Nervous System | Neurological Disorders NCLEX Quiz 54
All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.
- 1.
A client. age 22. is admitted with bacterial meningitis. Which hospital room would be the best choice for this client?
- A.
A private room down the hall from the nurses’ station
- B.
An isolation room three doors from the nurses’ station
- C.
A semi private room with a 32-year-old client who has viral meningitis
- D.
A two-bed room with a client who previously had bacterial meningitis
Correct Answer
B. An isolation room three doors from the nurses’ stationExplanation
A client with bacterial meningitis should be kept in isolation for at least 24 hours after admission.Option A: During the initial acute phase. should be as close to the nurses’ station as possible to allow maximal observation.Option C: Placing the client in a room with a client who has viral meningitis may cause harm to both clients because the organisms causing viral and bacterial meningitis differ; either client may contract the other’s disease.Option D: Immunity to Bacterial meningitis can’t be acquired; therefore. a client who previously had bacterial meningitis shouldn’t be put at risk by rooming with a client who has just been diagnosed with this disease.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A physician diagnoses a client with myasthenia gravis. prescribing pyridostigmine (Mestinon). 60 mg P.O. every 3 hours. Before administering this anticholinesterase agent. the nurse reviews the client’s history. Which preexisting condition would contraindicate the use of pyridostigmine?
- A.
Ulcerative colitis
- B.
Blood dyscrasia
- C.
Intestinal obstruction
- D.
Spinal cord injury
Correct Answer
C. Intestinal obstructionExplanation
Anticholinesterase agents such as pyridostigmine are contraindicated in a client with a mechanical obstruction of the intestines or urinary tract. peritonitis. or hypersensitivity to anticholinesterase agents.Options A. B. and D: Ulcerative colitis. blood dyscrasia. and spinal cord injury don’t contraindicate use of the drug.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A female client is admitted to the facility for investigation of balance and coordination problems. including possible Ménière’s disease. When assessing this client. the nurse expects to note:
- A.
Vertigo. tinnitus. and hearing loss.
- B.
Vertigo. vomiting. and nystagmus
- C.
Vertigo. pain. and hearing impairment.
- D.
Vertigo. blurred vision. and fever.
Correct Answer
A. Vertigo. tinnitus. and hearing loss.Explanation
Ménière’s disease. an inner ear disease. is characterized by the symptom triad of vertigo. tinnitus. and hearing loss. The combination of vertigo. vomiting. and nystagmus suggests labyrinthitis. Ménière’s disease rarely causes pain. blurred vision. or fever.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A male client with a conductive hearing disorder caused by ankylosis of the stapes in the oval window undergoes a stapedectomy to remove the stapes and replace the impaired bone with a prosthesis. After the stapedectomy. the nurse should provide which client instruction?
- A.
“Lie in bed with your head elevated. and refrain from blowing your nose for 24 hours.”
- B.
“Try to ambulate independently after about 24 hours.”
- C.
“Shampoo your hair every day for ten (10) days to help prevent ear infection.”
- D.
“Don’t fly in an airplane. climb to high altitudes. make sudden movements. or expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 days.”
Correct Answer
D. “Don’t fly in an airplane. climb to high altitudes. make sudden movements. or expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 days.”Explanation
For 30 days after a stapedectomy. the client should avoid air travel. sudden movements that may cause trauma. and exposure to loud sounds and pressure changes (such as from high altitudes).Option A: Immediately after surgery. the client should lie flat with the surgical ear facing upward; nose blowing is permitted but should be done gently and on one side at a time.Option B: The client’s first attempt at postoperative ambulation should be supervised to prevent falls caused by vertigo and light-headedness.Option C: The client must avoid shampooing and swimming to keep the dressing and the ear dry.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Nurse Marty is monitoring a client for adverse reactions to dantrolene (Dantrium). Which adverse reaction is most common?
- A.
Excessive tearing
- B.
Urine retention
- C.
Muscle weakness
- D.
Slurred speech
Correct Answer
C. Muscle weaknessExplanation
The most common adverse reaction to dantrolene is muscle weakness. The drug also may depress liver function or cause idiosyncratic hepatitis.Options A and B: Although excessive tearing and urine retention are adverse reactions associated with dantrolene use; they aren’t as common as muscle weakness.Option D: Muscle weakness is rarely severe enough to cause slurring of speech. drooling. and enuresis.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The nurse is monitoring a male client for adverse reactions to atropine sulfate (Atropine Care) eyedrops. Systemic absorption of atropine sulfate through the conjunctiva can cause which adverse reaction?
- A.
Tachycardia
- B.
Increased salivation
- C.
Hypotension
- D.
Apnea
Correct Answer
A. TachycardiaExplanation
Systemic absorption of atropine sulfate can cause tachycardia. palpitations. flushing. dry skin. ataxia. and confusion. To minimize systemic absorption. the client should apply digital pressure over the punctum at the inner canthus for 2 to 3 minutes after instilling the drops.Options B. C. and D: The drug also may cause dry mouth. It isn’t known to cause hypotension or apnea.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A male client is admitted with a cervical spine injury sustained during a diving accident. When planning this client’s care. the nurse should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
- A.
Impaired physical mobility
- B.
Ineffective breathing pattern
- C.
Disturbed sensory perception (tactile)
- D.
Self-care deficit: Dressing/grooming
Correct Answer
B. Ineffective breathing patternExplanation
Because a cervical spine injury can cause respiratory distress. the nurse should take immediate action to maintain a patent airway and provide adequate oxygenation.Options A. C. and D: The other options may be appropriate for a client with a spinal cord injury — particularly during the course of recovery — but don’t take precedence over a diagnosis of Ineffective breathing pattern.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A male client has a history of painful. continuous muscle spasms. He has taken several skeletal muscle relaxants without experiencing relief. His physician prescribes diazepam (Valium). two (2) mg P.O. twice daily. In addition to being used to relieve painful muscle spasms. Diazepam also is recommended for:
- A.
Long-term treatment of epilepsy.
- B.
Postoperative pain management of laminectomy clients.
- C.
Postoperative pain management of diskectomy clients
- D.
Treatment of spasticity associated with spinal cord lesions.
Correct Answer
D. Treatment of spasticity associated with spinal cord lesions.Explanation
In addition to relieving painful muscle spasms. Diazepam also is recommended for treatment of spasticity associated with spinal cord lesions. Diazepam’s use is limited by its central nervous system effects and the tolerance that develops with prolonged use.Option A: The parenteral form of diazepam can treat status epilepticus. but the drug’s sedating properties make it an unsuitable choice for long-term management of epilepsy.Options B and C: Diazepam isn’t an analgesic agent.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A female client who was found unconscious at home is brought to the hospital by a rescue squaD. In the intensive care unit. the nurse checks the client’s oculocephalic (doll’s eye) response by:
- A.
Introducing ice water into the external auditory canal.
- B.
Touching the cornea with a wisp of cotton.
- C.
Turning the client’s head suddenly while holding the eyelids open.
- D.
Shining a bright light into the pupil.
Correct Answer
C. Turning the client’s head suddenly while holding the eyelids open.Explanation
To elicit the oculocephalic response. which detects cranial nerve compression. the nurse turns the client’s head suddenly while holding the eyelids open. Normally. the eyes move from side to side when the head is turned; in an abnormal response. the eyes remain fixed.Option A: The nurse introduces ice water into the external auditory canal when testing the oculovestibular response; normally. the client’s eyes deviate to the side of ice water introduction.Option B: The nurse touches the client’s cornea with a wisp of cotton to elicit the corneal reflex response. which reveals brain stem function; blinking is the normal response.Option D: Shining a bright light into the client’s pupil helps evaluate brain stem and cranial nerve III functions; normally. the pupil responds by constricting.Rate this question:
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- 10.
While reviewing a client’s chart. the nurse notices that the female client has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following statements about neuromuscular blocking agents is true for a client with this condition?
- A.
The client may be less sensitive to the effects of a neuromuscular blocking agent.
- B.
Succinylcholine shouldn’t be used; pancuronium may be used in a lower dosage.
- C.
Pancuronium shouldn’t be used; succinylcholine may be used in a lower dosage.
- D.
Pancuronium and succinylcholine both require cautious administration.
Correct Answer
D. Pancuronium and succinylcholine both require cautious administration.Explanation
The nurse must cautiously administer pancuronium. succinylcholine. and any other neuromuscular blocking agent to a client with myasthenia gravis.Option A: Such a client isn’t less sensitive to the effects of a neuromuscular blocking agent.Options B and C: Either succinylcholine or pancuronium can be administered in the usual adult dosage to a client with myasthenia gravis.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 29, 2017Quiz Created by
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