Test Your Knowledge About Food Safety And Hygiene! Trivia Quiz
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Which food item has been associated with Salmonella Typhi?
A.
Beverages
B.
Produce
C.
Shellfish from contaminated water
D.
Undercooked Ground Beef
Correct Answer
A. Beverages
Explanation Salmonella Typhi is commonly associated with contaminated water and is the causative agent of typhoid fever. It is typically transmitted through the consumption of food or water that has been contaminated with the feces of an infected person. While all the given options could potentially be contaminated with Salmonella Typhi, the most likely source would be beverages, as they are often prepared using water that may not be properly treated or sanitized.
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2.
What symptom requires a food handler to be excluded from the operation?
A.
Sore throat
B.
Jaundice
C.
Coughing
D.
Stomach Cramps
Correct Answer
B. Jaundice
Explanation Jaundice is a symptom of liver dysfunction that causes yellowing of the skin and eyes due to a buildup of bilirubin. It can indicate a contagious viral infection such as hepatitis A, which can be transmitted through food handling. Therefore, a food handler with jaundice should be excluded from the operation to prevent the spread of the infection to others.
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3.
Which is an example of physical contamination?
A.
Sneezing on food
B.
Touching dirty food-contact surfaces
C.
Bones in fish
D.
Cooking tomato sauce in a copper pan
Correct Answer
C. Bones in fish
Explanation Bones in fish is an example of physical contamination because it involves the presence of foreign objects, in this case, bones, in the food. Physical contamination refers to the presence of any physical object in the food that can cause harm or discomfort to the consumer. In this case, if someone accidentally bites into a bone while eating the fish, it can lead to injury or choking.
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4.
What practice is useful for preventing Norovirus from causing foodborne illness?
A.
Cooking food to minimum internal temperature
B.
Correct handwashing
C.
Cooling food rapidly
D.
Encouraging staff to get flu shots
Correct Answer
B. Correct handwashing
Explanation Correct handwashing is useful for preventing Norovirus from causing foodborne illness. Norovirus is a highly contagious virus that can be transmitted through contaminated food and surfaces. Proper handwashing, using soap and water for at least 20 seconds, helps to remove any potential Norovirus particles from hands, reducing the risk of contamination. It is an essential practice in food handling and preparation to ensure the safety of the food and prevent the spread of Norovirus.
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5.
What condition promotes the growth of bacteria?
A.
High acidity
B.
Low levels of moisture
C.
Food held between 70 degrees F and 125 degrees F (21 degrees C and 52 degrees C)
D.
Food with a pH that is highly alkaline
Correct Answer
C. Food held between 70 degrees F and 125 degrees F (21 degrees C and 52 degrees C)
Explanation Bacteria thrive in environments with temperatures between 70 degrees F and 125 degrees F (21 degrees C and 52 degrees C). This temperature range is known as the "danger zone" for bacterial growth. In this range, bacteria can multiply rapidly, increasing the risk of foodborne illnesses. High acidity, low levels of moisture, and highly alkaline pH, on the other hand, are conditions that inhibit bacterial growth.
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6.
Parasites are commonly associated with food?
A.
Mushrooms
B.
Wild game
C.
Whole wheat
D.
Dairy products
Correct Answer
B. Wild game
Explanation Wild game is commonly associated with parasites because animals living in the wild can be infected with various parasites such as worms, ticks, and fleas. These parasites can be transmitted to humans if the meat is not properly cooked or handled. Therefore, it is important to ensure that wild game is thoroughly cooked to kill any potential parasites before consumption.
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7.
What practice should be used to prevent seafood toxins from causing a foodborne illness?
A.
Cooking food to correct internal temperatures
B.
Handwashing throughout the day
C.
Purchasing food from approved, reputable suppliers
D.
Microwaving fish to be served raw for 15 seconds
Correct Answer
C. Purchasing food from approved, reputable suppliers
Explanation To prevent seafood toxins from causing a foodborne illness, it is important to purchase food from approved, reputable suppliers. This ensures that the seafood has been properly handled, stored, and sourced from reliable sources. By purchasing from trusted suppliers, the risk of contaminated seafood and toxins is minimized, reducing the chances of a foodborne illness.
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8.
How should chemicals be stored?
A.
Above food
B.
Away from prep areas
C.
In food-storage areas
D.
With kitchenware
Correct Answer
B. Away from prep areas
Explanation Chemicals should be stored away from prep areas to prevent contamination of food. Storing chemicals in close proximity to food preparation areas can increase the risk of cross-contamination, potentially leading to foodborne illnesses. It is important to keep chemicals separate from food-storage areas and kitchenware to maintain a safe and hygienic environment in the kitchen.
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9.
What does the L stand for in the FDA's ALERT tool?
A.
Listen
B.
Leave
C.
Limit
D.
Look
Correct Answer
D. Look
Explanation The correct answer is "Look." The L in the FDA's ALERT tool stands for "Look" because the tool is designed to help healthcare professionals identify potential safety issues with medical products. By looking for signs of adverse events or problems, healthcare professionals can take appropriate action to ensure patient safety.
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10.
What practice can help prevent allergic reactions?
A.
Cooking different food types in the same oil
B.
Identifying ingredients for customers
C.
Using parchment paper when baking cookies
D.
Providing home delivery service
Correct Answer
B. Identifying ingredients for customers
Explanation Identifying ingredients for customers can help prevent allergic reactions. By clearly labeling and disclosing the ingredients used in a dish, customers with allergies can make informed choices and avoid consuming foods that may trigger an allergic reaction. This practice allows individuals to take necessary precautions and ensures their safety.
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11.
What symptom can indicate a customer is having an allergic reaction?
A.
Wheezing or shortness of breath
B.
Left arm pain
C.
Appetite loss
D.
Coughing blood
Correct Answer
A. Wheezing or shortness of breath
Explanation Wheezing or shortness of breath can indicate a customer is having an allergic reaction. These symptoms are commonly associated with an allergic response in the respiratory system. Allergic reactions can cause the airways to narrow, leading to difficulty in breathing and a wheezing sound. This can be a sign of anaphylaxis, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek medical attention promptly.
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12.
Where should a food handler wash his or her hands after prepping food?
A.
Three-compartment sink
B.
Utility sink
C.
Designated sink for handwashing
D.
Food-prep sink
Correct Answer
C. Designated sink for handwashing
Explanation A food handler should wash his or her hands after prepping food in a designated sink for handwashing. This sink is specifically designated for the purpose of handwashing and is separate from sinks used for other tasks such as food preparation or utility purposes. Using a designated sink for handwashing ensures that hands are properly cleaned and prevents cross-contamination.
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13.
When should a food handler with a sore throat and fever be excluded from the operation?
A.
When the customers served are primarily a high-risk population
B.
When the food handler's fever is over 100 degrees F (38 degrees C)
C.
After the food handler has a sore throat that has lasted for more than 5 days
D.
Before the regulatory authority is notified
Correct Answer
A. When the customers served are primarily a high-risk population
Explanation A food handler with a sore throat and fever should be excluded from the operation when the customers served are primarily a high-risk population. This is because individuals in high-risk populations, such as the elderly, young children, pregnant women, and those with weakened immune systems, are more susceptible to foodborne illnesses. Therefore, it is important to prevent any potential transmission of illness by excluding the food handler from the operation to ensure the safety of the customers.
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14.
A food handler comes to work with diarrhea. What should the manager tell the food handler to do?
A.
Do not work with food
B.
Go home
C.
Clean the restroom after each use
D.
Only bus tables
Correct Answer
B. Go home
Explanation The manager should tell the food handler to go home because working with diarrhea can pose a risk of contaminating the food and spreading illness to others. It is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of both the food handler and the customers.
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15.
What should a food handler do to make gloves easier to put on?
A.
Sprinkle flour in the gloves
B.
Blow into gloves
C.
Select the correct size gloves
D.
Roll the gloves up
Correct Answer
C. Select the correct size gloves
Explanation Selecting the correct size gloves is important to make them easier to put on. If the gloves are too small, they will be tight and difficult to slide onto the hands. On the other hand, if the gloves are too large, they may slip off or hinder dexterity. By choosing the appropriate size, the food handler can ensure a comfortable fit, making it easier to put on and work with the gloves effectively.
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16.
When can a food handler diagnose with jaundice return to work?
A.
After 1 week
B.
When his or her skin returns to a natural color
C.
Seven days after the last symptom is observed
D.
When approved by the regulatory authority
Correct Answer
D. When approved by the regulatory authority
Explanation A food handler diagnosed with jaundice should return to work only when approved by the regulatory authority. This is because jaundice is a symptom of various underlying medical conditions, including liver disease, and can be contagious. Therefore, it is crucial for the regulatory authority to assess the food handler's health status and determine if they pose a risk to public health before allowing them to resume work. Simply waiting for a week or until the skin returns to a natural color may not guarantee that the individual is no longer contagious or medically fit to handle food safely.
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17.
Which item is a potential physical contaminant?
A.
Sanitizer
B.
Jewelry
C.
Sweat
D.
Hand sanitizer
Correct Answer
B. Jewelry
Explanation Jewelry is a potential physical contaminant because it is an external object that can accidentally fall or come into contact with food or other items, posing a risk of physical contamination. This can include items such as earrings, rings, or bracelets, which may contain dirt, bacteria, or other harmful substances that can contaminate surfaces or cause harm if ingested.
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18.
What is the purpose of hand antiseptic?
A.
Eliminate the need for handwashing
B.
Increase the use of sanitizing solutions
C.
Lower the number of pathogens on the skin
D.
Eliminate the need for use of gloves
Correct Answer
C. Lower the number of pathogens on the skin
Explanation Hand antiseptic is used to lower the number of pathogens on the skin. It is not meant to eliminate the need for handwashing, increase the use of sanitizing solutions, or eliminate the need for gloves. Hand antiseptic is specifically designed to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the hands, reducing the risk of spreading infections or diseases. It is commonly used in healthcare settings, food handling industries, and other situations where hand hygiene is crucial.
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19.
Single-use gloves are not required when
A.
The food handler has a latex sensitivity
B.
Cleaning stationary equipment
C.
Washing produce
D.
Handling cooked food
Correct Answer
C. Washing produce
Explanation Single-use gloves are not required when washing produce because the purpose of using gloves in food handling is to prevent the transfer of harmful bacteria or contaminants. Washing produce involves cleaning fruits and vegetables under running water, which effectively removes dirt and potential contaminants. As long as the food handler maintains proper hygiene by washing their hands thoroughly before and after handling produce, the use of gloves is not necessary in this specific task.
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20.
What should food handlers do after leaving and returning to the prep area?
A.
Put on gloves
B.
Remove their aprons
C.
Wash hands
D.
Apply hand antiseptic
Correct Answer
C. Wash hands
Explanation After leaving and returning to the prep area, food handlers should wash their hands. This is important to maintain proper hygiene and prevent the spread of contaminants. Washing hands helps to remove any potential pathogens or bacteria that may have been picked up during the absence from the prep area. It is a crucial step in food safety protocols to ensure the safety and well-being of both the food handlers and the consumers.
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21.
What type of eggs must be used when preparing raw or uncooked dishes for high-risk populations?
A.
Pasteurized
B.
Pooled
C.
Hard-boiled
D.
Shelled
Correct Answer
A. Pasteurized
Explanation When preparing raw or uncooked dishes for high-risk populations, such as pregnant women, young children, or individuals with weakened immune systems, it is important to use pasteurized eggs. Pasteurization is a process that involves heating the eggs to a specific temperature to kill harmful bacteria, such as Salmonella, without fully cooking the eggs. This helps to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses that can be caused by consuming raw or undercooked eggs. Pooled eggs, hard-boiled eggs, and shelled eggs are not specifically processed to eliminate bacteria and may still pose a risk to high-risk populations.
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22.
What causes preschool-age children to be at risk for foodborne illness?
A.
Their immune systems are not strong
B.
They have not received all of their immunizations
C.
They only eat ready-to-eat food
D.
They have hidden allergies
Correct Answer
A. Their immune systems are not strong
Explanation Preschool-age children are at risk for foodborne illness because their immune systems are not strong. At this age, their immune systems are still developing and may not be able to effectively fight off harmful bacteria or viruses that can be present in contaminated food. This makes them more susceptible to getting sick from foodborne pathogens. It is important to take extra precautions when handling and preparing food for young children to reduce the risk of foodborne illness.
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23.
Which organization includes inspecting food as one of its primary responsibilities?
A.
U.S. Public Health Service
B.
Centers for Disease Control
C.
U.S. Department of Agriculture
D.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Correct Answer
C. U.S. Department of Agriculture
Explanation The U.S. Department of Agriculture includes inspecting food as one of its primary responsibilities. This organization is responsible for ensuring the safety and quality of the nation's food supply. They conduct inspections of food processing facilities, farms, and other establishments involved in the production and distribution of food. Through their inspection programs, they aim to prevent foodborne illnesses and protect consumers from contaminated or unsafe food products.
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24.
What should a server do after clearing a table?
A.
Apply hand antiseptic
B.
Wash hands
C.
Put disposable gloves back on
D.
Rinse hands in warm water
Correct Answer
B. Wash hands
Explanation After clearing a table, a server should wash their hands. This is important to maintain proper hygiene and prevent the spread of germs and bacteria. Washing hands with soap and water helps to remove any dirt, food particles, and potential pathogens that may have been transferred from the table or dishes. It is a crucial step in food service to ensure the safety and well-being of both the server and the customers.
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25.
What strategy can prevent cross-contamination?
A.
Buy food that does not require prepping
B.
Prep food on both sides of a cutting board
C.
Prep raw food and ready-to-eat food at the same time
D.
Avoid time-temperature abuse
Correct Answer
A. Buy food that does not require prepping
Explanation Buying food that does not require prepping can prevent cross-contamination because prepping involves handling and cutting raw food, which increases the risk of spreading bacteria or other contaminants. By purchasing food that is already prepared or requires minimal handling, there is a lower chance of cross-contamination occurring. This strategy helps to ensure food safety and reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses.
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26.
What temperatures do infrared thermometers measure?
A.
Internal food
B.
Air
C.
Surface
D.
Oven
Correct Answer
C. Surface
Explanation Infrared thermometers measure the temperature of the surface. Unlike traditional thermometers that require direct contact with the object, infrared thermometers use infrared radiation to detect the temperature of an object's surface without physically touching it. This makes them ideal for measuring the temperature of objects that are difficult to access or may be dangerous to touch, such as hot surfaces, machinery, or even human skin.
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27.
When can glass thermometers be used?
A.
When candy is being made
B.
When checking liquids
C.
When enclosed in a shatterproof casing
D.
When hanging in a cooler
Correct Answer
C. When enclosed in a shatterproof casing
Explanation Glass thermometers can be used when enclosed in a shatterproof casing because the casing provides protection against breakage, ensuring that the glass does not shatter and pose a safety risk. This allows the thermometer to be used in various applications, such as measuring the temperature of liquids or monitoring the temperature during candy making processes, without the risk of glass fragments contaminating the substance being measured.
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28.
Why should food temperatures be taken in 2 different locations?
A.
To ensure the thermometer is calibrated correctly
B.
It is required by the manufacturer
C.
To ensure the thermometer is accurate to +/- 2 degrees F or +/- 1 degrees C
D.
Temperature may vary in the food
Correct Answer
D. Temperature may vary in the food
Explanation Food temperatures should be taken in 2 different locations to account for any variations in temperature within the food. Different parts of the food may have different temperatures, especially in larger or thicker items. By measuring the temperature in multiple locations, it ensures that the overall temperature of the food is accurately represented and helps to prevent undercooking or overcooking.
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29.
A food handler is prepping a seafood dish on April 4, using shrimp and scallops. The shrimp has a use-by date of April 8, and the scallops have a use-by date of April 10. What is the use-by date for the seafood dish?
A.
April 4
B.
April 8
C.
April 10
D.
April 12
Correct Answer
B. April 8
Explanation The use-by date for the seafood dish is April 8 because the use-by date is determined by the ingredient with the shortest shelf life, which in this case is the shrimp with a use-by date of April 8.
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30.
What information must be included on the label of food packaged on-site for retail sale?
A.
Pack date
B.
List of ingredients
C.
Storage guidelines
D.
Serving size
Correct Answer
B. List of ingredients
Explanation The information that must be included on the label of food packaged on-site for retail sale is the list of ingredients. This is important for consumers to know what ingredients are present in the food product, especially for those with allergies or dietary restrictions. The list of ingredients helps individuals make informed choices about the food they consume.
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31.
How should an item that has been recalled by its manufacturer be stored in an operation?
A.
Together with food that will be served
B.
Separately from food that will be served
C.
In vacuum-packed bags
D.
In self-draining containers
Correct Answer
B. Separately from food that will be served
Explanation An item that has been recalled by its manufacturer should be stored separately from food that will be served. This is important to prevent any potential contamination or cross-contamination of the recalled item with the food that will be served. By storing the recalled item separately, it ensures that it is easily identifiable and not mistakenly used or served to customers. Additionally, separating the recalled item helps to maintain food safety standards and prevents any potential health risks.
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32.
What is the recommended safe temperature range for refrigerating perishable food to prevent bacterial growth?
A.
0°F to 32°F (-18°C to 0°C)
B.
32°F to 40°F (0°C to 4.4°C)
C.
40°F to 140°F (4.4°C to 60°C)
D.
Below 40°F (4.4°C)
Correct Answer
D. Below 40°F (4.4°C)
Explanation To safely store perishable foods and prevent the growth of bacteria that can cause food poisoning, it is essential to keep your refrigerator at or below 40°F (4.4°C). This temperature slows down most bacterial growth, ensuring that foods like meats, dairy products, and leftovers remain safe for consumption. The options A and B do not fully cover the safety threshold, and option C, known as the "danger zone," is where bacterial growth can flourish, so it is critical to keep perishable foods out of this range.
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33.
Which item should be rejected?
A.
Bags of organic cookies in torn packaging
B.
Bottled milk at 41 degrees F (5 degrees C)
C.
Shell eggs at an air temperature of 45 degrees F (7 degrees C)
D.
Live oysters at 50 degrees F (10 degrees C)
Correct Answer
A. Bags of organic cookies in torn packaging
Explanation The bags of organic cookies in torn packaging should be rejected because torn packaging can lead to contamination and compromise the quality and safety of the cookies.
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34.
Ready-to-eat TCS food prepped in-house must be date marked if it is held for more than how many hours?
A.
12 hours
B.
24 hours
C.
48 hours
D.
72 hours
Correct Answer
B. 24 hours
Explanation Ready-to-eat TCS food prepped in-house must be date marked if it is held for more than 24 hours. This means that if the food is prepared and not consumed within 24 hours, it needs to be clearly labeled with the date it was prepared. Date marking is important for food safety as it helps to track the freshness of the food and ensure that it is consumed within a safe time frame.
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35.
A local nursing home has a yearly barbecue for its residents. Which food item should not be served?
A.
Deviled eggs
B.
Potato salad
C.
Raw carrots
D.
Rare hamburgers
Correct Answer
D. Rare hamburgers
Explanation Rare hamburgers should not be served because they may not be cooked thoroughly enough to kill harmful bacteria, such as E. coli, that can cause foodborne illnesses. Cooking hamburgers to an internal temperature of 160°F (71°C) ensures that any potential pathogens are destroyed, making them safe to consume. Serving rare hamburgers puts the elderly residents at risk of food poisoning, which can have severe consequences for their health.
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36.
When transporting food off-site, how should information such as use-by date and time be communicated to the off-site staff?
A.
Telephone
B.
Text or email message
C.
Labels on food
D.
Verbal instructions
Correct Answer
C. Labels on food
Explanation When transporting food off-site, the use-by date and time should be communicated to the off-site staff through labels on the food. Labels on food provide a clear and visible way to convey important information about the food, including its expiration date and time. This ensures that the off-site staff can easily identify and handle the food appropriately, minimizing the risk of serving expired or spoiled food. Telephone, text or email messages, and verbal instructions may not be as reliable or easily accessible in a busy off-site environment.
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37.
What is the minimum internal cooking temperature for a veal chop?
A.
135 degrees F (57 degrees C)
B.
145 degrees F (63 degrees C)
C.
155 degrees F (68 degrees C)
D.
165 degrees F (74 degrees C)
Correct Answer
B. 145 degrees F (63 degrees C)
Explanation The minimum internal cooking temperature for a veal chop is 145 degrees F (63 degrees C). This temperature ensures that the veal chop is cooked to a safe level, killing any harmful bacteria that may be present. Cooking the veal chop to this temperature also helps to retain its juiciness and tenderness, resulting in a flavorful and enjoyable meal.
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38.
How many hours can cold food be held without refrigeration before it must be sold, served, or thrown out?
A.
2 hours
B.
4 hours
C.
6 hours
D.
8 hours
Correct Answer
C. 6 hours
Explanation Cold food can be held without refrigeration for up to 6 hours before it must be sold, served, or thrown out. This is because after 6 hours, the food is at risk of bacterial growth and potential foodborne illnesses. Refrigeration helps to slow down the growth of bacteria, so it is important to ensure that cold food is stored properly to maintain its safety and quality.
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39.
Lasagna was removed from hot holding for service at 11:00 a.m. By what time must it be served or thrown out?
A.
12:00 p.m.
B.
2:00 p.m.
C.
3:00 p.m.
D.
4:00 p.m.
Correct Answer
C. 3:00 p.m.
Explanation Lasagna must be served or thrown out within 4 hours of being removed from hot holding. Since it was removed at 11:00 a.m., it must be served or thrown out by 3:00 p.m.
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40.
What should be done with preset, unwrapped utensils that appear to be unused after guests have left the table?
A.
Wrap the utensils with a clean napkin
B.
Leave the utensils for the next guest
C.
Clean and sanitize the utensils
D.
Wipe off the utensils and reuse
Correct Answer
C. Clean and sanitize the utensils
Explanation Preset, unwrapped utensils that appear to be unused after guests have left the table should be cleaned and sanitized. This is important to ensure proper hygiene and prevent the spread of germs and bacteria. Simply wiping off the utensils may not be sufficient, as it may not completely remove any potential contaminants. Therefore, cleaning and sanitizing the utensils is the best practice to maintain a safe and hygienic dining environment.
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41.
What rule for serving bread should food handlers practice?
A.
Do not re-serve uneaten bread
B.
Reheat uneaten bread before serving to other customers
C.
Recycle unused, uncovered, butter for use in other food items
D.
Clean and sanitize bread baskets between each customer
Correct Answer
A. Do not re-serve uneaten bread
Explanation Food handlers should not re-serve uneaten bread to other customers. This is important to prevent the risk of food contamination and the spread of foodborne illnesses. Re-serving uneaten bread can introduce bacteria, allergens, or other contaminants from one customer to another. It is essential for food handlers to prioritize food safety and hygiene by discarding any uneaten bread and providing fresh, uncontaminated bread to each customer.
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42.
In a self-service area, bulk unpackaged food does not need a lable if the product
A.
Makes a claim about health or nutrient content
B.
Does not make a claim about health or nutrient content
C.
Has been prepared at an unregulated processing plant
D.
Has been prepared at a vendor's processing plant
Correct Answer
B. Does not make a claim about health or nutrient content
Explanation In a self-service area, bulk unpackaged food does not need a label if it does not make a claim about health or nutrient content. This means that if the food product does not advertise any specific health benefits or nutrient information, it is not required to have a label. This is because labeling regulations typically focus on providing accurate information to consumers regarding the health and nutritional aspects of a product. Therefore, if the food does not make any claims in this regard, it is exempt from the labeling requirement.
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43.
The temperature of duck breast is checked during cooking. According to the operation's policy, the duck breast must be cooked for 16 minutes to allow the internal temperature to reach 165 degrees F (74 degrees C). What HACCP principle is addressed by cooking the duck breast to 165 degrees F (74 degrees C)
A.
Hazard analysis
B.
Verification
C.
Monitoring
D.
Critical limit
Correct Answer
D. Critical limit
Explanation The correct answer is "Critical limit." Cooking the duck breast to a specific internal temperature of 165 degrees F (74 degrees C) is a critical limit that ensures the elimination of any potential food safety hazards associated with undercooked poultry. This critical limit helps to prevent the risk of foodborne illnesses caused by pathogens such as Salmonella or Campylobacter that can be present in raw or undercooked poultry. By cooking the duck breast to the specified temperature, the critical limit is being met, ensuring the safety of the dish.
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44.
What must a food handler with an infected hand wound do to work safely with food?
A.
Cover the wound with an impermeable cover and wear a single-use glove
B.
Avoid working with raw food until the wound is completely dry
C.
Place a bandage on the wound
D.
Apply hand sanitizer to the wound
Correct Answer
A. Cover the wound with an impermeable cover and wear a single-use glove
Explanation A food handler with an infected hand wound should ensure the wound is completely covered with a waterproof bandage or an impermeable cover, and then wear a single-use glove over it. This practice is critical to prevent any bacteria or pathogens from the wound contaminating the food. It adheres to food safety guidelines which emphasize minimizing any direct contact between open wounds and food to avoid cross-contamination and ensure safe food handling. The other options do not provide adequate protection against contamination.
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45.
Which of these food processes does not require a variance from a regulatory authority?
A.
Smoking food as a method to preserve it
B.
Buying bean sprouts from a reputable supplier
C.
Curing food
D.
Pasteurizing juice on-site
Correct Answer
B. Buying bean sprouts from a reputable supplier
Explanation Buying bean sprouts from a reputable supplier does not require a variance from a regulatory authority because it involves purchasing a product from a trusted source rather than processing or altering the food in any way. The regulatory authority's involvement is not necessary as long as the supplier meets the required standards and regulations for food safety.
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46.
What is cross-connection?
A.
Backflow of clean water into dirty water
B.
Physical link between safe water and dirty water
C.
Water transport vehicle
D.
Approved public water maiin
Correct Answer
B. pHysical link between safe water and dirty water
Explanation Cross-connection refers to a physical link between safe water and dirty water. This means that there is a connection between a source of clean water and a source of contaminated water, which can lead to the backflow of clean water into dirty water. This poses a risk of contamination and can compromise the safety of the water supply.
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47.
What information must be posted on a dishwasher?
A.
Manufacturer phone number
B.
Correct settings
C.
Recommended sanitizing amounts
D.
Schedule for cleaning
Correct Answer
B. Correct settings
Explanation The correct answer is "Correct settings." This information must be posted on a dishwasher to ensure that users are aware of the appropriate settings to use for different types of dishes and the correct temperature and duration for each cycle. This helps to ensure that the dishwasher operates efficiently and effectively, while also preventing damage to dishes and conserving energy.
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48.
What scenario can lead to pest infestation?
A.
Storing recyclables in paper bags
B.
Cleaning up spills around garbage containers
C.
Rotating products using the FIFO method
D.
Installing air curtains above doors
Correct Answer
A. Storing recyclables in paper bags
Explanation Storing recyclables in paper bags can lead to pest infestation because pests are attracted to the smell of food residue or remnants that may be present on the recyclables. Paper bags are more susceptible to tearing or being chewed through by pests, providing them easy access to the food source. This can result in an infestation of pests such as rats, mice, or insects. Proper storage of recyclables in sealed containers or bins can help prevent pest infestation.
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49.
What is the first step in developing a HACCP plan?
A.
Identify corrective actions
B.
Conduct a hazard analysis
C.
Establish monitoring procedures
D.
Determine critical control points
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a hazard analysis
Explanation The first step in developing a HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points) plan is to conduct a hazard analysis. This involves identifying and evaluating potential hazards that could occur at each stage of the food production process. By conducting a hazard analysis, potential risks can be identified and assessed, allowing for the development of appropriate control measures to prevent, eliminate, or reduce these hazards to an acceptable level. This step is crucial in ensuring the safety and quality of the food products.
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50.
What factors influence the effectiveness of a chemical sanitizer?
A.
Concentration, temperature, contact time, pH, and water hardness
Concentration, protein, acidity, air temperature, strength
D.
Concentration, water activity, reactivity, pressure, density
Correct Answer
A. Concentration, temperature, contact time, pH, and water hardness
Explanation The effectiveness of a chemical sanitizer is influenced by several factors. The concentration of the sanitizer is important as it determines the strength of the solution. A higher concentration is generally more effective. Temperature also plays a role as higher temperatures can enhance the sanitizing action. Contact time refers to the duration the sanitizer is in contact with the surface or object being sanitized. A longer contact time allows for better disinfection. pH level is important as some sanitizers work best at specific pH ranges. Water hardness, which refers to the mineral content in water, can also affect the effectiveness of a sanitizer.
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