NCLEX Practice Exam 38 (10 Questions)
All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.
- 1.
A client with diabetes has an order for ultrasonography. Preparation for an ultrasound includes:
- A.
Increasing fluid intake
- B.
Limiting ambulation
- C.
Administering an enema
- D.
Withholding food for 8 hours
Correct Answer
A. Increasing fluid intakeExplanation
Before ultrasonography. the client should be taught to drink plenty of fluids and not void. The client may ambulate. an enema is not needed. and there is no need to withhold food for 8 hours. Therefore. answers B. C. and D are incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 2.
An infant who weighs 8 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at 1 year?
- A.
14 pounds
- B.
16 pounds
- C.
18 pounds
- D.
24 pounds
Correct Answer
D. 24 poundsExplanation
By 1 year of age. the infant is expected to triple his birth weight. Answers A. B. and C are incorrect because they are too low.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A pregnant client with a history of alcohol addiction is scheduled for a nonstress test. The nonstress test:
- A.
Determines the lung maturity of the fetus
- B.
Measures the activity of the fetus
- C.
Shows the effect of contractions on the fetal heart rate
- D.
Measures the neurological well-being of the fetus
Correct Answer
B. Measures the activity of the fetusExplanation
A nonstress test is done to evaluate periodic movement of the fetus. It is not done to evaluate lung maturity as in answer A. An oxytocin challenge test shows the effect of contractions on fetal heart rate and a nonstress test does not measure neurological well-being of the fetus. so answers C and D are incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias?
- A.
The urethral opening is absent.
- B.
The urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis.
- C.
The penis is shorter than usual.
- D.
The urethral meatus opens on the underside of the penis.
Correct Answer
D. The urethral meatus opens on the underside of the penis.Explanation
Hypospadias is a congenital condition in males where the urethral meatus (the opening of the urethra) is located on the underside of the penis, rather than at the tip. The severity of hypospadias can vary, with the opening positioned anywhere along the penile shaft, near the scrotum, or even at the perineum. This condition may require surgical correction to ensure proper urinary function and, in some cases, to improve the cosmetic appearance of the penis. It is a relatively common congenital anomaly, often detected during newborn examination.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A gravida 3 para 2 is admitted to the labor unit. Vaginal exam reveals that the client’s cervix is 8 cm dilated. with complete effacement. The priority nursing diagnosis at this time is:
- A.
Alteration in coping related to pain
- B.
Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery
- C.
Alteration in elimination related to anesthesia
- D.
Potential for fluid volume deficit related to NPO status
Correct Answer
A. Alteration in coping related to painExplanation
Transition is the time during labor when the client loses concentration due to intense contractions. Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery has nothing to do with the dilation of the cervix. so answer B is incorrect. There is no data to indicate that the client has had anesthesia or fluid volume deficit. making answers C and D incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The client with varicella will most likely have an order for which category of medication?
- A.
Antibiotics
- B.
Antipyretics
- C.
Antivirals
- D.
Anticoagulants
Correct Answer
C. AntiviralsExplanation
Varicella is chicken pox. This herpes virus is treated with antiviral medications. The client is not treated with antibiotics or anticoagulants as stated in answers A and D. The client might have a fever before the rash appears. but when the rash appears. the temperature is usually gone. so answer B is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A client is admitted complaining of chest pain. Which of the following drug orders should the nurse question?
- A.
Nitroglycerin
- B.
Ampicillin
- C.
Propranolol
- D.
Verapamil
Correct Answer
B. AmpicillinExplanation
Clients with chest pain can be treated with nitroglycerin. a beta blocker such as propranolol. or Verapamil. There is no indication for an antibiotic such as Ampicillin. so answers A. C. and D are incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching for the client with rheumatoid arthritis?
- A.
Avoid exercise because it fatigues the joints.
- B.
Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals.
- C.
Alternate hot and cold packs to affected joints.
- D.
Avoid weight-bearing activity.
Correct Answer
B. Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals.Explanation
Anti-inflammatory drugs should be taken with meals to avoid stomach upset. Answers A. C. and D are incorrect. Clients with rheumatoid arthritis should exercise. but not to the point of pain. Alternating hot and cold is not necessary. especially because warm. moist soaks are more useful in decreasing pain. Weight-bearing activities such as walking are useful but is not the best answer for the stem.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which of the following orders should be questioned by the nurse?
- A.
Meperidine 100 mg IM q 4 hours PRN pain
- B.
Mylanta 30 ccs q 4 hours via NG
- C.
Cimetidine 300 mg PO q.i.d.
- D.
Morphine 8 mg IM q 4 hours PRN pain
Correct Answer
D. MorpHine 8 mg IM q 4 hours PRN painExplanation
Morphine is contraindicated in clients with gallbladder disease and pancreatitis because morphine causes spasms of the Sphincter of Oddi. Meperidine. Mylanta. and Cimetidine are ordered for pancreatitis. making answers A. B. and C incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The client is admitted to the chemical dependence unit with an order for continuous observation. The nurse is aware that the doctor has ordered continuous observation because:
- A.
Hallucinogenic drugs create both stimulant and depressant effects.
- B.
Hallucinogenic drugs induce a state of altered perception.
- C.
Hallucinogenic drugs produce severe respiratory depression.
- D.
Hallucinogenic drugs induce rapid physical dependence.
Correct Answer
B. Hallucinogenic drugs induce a state of altered perception.Explanation
Hallucinogenic drugs can cause hallucinations. Continuous observation is ordered to prevent the client from harming himself during withdrawal. Answers A. C. and D are incorrect because hallucinogenic drugs don’t create both stimulant and depressant effects or produce severe respiratory depression. However. they do produce psychological dependence rather than physical dependence.Rate this question:
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Apr 22, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jul 13, 2017Quiz Created by
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