Og Lom Radiology,Oncology & Blood Quiz
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
The blood cells responsible for clotting are-
- A.
Thrombocytes
- B.
Erythrocytes
- C.
Fibrinogen
- D.
Leukocytes
Correct Answer
A. ThrombocytesExplanation
Thrombocytes, also known as platelets, are the blood cells responsible for clotting. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, thrombocytes gather at the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that activate other clotting factors and help in the formation of a fibrin clot, which further strengthens the plug. Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, carry oxygen and do not play a direct role in clotting. Fibrinogen is a protein that is converted into fibrin during clot formation. Leukocytes, or white blood cells, are primarily involved in the immune response and fighting infections, and do not have a major role in clotting.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The combining form for "Nucleus" is-
- A.
Mon/o
- B.
Kary/o
- C.
Poikil/o
- D.
Granul/o
Correct Answer
B. Kary/oExplanation
The combining form for "Nucleus" is "Kary/o" because "Kary/o" refers to the nucleus of a cell. This combining form is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate structures or processes related to the nucleus. For example, words like "karyotype" (the number and appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus) and "karyolysis" (the dissolution of the nucleus) are derived from this combining form.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The final products of hemoglobin breakdown are-
- A.
Heme and Iron
- B.
Heme and Bilirubin
- C.
Bilirubin and Globin
- D.
Bilirubin, Iron and Globin
Correct Answer
D. Bilirubin, Iron and GlobinExplanation
Hemoglobin breakdown results in the formation of bilirubin, iron, and globin. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced from the breakdown of heme, a component of hemoglobin. Iron is released from the heme molecule and can be recycled for the production of new red blood cells. Globin refers to the protein component of hemoglobin, which is also broken down during the process. Therefore, the correct answer is bilirubin, iron, and globin.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The process of separating plasma from the formed elements in the blood is called-
- A.
Electrophoresis
- B.
Plasmolysis
- C.
Plasmapheresis
- D.
Agglutination
Correct Answer
C. PlasmapHeresisExplanation
Plasmapheresis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of separating plasma from the formed elements in the blood. This procedure involves removing the plasma from the blood and returning the formed elements back to the patient. Plasmapheresis is commonly used in medical treatments to remove harmful substances from the blood, such as toxins or antibodies, and can also be used to collect plasma for donation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The universal donors and the universal recipients respectively are people with blood groups-
- A.
O and A
- B.
O and AB
- C.
AB and O
- D.
AB and B
Correct Answer
B. O and ABExplanation
People with blood group O are considered universal donors because their blood does not contain A or B antigens on the red blood cells. This means that their blood can be transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an immune reaction. On the other hand, people with blood group AB are considered universal recipients because their blood does not contain antibodies against A or B antigens. This allows them to receive blood from individuals with any blood type without their immune system attacking the transfused blood cells.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Plasma minus clotting proteins and cells is -
- A.
Serum
- B.
Globin
- C.
Fibrin
- D.
Thrombin
Correct Answer
A. SerumExplanation
Plasma is the liquid component of blood that contains clotting proteins and cells. When plasma is separated from these components, what remains is called serum. Therefore, the correct answer is serum.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The combining form sider/o refers to-
- A.
Side
- B.
Single
- C.
Same
- D.
Iron
Correct Answer
D. IronExplanation
The combining form sider/o refers to iron. This is because the root word "sider" is derived from the Latin word "siderum" which means iron. When used as a combining form, it indicates a relationship or association with iron.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A disorder characterized by excessive bleeding and occurring predominantly in males-
- A.
Iron deficiency anemia
- B.
Hemophilia
- C.
Neutropenia
- D.
Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer
B. HemopHiliaExplanation
Hemophilia is a disorder characterized by excessive bleeding that occurs predominantly in males. It is caused by a deficiency or absence of certain clotting factors in the blood, which impairs the blood's ability to clot normally. This can result in prolonged bleeding after injuries or spontaneous bleeding into joints, muscles, or other internal organs. Iron deficiency anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia are not associated with excessive bleeding and do not predominantly affect males, making them incorrect answers.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Sasha's blood report showed the number of certain blood cells to be 250,000 per cubic millimeter. They are-
- A.
WBC
- B.
RBC
- C.
Lymphocytes
- D.
Platelets
Correct Answer
D. PlateletsExplanation
The correct answer is Platelets. Platelets are one of the types of blood cells that are responsible for blood clotting. A normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per cubic millimeter of blood. In Sasha's blood report, the number of platelets is stated to be 250,000 per cubic millimeter, which falls within the normal range. Therefore, the correct answer is Platelets.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A 22-year-old caucasian male visits his physician complaining of fatigue and shortness of breath (predominantly in the mediterranean region. Her lab tests reveal that she is severely anemic. The CT scan of the abdomen shows evidence of splenomegaly. A peripheral blood smear done shows abnormally shaped RBCs. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A.
Thalassemia
- B.
Sickle cell anemia
- C.
Hemochromatosis
- D.
Purpura
Correct Answer
A. ThalassemiaExplanation
The likely diagnosis in this case is Thalassemia. Thalassemia is a genetic disorder that affects the production of hemoglobin, leading to anemia. It is more common in individuals of Mediterranean descent. The symptoms of fatigue and shortness of breath, along with the presence of abnormally shaped RBCs and splenomegaly, are consistent with Thalassemia. Sickle cell anemia is another genetic disorder that affects hemoglobin, but it typically presents with different symptoms and findings. Hemochromatosis is a condition characterized by excessive iron absorption, which would not explain the anemia or abnormal RBC shape. Purpura refers to a group of bleeding disorders, which is not consistent with the findings in this case.Rate this question:
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- 11.
There is a __________ connection between food and health.(casual/ causal)
Correct Answer
causalExplanation
Causal is the correct answer because it indicates a cause-and-effect relationship between food and health. This suggests that the food we consume has an impact on our overall well-being and can directly influence our health outcomes.Rate this question:
- 12.
The doctor prescribed a _________ of medications. (course/ coarse)
Correct Answer
courseExplanation
The correct answer is "course". In this context, "course" refers to a prescribed sequence or duration of medications. It is the appropriate word choice to convey the doctor's instructions for taking medications in a specific order or for a specific period of time. On the other hand, "coarse" means rough or not smooth, and it does not make sense in the given sentence.Rate this question:
- 13.
The physician will ________ the patient on tobacco cessation. (council/ counsel)
Correct Answer
counselExplanation
The correct answer is "counsel". In this sentence, "counsel" is used as a verb, meaning to advise or guide someone. The physician will counsel the patient on tobacco cessation, meaning they will provide advice and guidance to help the patient quit smoking.Rate this question:
- 14.
The signs of psoriasis _________ -up during spring. (flair/ flare)
Correct Answer
flareExplanation
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition characterized by red, itchy, and scaly patches on the skin. The word "flare" means to become more intense or severe. Therefore, the correct answer is "flare" because it suggests that the signs of psoriasis worsen or become more pronounced during spring.Rate this question:
- 15.
He suffered from an _____________ condition of his lungs. (inflammatory/ inflammable)
Correct Answer
inflammatoryExplanation
The correct answer is "inflammatory" because it indicates that the condition of his lungs is characterized by inflammation. This suggests that there is some kind of inflammation or swelling present in his lungs, which could be indicative of an infection or other inflammatory process. The term "inflammatory" is often used to describe conditions or diseases that involve inflammation, such as asthma or bronchitis.Rate this question:
- 16.
The normal lab value of RBCs in males is 4.5- 6.0 million.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because the normal lab value for red blood cells (RBCs) in males is indeed 4.5-6.0 million. This range represents the typical number of RBCs found in the blood of healthy adult males.Rate this question:
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- 17.
If the blood group of the mother is A and the father B, there is no possibility that their child will be with blood group O.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
This statement is false because if the mother has blood group A and the father has blood group B, it is possible for their child to have blood group O. Blood group O is a recessive trait, so if both parents carry the O allele, there is a chance that their child will inherit it and have blood group O.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The most common type of anemia is iron deficiency anemia.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Iron deficiency anemia is the most common type of anemia because iron is necessary for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen to the body's tissues. When there is a lack of iron in the body, it can lead to a decrease in red blood cell production and a decrease in the amount of oxygen that can be carried. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Iron deficiency anemia is particularly common in women of childbearing age due to menstrual blood loss, and in individuals with poor dietary intake of iron.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The normal time taken by the venous blood to clot in a test tube is less than 15 minutes.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Venous blood typically takes less than 15 minutes to clot in a test tube. This is because the clotting process, also known as coagulation, is initiated when blood comes into contact with the surface of the test tube. The clotting factors present in the blood interact with the surface, leading to the formation of fibrin strands that create a clot. This process usually takes a relatively short amount of time, resulting in the blood clotting within 15 minutes. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Antibodies are foreign materials that stimulate antigen production.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Antibodies are not foreign materials that stimulate antigen production. Instead, antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system in response to the presence of antigens. Antigens are foreign substances that trigger an immune response, leading to the production of antibodies. Therefore, the statement that antibodies stimulate antigen production is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Platelet and tissue factors release ____________ which stimulates the conversion of prothrombin to _____________ which changes ___________ to fibrin clot.(Note: Please separate the answers with a space, do not use a comma.)
Correct Answer
thromboplastin thrombin fibrinogenExplanation
Platelet and tissue factors release thromboplastin which stimulates the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin which changes fibrinogen to fibrin clot.Rate this question:
- 22.
CLL- _________________ (chronic leukocytic leukemia/ chronic lymphocytic leukemia)
Correct Answer
chronic lymphocytic leukemiaExplanation
The correct answer is chronic lymphocytic leukemia because CLL stands for chronic lymphocytic leukemia. This is a type of cancer that affects the white blood cells, specifically the lymphocytes. It is characterized by the slow growth of abnormal lymphocytes, which can accumulate in the blood and bone marrow. CLL is typically a chronic and slowly progressing disease, and it is the most common type of leukemia in adults.Rate this question:
- 23.
PTT- _____________________ (partial thromboplastin time/ partial thrombin time)
Correct Answer
partial thromboplastin timeExplanation
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot. It evaluates the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which involves factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII. PTT is used to assess the overall functioning of the clotting system and to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. It is commonly used to diagnose and monitor disorders such as hemophilia and von Willebrand disease. Therefore, the correct answer for the given question is "partial thromboplastin time".Rate this question:
- 24.
ESR- ____________________ (erythrocyte sedimentation rate/ elevated sedimentation rate)
Correct Answer
erythrocyte sedimentation rateExplanation
The term "ESR" stands for erythrocyte sedimentation rate, which refers to the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a specific period of time. This test is used to measure inflammation in the body, as increased inflammation causes the red blood cells to clump together and settle faster. Therefore, an elevated sedimentation rate indicates the presence of inflammation or infection in the body.Rate this question:
- 25.
Tumors can be-
- A.
Benign
- B.
Malignant
- C.
Both benign & malignant
- D.
None
Correct Answer
C. Both benign & malignantExplanation
Tumors can be both benign and malignant. Benign tumors are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. They can be removed and usually do not cause serious health problems. Malignant tumors, on the other hand, are cancerous and can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body through the bloodstream or lymphatic system. They are more dangerous and require immediate medical attention and treatment. Therefore, tumors can exist in both benign and malignant forms, with different implications for a person's health.Rate this question:
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- 26.
___________ is not a characteristic of malignant tumors.
- A.
Metastasis
- B.
Anaplasia
- C.
Rapid multiplication
- D.
Slow growth
Correct Answer
D. Slow growthExplanation
Malignant tumors are characterized by rapid multiplication and anaplasia, which refers to the loss of normal cellular characteristics. Metastasis is also a characteristic of malignant tumors, as it involves the spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body. However, slow growth is not a characteristic of malignant tumors. Malignant tumors tend to grow rapidly and invade surrounding tissues.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Time required for blood to stop flowing from a small puncture wound is called
- A.
Coagulation time
- B.
Partial thromboplastin time
- C.
Coagulation factor
- D.
Clotting time
Correct Answer
A. Coagulation timeExplanation
Coagulation time refers to the duration it takes for blood to stop flowing from a small puncture wound. This process involves the formation of a blood clot, which is essential for preventing excessive bleeding. Coagulation time can vary depending on various factors such as the individual's overall health, any underlying medical conditions, or the presence of certain medications. It is an important measure to assess the body's ability to form clots and maintain hemostasis.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Cancerous tumours are classified as
- A.
Carcinomas
- B.
Sarcomas
- C.
Mixed tissue tumours
- D.
All the above
Correct Answer
D. All the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All the above." Cancerous tumors can be classified into different types based on the type of cells they originate from. Carcinomas are tumors that develop from epithelial cells, which are found in the lining of organs and tissues. Sarcomas, on the other hand, originate from connective tissues like bones, muscles, and blood vessels. Mixed tissue tumors are a combination of different types of cells. Therefore, all of these classifications are correct for cancerous tumors.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Destruction of tissue by electric sparks generated by high frequency current.
- A.
Electrocauterization
- B.
Cryosurgery
- C.
Exenteration
- D.
Fulguration
Correct Answer
D. FulgurationExplanation
Fulguration is the correct answer because it refers to the destruction of tissue using electric sparks generated by high frequency current. This technique is commonly used in medical procedures to remove or destroy abnormal tissue, such as tumors or polyps. By delivering controlled electrical sparks, fulguration effectively cauterizes and destroys the targeted tissue.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Chondrosarcoma is the cancer of the ______________.
Correct Answer
cartilageExplanation
Chondrosarcoma is a type of cancer that originates in the cartilage. Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue found in various parts of the body, such as the joints, ears, and nose. Chondrosarcoma specifically affects the cells within the cartilage, causing them to become cancerous and grow uncontrollably. This type of cancer is relatively rare and typically occurs in older individuals. It can develop in different areas of the body, including the bones and soft tissues. Treatment options for chondrosarcoma may include surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy, depending on the stage and location of the cancer.Rate this question:
- 31.
Sarcomas are derived from ___________ tissues. (epithelial/connective).
Correct Answer
connectiveExplanation
Sarcomas are a type of cancer that originate from connective tissues. Connective tissues include bones, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, and blood vessels. Sarcomas can develop in any part of the body and are characterized by the abnormal growth of cells in these connective tissues. Unlike sarcomas, carcinomas are derived from epithelial tissues, which line the surfaces and cavities of organs.Rate this question:
- 32.
Tumour that requires large doses of radiation to produce death of cells are called _________ tumours.
Correct Answer
radioresistantExplanation
Radioresistant tumours are tumours that are resistant to the effects of radiation therapy and require large doses of radiation to produce cell death. This means that these tumours are not easily killed or destroyed by radiation treatment, making them more difficult to treat. The term "radioresistant" describes the characteristic of these tumours to withstand the damaging effects of radiation, highlighting the need for higher doses of radiation to effectively kill the cancer cells.Rate this question:
- 33.
An inheritable change in DNA is called _________ (inherited/mutation).
Correct Answer
mutationExplanation
An inheritable change in DNA is called a mutation. Mutations can occur spontaneously or be caused by external factors such as radiation or chemicals. These changes can alter the genetic information encoded in the DNA and can be passed on from one generation to the next. Mutations can have various effects, ranging from no noticeable impact to causing genetic disorders or diseases. Therefore, the term "mutation" accurately describes the inheritable changes in DNA.Rate this question:
- 34.
Well-differentiated and nonmetastatic tumors are __________ tumors. (malignant/benign).
Correct Answer
benignExplanation
Well-differentiated and nonmetastatic tumors are classified as benign tumors. This is because well-differentiated tumors resemble normal cells and are less likely to invade surrounding tissues or spread to other parts of the body. Nonmetastatic tumors also indicate that the tumor has not spread to distant sites, further supporting the classification as benign.Rate this question:
- 35.
Carcinomas are less common than sarcomas.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Carcinomas are actually more common than sarcomas. Carcinomas are a type of cancer that originates in the epithelial cells, which are the cells that line the organs and tissues of the body. They account for about 80-90% of all cancer cases. On the other hand, sarcomas are a type of cancer that originates in the connective tissues, such as bones, muscles, and blood vessels. They are less common, accounting for about 1% of all cancer cases. Therefore, the statement that carcinomas are less common than sarcomas is false.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The most common site of cystic tumors is in ovaries.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Cystic tumors are most commonly found in the ovaries. This means that the ovaries are the most frequent location for the development of these types of tumors.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Cryosurgery is occasionally used to treat bladder and prostate tumors.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Cryosurgery, which involves freezing and destroying abnormal tissue, is sometimes employed as a treatment for bladder and prostate tumors. This method can be effective in removing cancerous cells from these areas. Therefore, the statement "Cryosurgery is occasionally used to treat bladder and prostate tumors" is true.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Identify the difference between Nuclear medicine (NM) and Radiation therapy (RT)-
- A.
Both are the same
- B.
NM is used for diagnosis and RT is used for therapy
- C.
NM is used for therapy and RT is used for diagnosis
Correct Answer
B. NM is used for diagnosis and RT is used for therapyExplanation
Nuclear medicine (NM) and Radiation therapy (RT) are two different branches of medical science that use radiation, but for different purposes. NM is primarily used for diagnosis, where radioactive substances are introduced into the body to create images and study the functioning of organs and tissues. On the other hand, RT is used for therapy, where high-energy radiation is used to treat diseases like cancer by targeting and killing cancer cells. Therefore, the correct answer is that NM is used for diagnosis and RT is used for therapy.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Treesa was diagnosed with a meningioma, which is usually _________ tumor. The doctor told her that it was not malignant, but that is should be removed because of the pressure it was causing on the surrounding tissues.
- A.
Benign
- B.
Aplastic
- C.
Necrotic
- D.
None
Correct Answer
C. NecroticExplanation
A meningioma is usually a benign tumor, meaning it is non-cancerous and does not spread to other parts of the body. However, in this case, the tumor is described as necrotic. Necrosis refers to the death of cells or tissue, which suggests that the tumor may have undergone some form of cell death or degeneration. This could be a reason why the doctor recommended its removal, as the necrotic tumor may be causing pressure on the surrounding tissues.Rate this question:
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- 40.
An X-ray image of a blood vessel is
- A.
Tomography
- B.
Angiography
- C.
Cardiography
- D.
Hysterosalpingography
Correct Answer
B. AngiograpHyExplanation
Angiography is the correct answer because it is a medical imaging technique used to visualize blood vessels in various parts of the body. X-ray imaging is commonly used in angiography to create detailed images of blood vessels, allowing doctors to diagnose and treat conditions such as blockages or abnormalities. Tomography, cardiography, and hysterosalpingography are not specifically related to imaging blood vessels, making them incorrect options.Rate this question:
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- 41.
An X-ray of the spinal cord-
- A.
Spinography
- B.
Vertebrography
- C.
Pyelography
- D.
Myelography
Correct Answer
D. MyelograpHyExplanation
Myelography is the correct answer because it is a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses X-rays to visualize the spinal cord and the surrounding structures. It involves injecting a contrast dye into the spinal canal, which helps to highlight any abnormalities or problems in the spinal cord. This procedure is commonly used to diagnose conditions such as herniated discs, spinal tumors, and spinal stenosis. Spinography, vertebrography, and pyelography are not specific to imaging the spinal cord and therefore are not the correct answers.Rate this question:
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- 42.
It is okay to use MRI for patients with pacemakers or metallic implants.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
MRI machines use strong magnetic fields that can interfere with the functioning of pacemakers or metallic implants. The magnetic fields can cause the pacemaker to malfunction or move the metallic implants, leading to potential harm for the patient. Therefore, it is not okay to use MRI for patients with pacemakers or metallic implants.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Benign tumor of the bone
- A.
Chondroma
- B.
Chondrosarcoma
- C.
Osteoma
- D.
Osteosarcoma
Correct Answer
C. OsteomaExplanation
Osteoma is a benign tumor of the bone. It is composed of mature bone tissue and usually occurs in the skull or facial bones. Unlike chondroma, which is a benign tumor of cartilage, osteoma arises from bone tissue. Chondrosarcoma and osteosarcoma, on the other hand, are malignant tumors of the bone. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is osteoma, as it is the only option that corresponds to a benign tumor of the bone.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Neuroblastoma is a benign tumor.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Neuroblastoma is not a benign tumor, but rather a malignant tumor. It is a type of cancer that develops from immature nerve cells found in various parts of the body, most commonly in the adrenal glands. It is considered a high-risk cancer and can spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Alkylating agents used in chemotherapy interfere with the process of DNA synthesis.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Alkylating agents used in chemotherapy are known to interfere with the process of DNA synthesis. These agents work by adding alkyl groups to the DNA molecule, which can cause DNA strands to break or crosslink. This disruption in DNA synthesis can prevent cancer cells from dividing and growing, ultimately leading to their death. Therefore, the statement "Alkylating agents used in chemotherapy interfere with the process of DNA synthesis" is true.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Lymphomas and Hodgkin disease are examples of radiocurable tumors.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Lymphomas and Hodgkin disease are examples of radiocurable tumors because they are highly responsive to radiation therapy. Radiation therapy uses high-energy beams to target and kill cancer cells. Lymphomas and Hodgkin disease are known to have a high cure rate when treated with radiation therapy, making them radiocurable tumors.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A __________ (foul, fowl) smell came from the infected blisters.
Correct Answer
foulExplanation
The correct answer is "foul." In this sentence, "foul" is used to describe the smell that came from the infected blisters. "Foul" means unpleasant or offensive in odor, which fits the context of the sentence. "Fowl," on the other hand, refers to a type of bird, and it does not make sense in the given sentence.Rate this question:
- 48.
___________ is a carcinogen. (Tomato/Tobacco)
Correct Answer
TobaccoExplanation
Tobacco is considered a carcinogen, meaning it has the potential to cause cancer. Numerous studies have shown a strong link between tobacco use and various types of cancer, including lung, throat, and mouth cancer. The harmful chemicals present in tobacco, such as nicotine and tar, can damage DNA and lead to the development of cancerous cells. Therefore, it is widely recognized that tobacco use poses a significant risk to human health and is classified as a carcinogen.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 14, 2017Quiz Created by
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What do Radiographers Do? Test Your Knowledge on World Radiography Day!
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