euthanized on the 31st day.

An owner of a "dangerous dog" must notify the department within 7 business days if the dog has died

It is unlawful to permit a "dangerous dog" outside a proper enclosure unless the dangerous dog is under the control of a responsbile person, muzzled, and restrained by a leash not exceeding ____ feet in length

An owner of a "dangerous dog" who violated any of the provisions of 6-24 through 6-25 regarding ownership and responsibilites of such dog shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and a fine of $500 or imprisonment of no greater than 90 days

Any dog held for the observation of rabies shall be held for a period of observation normally _____ days

Any dog impounded for having bitten any person shall be held for not less than ____ days

After a dog has been kept for ____ full days and has not been redeemed by the owner it may be destroyed in a humane manner if diseased, injured, or of little value. The dog may also be given away.

A dog held for the observation of rabies and determined to not be afflicted shall notify the owner that the dog is ready to be released. If any owner shall fail to retrieve the dog within ______ it may be destroyed, sold or given away

The Department of Public Service may cause the destruction or other disposition of any vicious cat not earlier than _____ hours after impoundment if the same is unclaimed

Construction Noises - It shall be unlawful for any person to erect, demolish, alter, or repair any building, or excavate any streets and highways, except between the hours of ____ AM and ____ PM on weekdays, unless a permit has first been obtained from the City Manager

Operations of loud speakers in the course of a public address that is non-commercial in nature shall be permitted for four hours each day (except Sunday and legal holidays) and shall be permitted between the hours of ______ and _______, and between the hours of _______ and ________

Sound amplifying equipment mounted on vehicles must travel at a speed of at least 10 MpH except when truck is stopped or impeded by traffic. Where stopped by traffic, the sound amplifying equipment shall not be operated for longer than 30 seconds at each stop

Sound amplifiers may not be used within _____ of hospitals, schools, churches, or courthouses

Any employee who accumulates more than points based on civil infractions on his/her driving record in a year period may be subject to departmental review to determine their eligibility to operate city vehicles

Construction Noises - It shall be unlawful for any person to erect, demolish, alter, or repair any building, or excavate any streets and highways, except between the hours of AM and PM on weekdays, unless a permit has first been obtained from the City Manager

Operations of loud speakers in the course of a public address that is non-commercial in nature shall be permitted for four hours each day (except Sunday and legal holidays) and shall be permitted between the hours of __ and _, and between the hours of _ and ____