Z4b051 CDC Volume 1
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Z4B051 CDC Volume 1
- 1.
What term describes the purpose of the Air Force Medical Service unit’s purpose?
- A.
Vision
- B.
Mission
- C.
Leadership
- D.
Directional
Correct Answer
B. MissionExplanation
The term that describes the purpose of the Air Force Medical Service unit is "Mission." A mission refers to the specific objective or goal that an organization or unit aims to achieve. In the context of the Air Force Medical Service unit, their mission would likely involve providing medical support and care to Air Force personnel, ensuring their health and well-being, and contributing to the overall readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Sustaining the performance, health and fitness of every Airman is best described as a part of the Air Force Medical Service’s
- A.
Values.
- B.
Vision.
- C.
Mission.
- D.
Strategy.
Correct Answer
C. Mission.Explanation
The correct answer is mission. Sustaining the performance, health, and fitness of every Airman is a crucial objective for the Air Force Medical Service. This objective aligns with their overall mission, which is to provide medical support to the Air Force and ensure the well-being of its personnel. By focusing on maintaining the performance, health, and fitness of Airmen, the Air Force Medical Service contributes to the successful execution of the mission and the overall effectiveness of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Air Force Medical Service effects can best be describe as the
- A.
Ability to provide defensive measures during a contingency.
- B.
Ability to achieve Air Force Medical Service objectives.
- C.
Health service support the medics bring to the fight.
- D.
War-fighting skills the medics bring to the fight.
Correct Answer
C. Health service support the medics bring to the fight.Explanation
The correct answer is "health service support the medics bring to the fight." This answer best describes the effects of the Air Force Medical Service, as it highlights the role of the medics in providing support and care for the health and well-being of military personnel during combat or contingency situations. It emphasizes the importance of the medical service in ensuring the overall readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which Air Force Medical Service effects include identifying, assessing and controlling health hazards?
- A.
Restore health.
- B.
Prevent casualties.
- C.
Enhance human performance.
- D.
Ensuring a fit and health force.
Correct Answer
B. Prevent casualties.Explanation
The correct answer is "Prevent casualties." This is because the Air Force Medical Service is responsible for identifying, assessing, and controlling health hazards in order to prevent injuries or fatalities among service members. By proactively addressing potential health risks, they aim to minimize the occurrence of casualties and maintain the well-being of the force.Rate this question:
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- 5.
All aerospace medicine squadron members working together to accomplish the mission best describes
- A.
Aerospace vision.
- B.
Aerospace mission.
- C.
The Team Aerospace concept.
- D.
The Aerospace Working Group.
Correct Answer
C. The Team Aerospace concept.Explanation
The description "all aerospace medicine squadron members working together to accomplish the mission" aligns with the concept of Team Aerospace. This concept emphasizes collaboration and teamwork among all members of the squadron to achieve their goals. It highlights the importance of collective effort and coordination in the aerospace field.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Providing health risk assessment capability to enhance a commander’s decisions is part of the bioenvironmental engineering
- A.
Values.
- B.
Vision.
- C.
Mission.
- D.
Strategy.
Correct Answer
C. Mission.Explanation
The statement suggests that providing health risk assessment capability is a specific objective or goal that falls under the responsibilities of bioenvironmental engineering. This aligns with the concept of a mission, which is a broad statement of purpose or objective that guides an organization's actions. Therefore, the correct answer is mission.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which example best describes bioenvironmental engineering’s primary capability—Conduct predictive exposure assessments?
- A.
Use occupational and environmental health data for predicting potential exposures.
- B.
Effectively anticipate and recognize when physical health threats exist.
- C.
Recommend measures to eliminate or control physical health threats.
- D.
Responds to both deliberate and crisis events.
Correct Answer
A. Use occupational and environmental health data for predicting potential exposures.Explanation
The example that best describes bioenvironmental engineering's primary capability of conducting predictive exposure assessments is using occupational and environmental health data for predicting potential exposures. This means that bioenvironmental engineers analyze data related to the workplace and environment to anticipate and predict potential exposures to harmful substances or hazards. By utilizing this data, they can assess the likelihood of exposure and take necessary measures to prevent or mitigate any health risks.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which agencies would bioenvironmental engineering interface with to correct a drinking water standard violation?
- A.
Air Force Inspection Agency and the Environmental Protection Agency.
- B.
Air Force Medical Operations and the Air Force Inspection Agency.
- C.
Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.
- D.
Civil Engineering and the Air Force Inspection Agency.
Correct Answer
C. Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.Explanation
Bioenvironmental engineering is a field that deals with the assessment and control of environmental factors that can affect human health and well-being. In the context of correcting a drinking water standard violation, bioenvironmental engineering would need to work with agencies that have expertise in both engineering and environmental protection. The Civil Engineering agency would provide the engineering knowledge and resources to address the violation, while the Environmental Protection Agency would provide guidance and regulations related to water quality standards. Therefore, the correct answer is Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which forum meets once per month to review, discuss, and approve issues such as industrial hygiene recommendations?
- A.
Environmental, Safety and Occupational Health Council.
- B.
Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group.
- C.
Aerospace Occupational and Environmental Council.
- D.
Aerospace Medicine Council.
Correct Answer
B. Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group.Explanation
The Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group is the correct answer because it is a forum that meets once per month to review, discuss, and approve issues related to industrial hygiene recommendations. The other options, such as the Environmental, Safety and Occupational Health Council, Aerospace Occupational and Environmental Council, and Aerospace Medicine Council, do not specifically mention industrial hygiene recommendations as their main focus.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which agency typically formulates new policy for the career field?
- A.
United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine.
- B.
Occupational, Safety and Health Administration.
- C.
Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- D.
Air Force Medical Service.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Medical Service.Explanation
The Air Force Medical Service is responsible for formulating new policies for the career field. As an agency within the United States Air Force, they have the expertise and knowledge to develop policies that ensure the health and well-being of Air Force personnel. This includes policies related to medical care, occupational health, and safety. The other options, such as the School of Aerospace Medicine and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, may play a role in specific areas, but the Air Force Medical Service is the primary agency responsible for formulating new policies for the career field as a whole.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which agency would you consult for assistance when interpreting a policy?
- A.
United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine.
- B.
Occupational, Safety and Health Administration.
- C.
Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- D.
Air Force Medical Service.
Correct Answer
C. Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering.Explanation
The Major Command - Bioenvironmental Engineering would be the agency to consult for assistance when interpreting a policy. This agency specializes in the field of bioenvironmental engineering and would have the expertise and knowledge to properly interpret and apply policies related to this area. The other options, such as the United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and Air Force Medical Service, may have their own areas of expertise but may not specifically focus on interpreting policies.Rate this question:
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- 12.
If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing confirmatory sampling of suspected contamination and analyzing associated risks jointly with civil engineering then you are a member of the
- A.
Medical Nuclear, Biological and Chemical (MNBC) team.
- B.
Preventive and Aerospace Medicine (PAM) team.
- C.
Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.
- D.
Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.
Correct Answer
A. Medical Nuclear, Biological and Chemical (MNBC) team.Explanation
The correct answer is the Medical Nuclear, Biological and Chemical (MNBC) team. This is because the responsibilities mentioned in the question, such as performing confirmatory sampling of suspected contamination and analyzing associated risks, are typically carried out by the MNBC team. This team specializes in dealing with nuclear, biological, and chemical hazards and is responsible for assessing and mitigating the risks associated with these hazards in a deployed location. The other options, such as the Preventive and Aerospace Medicine (PAM) team, Air Force Radiation Assessment Team, and Medical Global Reach Laydown Team, do not specifically focus on the tasks mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 13.
If you are deployed following a radiological incident and asked to identify the radiological environment along with providing recommendations for protective actions then you are a member of the
- A.
Medical Nuclear, Biological and Chemical (MNBC) team.
- B.
Preventive and Aerospace Medicine (PAM) team.
- C.
Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.
- D.
Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Radiation Assessment Team. This team is responsible for identifying the radiological environment and providing recommendations for protective actions in the event of a radiological incident. They have the expertise and equipment to assess the level of radiation and determine the necessary precautions and actions to be taken. The other options, such as the MNBC team, PAM team, and Global Reach Laydown Team, do not specifically deal with radiological incidents and protective actions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
If you are deployed for the purpose of identifying the radiological environment and recommend protective actions to insure the health and safety of AF and DOD personnel and the surrounding community following radiological incidents then you are a member of which unit type code (UTC)?
- A.
Medical Nuclear, Biological and Chemical Team.
- B.
Preventive and Aerospace Medicine Team.
- C.
Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.
- D.
Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Radiation Assessment Team. This team is responsible for identifying the radiological environment and providing recommendations for protective actions after radiological incidents. They ensure the health and safety of Air Force and Department of Defense personnel as well as the surrounding community. The other options, such as Medical Nuclear, Biological and Chemical Team, Preventive and Aerospace Medicine Team, and Medical Global Reach Laydown Team, do not specifically focus on radiological assessment and protective actions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Matter has three basic forms: solid, liquid and gas. Its physical state is dependent upon the
- A.
Temperature and atmospheric pressure.
- B.
Atmospheric pressure only.
- C.
Mass and weight.
- D.
Mass only.
Correct Answer
A. Temperature and atmospHeric pressure.Explanation
The physical state of matter, whether it is solid, liquid, or gas, is determined by the temperature and atmospheric pressure. Temperature affects the kinetic energy of particles, determining whether they are vibrating (solid), moving freely (liquid), or moving rapidly (gas). Atmospheric pressure, on the other hand, affects the intermolecular forces between particles, which can cause matter to condense or evaporate. Therefore, both temperature and atmospheric pressure play crucial roles in determining the physical state of matter.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which physical states of matter cannot be compressed?
- A.
Solid and liquid.
- B.
Liquid and gas.
- C.
Liquid only.
- D.
Gas only.
Correct Answer
C. Liquid only.Explanation
Liquids cannot be compressed because their particles are already close together and have very little empty space between them. This means that there is no room for the particles to move closer together and further reduce the volume of the liquid. In contrast, gases can be compressed because their particles are far apart and have a lot of empty space between them, allowing for compression and reduction in volume. Solids also cannot be compressed significantly because their particles are tightly packed together in a fixed arrangement.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the physical states of matter lacks both volume and shape?
- A.
Solid and liquid.
- B.
Liquid and gas.
- C.
Liquid only.
- D.
Gas only.
Correct Answer
D. Gas only.Explanation
Gas is the physical state of matter that lacks both volume and shape. Unlike solids and liquids, gases do not have a definite shape or volume. They can expand to fill the entire space available to them and can be compressed or expanded easily. This is because the particles in a gas are widely spaced and move freely, resulting in a lack of both shape and volume.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which example best describes a solution?
- A.
Container of methane gas and carbon dioxide gas.
- B.
Ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.
- C.
Beaker of sodium hydroxide.
- D.
Container of argon gas.
Correct Answer
B. Ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.Explanation
The example of ethyl alcohol dissolved in water best describes a solution. A solution is a homogeneous mixture where one or more substances (solutes) are dissolved in another substance (solvent) at a molecular level. In this case, ethyl alcohol is the solute and water is the solvent. When ethyl alcohol is mixed with water, the molecules of both substances interact and spread evenly throughout the mixture, creating a solution.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is equal to the
- A.
Atomic number.
- B.
Atomic weight.
- C.
Electron number.
- D.
Electron weight.
Correct Answer
A. Atomic number.Explanation
The atomic number of an atom represents the number of protons in its nucleus. Protons are positively charged particles and their number determines the element's identity. Therefore, the correct answer is "atomic number". Atomic weight, electron number, and electron weight are not related to the number of protons in the nucleus.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Where are the noble gases located within the periodic table?
- A.
Far right column.
- B.
Far left column.
- C.
Bottom row.
- D.
Top row.
Correct Answer
A. Far right column.Explanation
The noble gases are located in the far right column of the periodic table. This column is also known as Group 18 or the helium group. The noble gases include helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon, and radon. They are called noble gases because they have very low reactivity and rarely form compounds with other elements. This is due to their full outer electron shells, which makes them stable and less likely to gain or lose electrons.Rate this question:
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- 21.
In what electron shell does most of the reaction activity take place within an atom?
- A.
Closest to the nucleus.
- B.
Outermost.
- C.
Innermost.
- D.
Middle.
Correct Answer
B. Outermost.Explanation
Most of the reaction activity takes place in the outermost electron shell of an atom. This is because the outermost shell, also known as the valence shell, contains the valence electrons which are involved in chemical reactions. These valence electrons are more easily accessible to other atoms, allowing them to form bonds and participate in chemical reactions. The innermost shells, on the other hand, are closer to the nucleus and are typically filled with core electrons that are less likely to participate in reactions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Elements form compounds in an attempt to
- A.
Become more stable.
- B.
Disperse energy.
- C.
Become inert.
- D.
Gain energy.
Correct Answer
A. Become more stable.Explanation
Elements form compounds in an attempt to become more stable. When elements react with each other to form compounds, they do so in order to achieve a more stable electronic configuration. This is often achieved by either gaining or losing electrons to achieve a full outer electron shell, which is the most stable configuration. By forming compounds, elements are able to lower their energy levels and increase their stability.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A cation has a positive charge because the
- A.
Atom has more neutrons than protons.
- B.
Atom has fewer neutrons than protons.
- C.
Atom has more protons than electrons.
- D.
Atom has fewer protons than electrons.
Correct Answer
C. Atom has more protons than electrons.Explanation
A cation has a positive charge because the atom has more protons than electrons. Protons have a positive charge, while electrons have a negative charge. In a neutral atom, the number of protons is equal to the number of electrons, resulting in a neutral charge. However, when an atom loses one or more electrons, it becomes positively charged because the number of protons exceeds the number of electrons. This imbalance creates a cation, which is attracted to negatively charged particles.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An anion has a negative charge when the
- A.
Atom has more neutrons than protons.
- B.
Atom has fewer neutrons than protons.
- C.
Atom has more protons than electrons.
- D.
Atom has fewer protons than electrons.
Correct Answer
D. Atom has fewer protons than electrons.Explanation
An anion has a negative charge because it has gained one or more electrons, resulting in an excess of negatively charged particles (electrons) compared to positively charged particles (protons). This means that the atom has fewer protons than electrons, leading to a net negative charge.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Unsatured aliphatic hydrocarbons as opposed to saturated compounds are
- A.
More chemically reactive.
- B.
Less chemically reactive.
- C.
Do not react at all.
- D.
React equally.
Correct Answer
A. More chemically reactive.Explanation
Unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons have double or triple bonds between carbon atoms, which makes them more chemically reactive compared to saturated compounds that only have single bonds. The presence of multiple bonds allows unsaturated hydrocarbons to undergo addition reactions, where new atoms or groups are added to the molecule. This reactivity is due to the presence of the pi bonds in unsaturated hydrocarbons, which are more easily broken and can participate in chemical reactions. In contrast, saturated compounds lack these double or triple bonds and are therefore less reactive.Rate this question:
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- 26.
If 50 grams of sodium chloride is dissolved in enough water to make 500 grams of solution, what is the percent by mass?
- A.
.1 percent.
- B.
10 percent.
- C.
25 percent.
- D.
50 percent.
Correct Answer
B. 10 percent.Explanation
The percent by mass can be calculated by dividing the mass of the solute (sodium chloride) by the mass of the solution (sodium chloride + water) and multiplying by 100. In this case, the mass of the solute is 50 grams and the mass of the solution is 500 grams. Therefore, the percent by mass is (50/500) * 100 = 10 percent.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What type of solution contains large amounts of both a weak acid and its conjugate base and as a result resists change in its ph?
- A.
Buffered.
- B.
Alkaline.
- C.
Neutral.
- D.
Acidic.
Correct Answer
A. Buffered.Explanation
A buffered solution contains large amounts of both a weak acid and its conjugate base. This allows it to resist changes in its pH when small amounts of acid or base are added. The weak acid can neutralize any added base, while the conjugate base can neutralize any added acid, maintaining the pH of the solution relatively constant. Therefore, a buffered solution is the correct answer because it resists changes in pH.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Boyle’s law states that a gas volume is inversely proportional to its pressure, at a constant temperature. Which of the following statements best describes this relationship?
- A.
As pressure increases, volume decreases.
- B.
As pressure increases, volume increases.
- C.
As pressure increases, volume remains constant.
- D.
As pressure decreases, volume remains constant.
Correct Answer
A. As pressure increases, volume decreases.Explanation
Boyle's law states that as the pressure exerted on a gas increases, its volume decreases. This means that there is an inverse relationship between pressure and volume. When the pressure on a gas is increased, the gas molecules are forced closer together, resulting in a decrease in volume. Conversely, when the pressure on a gas is decreased, the gas molecules have more space to move around, leading to an increase in volume. Therefore, the statement "As pressure increases, volume decreases" best describes the relationship between pressure and volume according to Boyle's law.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Charles’s law states that at constant pressure the volume of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the temperature (in Kelvin). Which of the following statements best describes this relationship?
- A.
As temperature decreases, volume increases.
- B.
As temperature decreases, volume decreases.
- C.
As temperature decreases, volume remains constant.
- D.
As temperature increases, volume remains constant.
Correct Answer
B. As temperature decreases, volume decreases.Explanation
According to Charles's law, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin. This means that as the temperature decreases, the volume of the gas also decreases. Therefore, the statement "As temperature decreases, volume decreases" best describes the relationship between temperature and volume in Charles's law.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The purpose of the plasma membrane within a cell is to
- A.
Break down protein, carbohydrates, acids, and foreign substances that may enter the cell.
- B.
Separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.
- C.
Promote electron transport and the citric and fatty acid cycles.
- D.
Break down toxic substances and distribute proteins.
Correct Answer
B. Separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.Explanation
The plasma membrane acts as a selectively permeable barrier that separates the internal environment of the cell from its surrounding environment. It controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell, allowing essential molecules to enter and waste products to be removed. Additionally, the plasma membrane protects the cell from harmful substances and provides structural support. Therefore, the purpose of the plasma membrane is to separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which statement best describes the life cycle of a cell?
- A.
The growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells.
- B.
The division of the nuclear material and of the cytoplasm.
- C.
The determining factor in how the cell will function.
- D.
The period between two successive cell divisions.
Correct Answer
A. The growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells.Explanation
The correct answer is "The growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells." This statement describes the process of cell division, where a cell grows and replicates its genetic material before splitting into two daughter cells. This life cycle is known as the cell cycle and includes phases such as interphase (cell growth and DNA replication) and mitosis (cell division).Rate this question:
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- 32.
The types of cells that are most affected by exposing them to ionizing radiation are those that
- A.
Reproduce slowly.
- B.
Reproduce rapidly.
- C.
Are tightly packed together.
- D.
Are loosely packed together.
Correct Answer
B. Reproduce rapidly.Explanation
Exposure to ionizing radiation primarily affects cells that reproduce rapidly. This is because rapidly dividing cells have a higher metabolic rate and are more susceptible to damage caused by radiation. These cells include those in the bone marrow, gastrointestinal tract, and hair follicles. Ionizing radiation can disrupt the cell's DNA, leading to cell death or mutations. Cells that reproduce slowly, such as nerve cells, are less affected by ionizing radiation as they have a lower division rate and are more resistant to damage.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which type of tissue is tightly packed together and serves as an interface tissue?
- A.
Epithelial.
- B.
Connective.
- C.
Nervous.
- D.
Muscle.
Correct Answer
A. Epithelial.Explanation
Epithelial tissue is tightly packed together and serves as an interface tissue. It forms the lining of organs, covers body surfaces, and lines body cavities. Epithelial tissue provides protection, secretion, absorption, and allows for the exchange of substances between different body compartments. It is characterized by closely packed cells with little extracellular matrix. Connective tissue, nervous tissue, and muscle tissue have different functions and structures, and therefore do not serve as interface tissues like epithelial tissue does.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which type of tissue is highly cellular and is well supplied with blood?
- A.
Epithelial.
- B.
Connective.
- C.
Nervous.
- D.
Muscle.
Correct Answer
D. Muscle.Explanation
Muscle tissue is highly cellular and is well supplied with blood. This is because muscles require a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients to function properly. The high vascularity of muscle tissue ensures that an adequate amount of blood reaches the muscle cells, allowing them to receive the necessary resources for energy production and contraction. Additionally, the high cellularity of muscle tissue is due to the large number of muscle cells, called muscle fibers, that make up this type of tissue.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which type of tissue is responsible for coordinating and controlling many body activities?
- A.
Muscle.
- B.
Nervous.
- C.
Connective.
- D.
Epithelial.
Correct Answer
B. Nervous.Explanation
The nervous tissue is responsible for coordinating and controlling many body activities. It consists of specialized cells called neurons that transmit electrical signals throughout the body. These signals allow for the communication and coordination of various body functions, such as movement, sensory perception, and regulation of internal organs. The nervous tissue also includes support cells called glial cells, which provide structural and metabolic support to neurons. Therefore, the nervous tissue is the correct answer as it plays a vital role in coordinating and controlling body activities.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Ultraviolet radiation can create a photochemical reaction in the very outside layer of the eye which kills the cells there. Which best describes a potential effect of overexposure?
- A.
Sunburned eyeballs.
- B.
Collapsed sclera.
- C.
Burst retina.
- D.
Cataracts
Correct Answer
A. Sunburned eyeballs.Explanation
Overexposure to ultraviolet radiation can cause a photochemical reaction in the outer layer of the eye, leading to damage and cell death. This can result in a condition known as "sunburned eyeballs," where the eyes become red, irritated, and sensitive to light. Collapsed sclera, burst retina, and cataracts are not directly related to overexposure to ultraviolet radiation.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The Eustachian tube is critical to the function of the ear because it
- A.
Promotes drainage.
- B.
Serves as a receptor for hearing.
- C.
Conducts sound to the auditory nerve.
- D.
Provides a means of equalizing pressure.
Correct Answer
D. Provides a means of equalizing pressure.Explanation
The Eustachian tube is critical to the function of the ear because it provides a means of equalizing pressure. The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the back of the throat, allowing air to flow in and out. This helps to equalize the pressure on both sides of the eardrum, ensuring that it vibrates properly and allowing for clear hearing. If the pressure is not equalized, it can cause discomfort, pain, and even hearing loss. Therefore, the Eustachian tube plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the ear by providing a means of equalizing pressure.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What prevents nearly every known variety of germs from passing through the skin’s surface?
- A.
The nerve endings in the dermis.
- B.
The hornlike protein material called keratin.
- C.
The overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells.
- D.
The secretion of sebum by the sebaceous glands.
Correct Answer
C. The overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells.Explanation
The correct answer is the overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and acts as a protective barrier against external threats, including germs. The cells in the epidermis are tightly packed and arranged in a way that creates a barrier, preventing germs from easily passing through the skin's surface. This overlapping arrangement helps to keep germs out and protect the body from infections and diseases.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When the skin gets cold, to help keep you warm the body
- A.
Constricts capillaries to reduce the amount of blood at the skin’s surface.
- B.
Dilates capillaries to let warm blood near the skin’s surface.
- C.
Secretes perspiration to insulate the skin.
- D.
Secretes sebum to conserve heat.
Correct Answer
A. Constricts capillaries to reduce the amount of blood at the skin’s surface.Explanation
When the skin gets cold, the body constricts capillaries to reduce the amount of blood at the skin's surface. This is a physiological response aimed at conserving heat and keeping the body warm. By constricting the capillaries, less warm blood is allowed to flow near the skin's surface, preventing heat loss. This helps to maintain the body's core temperature and prevent hypothermia.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The main function of bones within the human body is to provide
- A.
A framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.
- B.
Adjustments which contribute to joint stability.
- C.
And maintain homeostasis.
- D.
Movement and support.
Correct Answer
A. A framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.Explanation
Bones in the human body serve as a framework that provides support and protection to the soft organs. They create a structure that helps maintain the shape and form of the body, ensuring that the organs are held in place and protected from external forces. Additionally, bones also play a crucial role in protecting vital organs such as the brain, heart, and lungs from injury or damage. Therefore, the main function of bones is to provide a framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The function of the red marrow of the bones is to form
- A.
Red blood cells only.
- B.
Blood platelets and synovial fluid only.
- C.
Red blood cells and white blood cells only.
- D.
Red and white blood cells and blood platelets.
Correct Answer
D. Red and white blood cells and blood platelets.Explanation
The red marrow of the bones is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and blood platelets. Red blood cells are crucial for carrying oxygen throughout the body, white blood cells play a vital role in the immune system, and platelets are essential for blood clotting. Therefore, the red marrow is involved in the formation of all three components, making the answer "red and white blood cells and blood platelets" correct.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The majority of joints in the adult human body are
- A.
Slightly movable.
- B.
Freely movable.
- C.
Immovable.
- D.
Rigid.
Correct Answer
B. Freely movable.Explanation
The majority of joints in the adult human body are freely movable. This means that they allow for a wide range of movement and flexibility. Freely movable joints are also known as synovial joints, which are characterized by the presence of a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid. Examples of freely movable joints include the shoulder, hip, knee, and elbow joints. These joints are essential for performing activities such as walking, running, and lifting objects.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The most radiation-sensitive cells in the body are in the bone marrow. What can happen when they are exposed to intense irradiation?
- A.
Normal replacement of circulating blood cells is impaired.
- B.
Neuroglia cells can no longer conduct nerve impulses.
- C.
Nerve cells are destroyed and cannot be replaced.
- D.
Synovial fluid production is decreased.
Correct Answer
A. Normal replacement of circulating blood cells is impaired.Explanation
When the most radiation-sensitive cells in the body, located in the bone marrow, are exposed to intense irradiation, it can impair the normal replacement of circulating blood cells. The bone marrow is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which are crucial for the proper functioning of the immune system and blood clotting. Intense irradiation can damage or destroy the bone marrow cells, leading to a decrease in the production of these vital blood cells. This can result in a weakened immune system, increased risk of infections, and difficulties in blood clotting.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The muscular system is comprised of specialized cells called muscle fibers. What is their chief function?
- A.
Support.
- B.
Connectivity.
- C.
Contractibility.
- D.
Joint stability.
Correct Answer
C. Contractibility.Explanation
The chief function of muscle fibers in the muscular system is contractibility. Muscle fibers have the ability to contract and generate force, allowing movement and enabling the body to perform various activities. This contractibility is essential for actions such as walking, running, and lifting objects. Support, connectivity, and joint stability are important functions of other components of the musculoskeletal system, but contractibility is specifically associated with muscle fibers.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which statement best describes skeletal muscle?
- A.
Muscle that contracts slowly and rhythmically.
- B.
Muscle that contracts strong and rhythmically.
- C.
Muscle that is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.
- D.
Muscle that acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.
Correct Answer
D. Muscle that acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.Explanation
Skeletal muscle is composed of long, cylindrical fibers that are capable of contracting independently of each other. This allows for precise control and movement of the body. Unlike smooth and cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle does not rely on neighboring muscle fibers for contraction. Instead, each muscle fiber is innervated by a motor neuron, which allows for voluntary control over muscle movement. Therefore, the statement "Muscle that acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers" best describes skeletal muscle.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The statement that best describes smooth muscle is muscle that
- A.
Contracts slowly and rhythmically.
- B.
Contracts strong and rhythmically.
- C.
Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers.
- D.
Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers.
Correct Answer
A. Contracts slowly and rhythmically.Explanation
Smooth muscle is a type of muscle tissue that contracts slowly and rhythmically. Unlike skeletal muscle, which can contract quickly and forcefully, smooth muscle contracts at a slower pace. This type of muscle is found in the walls of organs and blood vessels, and its slow and rhythmic contractions help with various bodily functions such as digestion and blood circulation. Smooth muscle is not dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers and can act independently, allowing it to regulate its contractions based on the needs of the body.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What two major body systems work together to allow the body to regulate and maintain homeostasis?
- A.
Lymphatic and respiratory.
- B.
Endocrine and lymphatic.
- C.
Nervous and endocrine.
- D.
Muscular and nervous.
Correct Answer
B. Endocrine and lympHatic.Explanation
The endocrine and lymphatic systems work together to regulate and maintain homeostasis in the body. The endocrine system produces hormones that control various physiological processes, such as metabolism, growth, and reproduction. These hormones are transported through the lymphatic system, which is responsible for filtering and draining excess fluid from tissues, as well as helping to defend against infections. By working together, the endocrine and lymphatic systems ensure that the body's internal environment remains stable and balanced.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Within the nervous system, these highly specialized nerve cells function by conducting nerve impulses.
- A.
Neuroglia.
- B.
Dendrites.
- C.
Neurons.
- D.
Axial.
Correct Answer
C. Neurons.Explanation
Neurons are highly specialized nerve cells that function by conducting nerve impulses within the nervous system. Neuroglia refers to the supportive cells in the nervous system that provide structural and functional support to neurons. Dendrites are the branch-like extensions of neurons that receive signals from other neurons. Axial refers to the main axis or central part of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is neurons.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the main function of the central nervous system?
- A.
Controls the visceral motor nerve fibers.
- B.
Serves as the major signal receptor and integration site.
- C.
Transmits impulses from peripheral organs to the central nervous system.
- D.
Transmits impulses from the central nervous system out to the peripheral organs.
Correct Answer
B. Serves as the major signal receptor and integration site.Explanation
The main function of the central nervous system is to serve as the major signal receptor and integration site. This means that it receives signals from the sensory organs and processes them to generate appropriate responses. The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord, which are responsible for receiving and interpreting sensory information, coordinating motor responses, and regulating bodily functions. It plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and allowing organisms to interact with their environment.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Central nervous system stimulants excite acetylcholine production. Which example best represents a central nervous system stimulant?
- A.
Benzene.
- B.
Acetone.
- C.
Ethylene glycol.
- D.
Organophosphate.
Correct Answer
D. OrganopHospHate.Explanation
Organophosphates are a class of chemicals that are known to act as central nervous system stimulants. They work by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called acetylcholinesterase, which is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine in the brain. By inhibiting this enzyme, organophosphates increase the levels of acetylcholine, leading to increased stimulation of the central nervous system. This is why organophosphates are often used as insecticides or nerve agents, as they can cause overstimulation of the nervous system and lead to various symptoms and effects.Rate this question:
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Nov 27, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 13, 2015Quiz Created by
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