2S051 Vol. 4 Ure Questions
- 1.
Which of the following items is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?
- A.
Production date.
- B.
Shipping label.
- C.
Obvious damage.
- D.
Transportation control number.
Correct Answer
A. Production date.Explanation
When off-loading property from a carrier, the items that are typically checked include the shipping label to ensure it matches the intended destination, obvious damage to assess any potential harm during transportation, and the transportation control number to track and verify the movement of the property. However, the production date is not relevant in this context as it does not impact the off-loading process or the condition of the property.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who will reissue, redistribute, reuse or transfer consumable and expendables (XB3) items to disposal as scrap assets?
- A.
Customer.
- B.
Item manager.
- C.
Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS).
- D.
MAJCOM.
Correct Answer
C. Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS).Explanation
The Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) is responsible for reissuing, redistributing, reusing, or transferring consumable and expendable items to disposal as scrap assets. This means that they handle the process of disposing of these items and ensuring that they are properly scrapped. The other options, such as the customer, item manager, and MAJCOM, are not specifically tasked with this responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which block of the AF form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated block A?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
After the in-checker has signed and dated block A, the inspector will sign or stamp block B of the AF form 2005.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its designed or intended purpose is
- A.
Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRC).
- B.
Status.
- C.
Identity.
- D.
Condition.
Correct Answer
D. Condition.Explanation
The physical state of an item, referred to as its condition, is what determines its usefulness in carrying out its designed or intended purpose. The condition of an item reflects its overall state, including factors such as wear and tear, damage, and functionality. By assessing the condition of an item, one can determine whether it is suitable for its intended purpose or if repairs or replacements are necessary.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What three things are used to identify an item?
- A.
Reference number, part number, and stock number.
- B.
Stock number, nomenclature, and item description.
- C.
Stock number, item description, and specifications.
- D.
Reference number, stock number, and item description.
Correct Answer
D. Reference number, stock number, and item description.Explanation
The three things used to identify an item are the reference number, stock number, and item description. The reference number helps to uniquely identify the item and can be used for tracking or referencing purposes. The stock number is a specific identifier assigned to the item within a particular inventory or stock system. The item description provides details about the item's characteristics, features, or specifications, which further aids in identifying and distinguishing it from other items.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?
- A.
DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag.
- B.
DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.
- C.
DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.
- D.
DD Form 1577–3, Unserviceable (Reparable) Label.
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.Explanation
DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag, is the correct answer because it is specifically used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair. The term "condemned" suggests that the property is no longer usable and should be disposed of. This form serves as a clear indicator that the item is no longer functional and should not be used or repaired.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the purpose of DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension?
- A.
Updates inspection data.
- B.
Identifies condemned items.
- C.
Identifies property forwarded to maintenance.
- D.
Identifies property in stock that has been suspended.
Correct Answer
A. Updates inspection data.Explanation
DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension, is used to update inspection data. This form allows for the extension of the inspection period for property that is not ready for turn-in or disposal. By updating the inspection data, the form ensures that accurate information is maintained regarding the status and condition of the property. This helps in tracking and managing the property effectively.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the only condition code that can be used with the DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag/Label?
- A.
D
- B.
H
- C.
J
- D.
W
Correct Answer
A. DExplanation
The only condition code that can be used with the DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag/Label is D.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change?
- A.
FCH.
- B.
FCU.
- C.
FCC.
- D.
FCI.
Correct Answer
C. FCC.Explanation
The correct answer is FCC. In the context of transaction identification codes (TRICs), FCC is the code that is processed to initiate a condition change. The other options, FCH, FCU, and FCI, are not relevant in this context and do not initiate a condition change.Rate this question:
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- 10.
An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the
- A.
Property was damaged.
- B.
Customer failed to cancel the due-out.
- C.
Property delivered was an unsuitable substitute.
- D.
Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered.
Correct Answer
B. Customer failed to cancel the due-out.Explanation
If the customer failed to cancel the due-out, it means that they did not inform the organization that they no longer needed the property. This lack of communication resulted in the organization preparing the property for the customer, which ultimately led to the refusal. Therefore, the organizational refusal would be the customer's responsibility in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 11.
When deficiencies are noted during scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?
- A.
2
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
10
Correct Answer
D. 10Explanation
When deficiencies are noted during scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector conducts a follow-up inspection within 10 days. This allows the inspector to assess whether the identified issues have been addressed and corrected in a timely manner. Conducting a follow-up inspection ensures that any deficiencies are properly resolved and helps maintain the safety and efficiency of the warehouse operations.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which best describes the outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?
- A.
Notifies the shipping organization that a discrepancy exists.
- B.
Notifies MAJCOM of overage items.
- C.
Authorizes processing of identification change.
- D.
Authorizes processing of condition change.
Correct Answer
D. Authorizes processing of condition change.Explanation
The outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) is to authorize the processing of a condition change. This means that if there is a discrepancy in the condition of a supplied item, the SDR allows for the necessary changes to be made. It does not notify the shipping organization of a discrepancy, notify MAJCOM of overage items, or authorize the processing of an identification change.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which best describes when a Report of Discrepancy is required?
- A.
LRS processed issue request.
- B.
LRS cancels issue request.
- C.
Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments.
- D.
Assets involving local base or station deliveries to or returns from internal or satellite activities.
Correct Answer
C. Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments.Explanation
A Report of Discrepancy is required when there is incorrect material, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments. This means that if the received material does not match the ordered material, if the substitutes provided are not acceptable, or if there are duplicate shipments, a Report of Discrepancy needs to be filed. This helps to ensure that the correct material is received and any issues are addressed and resolved.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which form is used to process a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?
- A.
AFTO Form 350.
- B.
AF Form 2005.
- C.
DD Form 1348–1A.
- D.
SF 364.
Correct Answer
D. SF 364.Explanation
The correct answer is SF 364. The SF 364 form is used to process a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR). This form is used to report any discrepancies or issues with supplies that are received, such as damaged or incorrect items. The SF 364 allows for proper documentation and tracking of these discrepancies, ensuring that they are addressed and resolved appropriately.Rate this question:
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- 15.
When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report?
- A.
12 hours.
- B.
24 hours.
- C.
30 workdays.
- D.
45 calendar days.
Correct Answer
B. 24 hours.Explanation
When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, they must submit a discrepancy report within 24 hours of its discovery. This ensures that any issues with the inventory can be promptly addressed and resolved. Waiting longer than 24 hours could lead to delays in identifying and rectifying the discrepancy, potentially causing further complications or losses.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which materiel management function maintains a consolidated suspense file for each Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) submitted by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?
- A.
Receiving.
- B.
Inspection.
- C.
Stock control.
- D.
Customer support.
Correct Answer
C. Stock control.Explanation
Stock control maintains a consolidated suspense file for each Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) submitted by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This function is responsible for managing the inventory and ensuring that the stock levels are accurate and up to date. By maintaining a suspense file for each SDR, stock control can track and investigate any discrepancies in the supply chain, ensuring that the correct actions are taken to rectify the issues and maintain a smooth flow of materials.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed?
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- B.
Stock control function.
- C.
Accountable officer.
- D.
Item manager.
Correct Answer
A. Major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
When additional help is needed for unresolved supply discrepancy reports, they are forwarded to the Major Command (MAJCOM). MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and managing all supply-related activities within a specific geographic region or area of responsibility. They have the authority to provide assistance and guidance in resolving supply discrepancies and ensuring proper accountability and control of stock. Therefore, forwarding the reports to the MAJCOM ensures that the appropriate level of support and expertise is available to address and resolve the supply discrepancies effectively.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What are the two types of open storage areas?
- A.
Surfaced and graded.
- B.
Graded and covered.
- C.
Graded and improved.
- D.
Improved and unimproved.
Correct Answer
D. Improved and unimproved.Explanation
The correct answer is "Improved and unimproved." This refers to the two types of open storage areas. An improved storage area is one that has been modified or developed to enhance its functionality and efficiency, such as adding infrastructure or implementing organizational systems. On the other hand, an unimproved storage area is one that has not undergone any modifications or enhancements, remaining in its natural or basic state. Both types of storage areas have their own advantages and disadvantages, depending on the specific needs and requirements of the situation.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?
- A.
Concrete.
- B.
Drainage.
- C.
Steel mats.
- D.
Crushed stone.
Correct Answer
B. Drainage.Explanation
Drainage protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions by allowing water to flow away from the storage area. It helps in preventing water accumulation and keeps the ground dry, reducing the risk of damage to the stored items. Concrete, steel mats, and crushed stone may also provide some level of protection, but drainage is specifically designed to address wet ground conditions and is the most effective solution in this context.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
- A.
Adverse weather.
- B.
Wet ground conditions.
- C.
Slipping on steel mat toppings.
- D.
Limited use of material handling equipment (MHE).
Correct Answer
D. Limited use of material handling equipment (MHE).Explanation
Unimproved open storage refers to storing materials in an outdoor area without any specific infrastructure or equipment. The major disadvantage of this type of storage is the limited use of material handling equipment (MHE). Without proper infrastructure, it becomes difficult to efficiently move and handle materials, resulting in slower operations, increased risk of accidents, and potential damage to the materials. This limitation can lead to inefficiencies and increased costs in logistics and supply chain management.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?
- A.
Bin rows.
- B.
Work areas.
- C.
Bulk storage.
- D.
Special storage.
Correct Answer
B. Work areas.Explanation
When planning a warehouse layout, it is important to keep work areas to a minimum in order to increase storage space and utilization. Work areas, such as aisles and loading docks, take up valuable space that could be used for storing goods. By minimizing work areas, more space can be allocated for storage, allowing for increased storage capacity and better utilization of the warehouse.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?
- A.
Bin rows.
- B.
Storage areas.
- C.
Item popularity.
- D.
Item similarity.
Correct Answer
B. Storage areas.Explanation
Before the actual start of the storage operation, it is important to plan the storage areas to ensure that the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse are used to the greatest extent possible. This involves determining the layout and arrangement of the storage areas, including the placement of racks, shelves, and bins. By planning the storage areas effectively, the available space can be optimized, maximizing the storage capacity of the warehouse.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas?
- A.
Item quantity.
- B.
Item similarity.
- C.
Item popularity.
- D.
Item size and weight.
Correct Answer
C. Item popularity.Explanation
When items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas, the storage factor used is item popularity. This means that items that are less popular and have a slower turnover rate are stored in areas that are less accessible or farther away. By doing so, the more popular and frequently requested items can be stored in areas that are closer and easily accessible, optimizing the efficiency of stock processing and retrieval.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
- A.
Left to right only.
- B.
Right to left only.
- C.
Left to right and front to rear.
- D.
Right to left and rear to front.
Correct Answer
C. Left to right and front to rear.Explanation
The correct answer is "left to right and front to rear." This means that the stockrooms in the warehouse are organized in a sequential order starting from the left side and moving towards the right side. Additionally, the stockrooms are also arranged from the front of the warehouse to the rear. This sequencing allows for efficient storage and retrieval of items, ensuring a systematic and organized approach to managing the warehouse inventory.Rate this question:
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- 25.
How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered?
- A.
Odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle.
- B.
Even numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle.
- C.
Odd numbers are assigned to the left of working aisles.
- D.
Even numbers are assigned to the left of working aisles.
Correct Answer
A. Odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle.Explanation
In a warehouse, storage bin rows are numbered in a way that odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle. This numbering system helps to organize and locate the storage bins more efficiently. By assigning odd numbers to the left of the main aisle, it becomes easier for workers to navigate and find specific bins. This system ensures a logical and systematic arrangement of storage bins, making it easier to manage inventory and streamline operations in the warehouse.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What position is used to identify the storage lot in warehouse location code 02A003D004C?
- A.
02
- B.
A
- C.
003
- D.
D
Correct Answer
A. 02Explanation
The position "02" is used to identify the storage lot in the warehouse location code.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?
- A.
Document log.
- B.
Transaction log.
- C.
Central locator listing.
- D.
Daily document register.
Correct Answer
D. Daily document register.Explanation
The daily document register is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file. This register keeps track of all the documents that are received or issued on a daily basis. By updating the register regularly, the warehouse can ensure that all documents are properly accounted for and any discrepancies or missing items can be identified and resolved. This helps in maintaining an organized and accurate record of the warehouse inventory.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?
- A.
Storage bays.
- B.
Corner markers.
- C.
Bar code labels.
- D.
Placement cards.
Correct Answer
C. Bar code labels.Explanation
The Air Force uses bar code labels to aid in inventory and warehouse validation. Bar code labels allow for efficient tracking and identification of items, making it easier to manage and maintain accurate inventory records. By scanning the bar codes, personnel can quickly verify the presence and location of items, ensuring that the inventory is up to date and accurate. This helps streamline the logistics process and minimize errors in inventory management.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What concept may be necessary when there is an overflow of assets that cannot be stocked in the primary location?
- A.
Item similarity.
- B.
Item popularity.
- C.
Reserve location.
- D.
Warehouse validation.
Correct Answer
C. Reserve location.Explanation
When there is an overflow of assets that cannot be stocked in the primary location, the concept of reserve location becomes necessary. Reserve location refers to an additional storage space or secondary location where excess assets can be stored. This allows for efficient management of inventory and ensures that there is enough space to accommodate the overflow of assets. By utilizing a reserve location, businesses can maintain optimal stock levels in the primary location while still having a backup storage option for surplus items.Rate this question:
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- 30.
All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
D. Annually.Explanation
All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least annually because this ensures that the locations are still suitable for storing goods and that they meet the necessary safety and security standards. Validating the locations annually allows for regular inspections and assessments to identify any potential issues or changes that may have occurred over time. This helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the warehouse operations and ensures that the stored goods remain in good condition.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?
- A.
3
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
14
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
Scheduled validations should be completed within 10 workdays of the start of an inventory cycle. This means that the storage activity needs to finish the necessary checks and verifications within this timeframe to ensure the accuracy and integrity of the inventory. Completing the validations within 10 workdays allows for a reasonable amount of time to conduct thorough inspections and address any discrepancies or issues that may arise during the process.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What Transaction Identifier Code (TRIC) is processed to move property to the correct location?
- A.
ISU.
- B.
FCS
- C.
SPR
- D.
TRM
Correct Answer
B. FCSExplanation
The correct answer is FCS. The Transaction Identifier Code (TRIC) processed to move property to the correct location is FCS.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which listing is used to identify items that have a serviceable balance on the item record, no warehouse location assigned, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than three days?
- A.
D04.
- B.
D06.
- C.
R14.
- D.
R36.
Correct Answer
D. R36.Explanation
The listing R36 is used to identify items that have a serviceable balance on the item record, no warehouse location assigned, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than three days.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be
- A.
Saved as historical data.
- B.
Obliterated.
- C.
Recycled.
- D.
Ignored.
Correct Answer
B. Obliterated.Explanation
Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be obliterated. This means that any existing markings that are no longer relevant or accurate should be removed or erased. This is important to ensure that there is no confusion or misinterpretation of the information on the containers. By obliterating these markings, it helps to maintain clarity and accuracy in the labeling of the containers.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?
- A.
FCD.
- B.
FIC.
- C.
FCH.
- D.
1SC.
Correct Answer
B. FIC.Explanation
The transaction identification code (TRIC) that identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change is FIC. This code is used to indicate a change in the warehouse, such as a change in the location or quantity of a specific item. The other options, FCD, FCH, and 1SC, do not specifically pertain to warehouse change documents or indicative data changes.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item’s security classification is increased on the item record?
- A.
Identity.
- B.
Condition.
- C.
Indicative data.
- D.
Controlled item code.
Correct Answer
D. Controlled item code.Explanation
When an item's security classification is increased on the item record, a warehouse change document known as a "Controlled item code" is produced. This document is used to track and manage the change in security classification for the item. It helps in ensuring that the item is handled and stored according to the updated security requirements, and also enables proper documentation and control of the item's movement within the warehouse.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?
- A.
Wrong part is delivered to a customer.
- B.
Item in stock requires a supply deficiency report.
- C.
Inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero.
- D.
Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient.
Correct Answer
D. Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient.Explanation
This scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal because the quantity in the location is not sufficient to fulfill an issue request. This means that the warehouse is refusing to provide the requested quantity due to insufficient stock.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What routing identifier code is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Disposition Services (DLADS)?
- A.
AK1.
- B.
B14.
- C.
JBR.
- D.
SMS.
Correct Answer
C. JBR.Explanation
The routing identifier code that is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Disposition Services (DLADS) is JBR.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?
- A.
3, 6, or N.
- B.
E, F, or 7.
- C.
8, 9, or M.
- D.
H, G, or 8.
Correct Answer
C. 8, 9, or M.Explanation
The issue exception codes 8, 9, or M identify health hazard items.Rate this question:
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- 40.
As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?
- A.
Daily.
- B.
Weekly.
- C.
Monthly.
- D.
Quarterly.
Correct Answer
C. Monthly.Explanation
A utility program needs to be run at least once a month to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned. Running the program on a monthly basis ensures that any hazardous items without the necessary codes or flags are identified and can be addressed in a timely manner. Running the program less frequently, such as weekly or quarterly, may result in a longer delay in identifying and addressing these potentially hazardous items.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which corrosives are incompatible and should be stored separately?
- A.
Peroxyacetic acid and hydrochloric acid.
- B.
Organic and nonorganic acid.
- C.
Acetic and nonacetic.
- D.
Acids and alkalis.
Correct Answer
D. Acids and alkalis.Explanation
Acids and alkalis should be stored separately because they are incompatible and can react with each other, potentially causing a dangerous chemical reaction. Acids are substances that release hydrogen ions when dissolved in water, while alkalis are substances that release hydroxide ions. When acids and alkalis come into contact, they can neutralize each other, resulting in the formation of water and a salt. This reaction can release heat and potentially cause an explosion or release of toxic gases. Therefore, it is important to store acids and alkalis separately to prevent any accidental mixing or reaction.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of
- A.
80 degrees Fahrenheit
- B.
90 degrees Fahrenheit
- C.
100 degrees Fahrenheit
- D.
110 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct Answer
C. 100 degrees FahrenheitExplanation
Flammable solids are substances that can ignite and burn easily. The correct answer is 100 degrees Fahrenheit because this is the minimum temperature at which a solid substance can catch fire and sustain combustion. At temperatures below 100 degrees Fahrenheit, the solid would not be considered flammable.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What type of material storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?
- A.
High risk.
- B.
Flammable
- C.
Corrosive.
- D.
Low hazard.
Correct Answer
D. Low hazard.Explanation
The best type of material storage for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries is low hazard. This implies that these materials do not pose a high risk, are not flammable, and are not corrosive. Low hazard storage ensures that these materials can be stored safely without the risk of accidents or damage.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what transaction identifier code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?
- A.
FCA
- B.
FCB
- C.
FCC
- D.
FCD
Correct Answer
C. FCCExplanation
The TRIC code used to suspend outdated chemical and petroleum products on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue is FCC. This code ensures that the expired materiel is not mistakenly reused or issued to personnel, maintaining safety and quality standards.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What is the Air Force’s source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?
- A.
Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
- B.
Air Force Cargo Movement Operations System (AF–CMOS).
- C.
Air Force–hazardous materials (AF–HAZMAT).
- D.
Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information System (EESOH-MIS).
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information System (EESOH-MIS).Explanation
The Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information System (EESOH-MIS) is the Air Force's source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information. This system is specifically designed to manage and track environmental safety and occupational health information within the Air Force. It serves as a centralized database for storing and accessing information related to hazardous materials, ensuring that the Air Force has accurate and up-to-date information to effectively manage and prevent pollution.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into two categories. This suggests that there are two broad classifications for hazardous waste disposal methods. These categories could include different methods such as recycling, treatment, incineration, landfilling, or other means of managing hazardous waste. By categorizing hazardous waste disposal into two groups, it allows for a simplified understanding and management of these potentially harmful materials.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who ensures that customers who generate waste are held liable for waste disposition under a "cradle to grave" concept?
- A.
Distribution officer.
- B.
Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS).
- C.
Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS).
- D.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Correct Answer
D. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).Explanation
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) ensures that customers who generate waste are held liable for waste disposition under a "cradle to grave" concept. The EPA is responsible for enforcing regulations and policies related to waste management and disposal. They monitor and regulate the entire lifecycle of waste, from its generation to its final disposal, to ensure that it is handled in an environmentally responsible manner. By holding customers accountable for waste disposition, the EPA aims to encourage proper waste management practices and minimize the environmental impact of waste.Rate this question:
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- 48.
In what class of storage vault will secret and confidential materiel be stored?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
Secret and confidential material will be stored in Class B storage vault.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?
- A.
J
- B.
N
- C.
Q
- D.
R
Correct Answer
D. RExplanation
The materiel management controlled item code "R" is used to identify precious metals.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP?
- A.
LRS commander.
- B.
Item manager.
- C.
Maintenance supervisor.
- D.
Materiel management flight chief inspector.
Correct Answer
D. Materiel management flight chief inspector.Explanation
The correct answer is the Materiel management flight chief inspector. This individual is responsible for overseeing all matters concerning the Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP). They are assigned as the installation PMRP manager/focal point, indicating that they have the authority and expertise to handle all aspects of the program. This role requires knowledge of materiel management and the ability to coordinate with various stakeholders to ensure the successful implementation and operation of the PMRP.Rate this question:
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Mar 08, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Oct 18, 2016Quiz Created by
C5SGTCDC
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