4N051 B Vol 2 UREs
- 1.
Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?
- A.
Dentists
- B.
Registered Nurses
- C.
Physician Assistants
- D.
Certified Nurse Midwives
Correct Answer
B. Registered NursesExplanation
Registered Nurses are authorized to see and treat patients. Dentists, Physician Assistants, and Certified Nurse Midwives are also authorized healthcare professionals who can provide patient care. Therefore, the correct answer is Registered Nurses, as they are not the individuals who are not authorized to see and treat patients.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?
- A.
Patient's condition and cost of admission per day.
- B.
Facility policy and patient's distance from home.
- C.
Patient's condition and facility policy.
- D.
Facility policy and patient's requests.
Correct Answer
C. Patient's condition and facility policy.Explanation
The steps in the routine admission process are determined by the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is a crucial factor as it helps determine the level of care and resources required for their admission. Facility policy also plays a role in determining the steps, as it outlines the protocols and procedures that need to be followed during the admission process. Other factors such as cost of admission per day, patient's distance from home, and patient's requests may be important considerations in some cases, but they are not the primary determinants of the steps in the routine admission process.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
- A.
Evaluate patient
- B.
Obtain patient's history
- C.
Transcribe doctor's orders
- D.
Obtain patient's vitals, height and weight
Correct Answer
D. Obtain patient's vitals, height and weightExplanation
During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, the responsibility of the medical technician would be to obtain the patient's vitals, height, and weight. This is important for assessing the patient's overall health and determining any potential medical issues. By obtaining these measurements, the medical technician can provide accurate information to the healthcare team and ensure appropriate care and treatment for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?
- A.
Pass
- B.
Discharge
- C.
Subsisting elsewhere
- D.
AWOL
Correct Answer
A. PassExplanation
The correct answer is "Pass". This term refers to allowing a patient to temporarily leave the medical facility for a short period of time, typically between 24 and 48 hours. It implies that the patient has been given permission to leave and will return within the specified time frame.Rate this question:
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- 5.
How manhy pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facililty?
- A.
56
- B.
66
- C.
76
- D.
10
Correct Answer
B. 66Explanation
The correct answer is 66 pounds. This suggests that a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility is allowed to carry up to 66 pounds of baggage.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered
- A.
On pass
- B.
Subsisting out
- C.
On convalescent leave
- D.
Discharged and an outpatient
Correct Answer
B. Subsisting outExplanation
The correct answer is "subsisting out". When a patient is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment, they are said to be subsisting out. This means that they are allowed to receive treatment while residing outside the hospital setting. This arrangement is often made for patients who are stable enough to continue their treatment while living in a more comfortable environment. It allows them to have some freedom and independence while still receiving the necessary medical care.Rate this question:
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- 7.
If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the
- A.
Patient was likely off the unit having tests complete
- B.
Patient is doing well and no problems were noted
- C.
Doctor probably changed the orders verbally
- D.
Vital signs were not completed
Correct Answer
D. Vital signs were not completedExplanation
If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, the most reasonable assumption would be that the vital signs were not completed. This is because if the patient was off the unit having tests complete, it would be expected that the vital signs would still be recorded upon their return. If the patient was doing well and no problems were noted, the vital signs would still need to be monitored. While it is possible that the doctor may have changed the orders verbally, it is more likely that the vital signs were simply not completed as required.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?
- A.
No documentation is required at shift change
- B.
Document all totals in the Remarks section
- C.
Document in the Grand Total block
- D.
Circle the last accumulated total
Correct Answer
D. Circle the last accumulated totalExplanation
The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total intake and output should be calculated and circled to indicate that it is the final total for that shift. This allows for easy identification and tracking of the cumulative totals for each shift. No additional documentation or remarks are required for shift change totals.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?
- A.
Planning
- B.
Assessing
- C.
Evaluating
- D.
Implementing
Correct Answer
A. PlanningExplanation
Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves developing a comprehensive plan of care based on the assessment findings and nursing diagnoses. It includes setting goals, prioritizing interventions, and creating a roadmap for implementing and evaluating the effectiveness of nursing interventions. Planning ensures that the appropriate interventions are implemented to address the identified nursing diagnoses and achieve optimal patient outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?
- A.
Observable change in patient behavior
- B.
Measurable change in the patient's condition
- C.
Realistic and measurable statement of the end results of care planning
- D.
Realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in the patients behavior
Correct Answer
D. Realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in the patients behaviorExplanation
A client goal in the nursing process refers to a realistic and measurable statement that outlines the expected change in the patient's behavior. It serves as a target or endpoint for the care planning process, providing a clear focus for the nursing interventions and guiding the evaluation of the patient's progress. This goal should be achievable, specific, and measurable, allowing for the assessment of the patient's response to the interventions and the effectiveness of the care provided.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?
- A.
Sedation
- B.
Back massage
- C.
Oxygen Therapy
- D.
Preoperative teaching
Correct Answer
D. Preoperative teachingExplanation
Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, potential risks, and what to expect during recovery, patients can feel more prepared and informed. This can help alleviate anxiety and address any questions or fears they may have, ultimately improving their overall experience and outcome.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?
- A.
Credentials of the surgeon
- B.
Availability of a base chaplain
- C.
Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff
- D.
Number of nurses and technicians on staff
Correct Answer
C. Professionalism and caring attitude of the staffExplanation
The professionalism and caring attitude of the staff have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When the staff members exhibit professionalism, they are more likely to provide accurate and effective care, communicate clearly with the patient, and maintain a high level of competence. Additionally, a caring attitude promotes empathy, compassion, and patient-centered care, which can greatly enhance the patient's experience and overall satisfaction with their healthcare journey.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
Antiembolism stockings are compression stockings that are used to prevent blood clots in the legs. These stockings are typically worn by patients who are bedridden or have limited mobility. It is important to keep the stockings on for as long as possible to ensure their effectiveness. However, without approval from a healthcare provider, the maximum amount of time that the stockings can be removed is 30 minutes. This is to prevent the risk of blood clots forming during the time the stockings are not being worn.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery?
- A.
Reduces the chance of infection
- B.
Prevents contamination of the operating room
- C.
Allows for proper suturing of the incision
- D.
Reduces pain when the surgical dressing is removed
Correct Answer
A. Reduces the chance of infectionExplanation
Prepping the skin prior to surgery is important because it reduces the chance of infection. By thoroughly cleaning and disinfecting the surgical site, the risk of introducing bacteria or other pathogens into the incision area is minimized. This helps to create a sterile environment and promotes a successful surgical outcome.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?
- A.
Isolation is necessary
- B.
No precautions are necessary
- C.
A lead apron is placed over patient
- D.
Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients
Correct Answer
A. Isolation is necessaryExplanation
Isolation is necessary for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant to prevent the spread of radiation to others. Radioisotopes can emit radiation, which can be harmful to individuals who come into close contact with the patient. Therefore, isolating the patient helps to protect others from potential radiation exposure.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient?
- A.
Low
- B.
High
- C.
Fowler's
- D.
Trendelenburg
Correct Answer
B. HighExplanation
The bed is placed in a high position in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient. This is because a high position allows for easier access to the patient and provides better visibility for the healthcare providers. It also helps in facilitating patient transfers and allows for proper positioning during procedures. Placing the bed in a high position ensures that the patient is at a comfortable height for the healthcare team to provide care efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?
- A.
Standing hamstring stretches
- B.
Turn, cough and deep breath
- C.
Diaphragmatic breathing
- D.
Circles with the big toe
Correct Answer
A. Standing hamstring stretchesExplanation
Standing hamstring stretches may not be commonly used for postoperative patients because they involve bending forward at the waist, which can put strain on the surgical site and potentially disrupt the healing process. It is important for postoperative patients to avoid exercises that could cause excessive strain or movement in the affected area. Instead, exercises that promote deep breathing, improve circulation, and maintain range of motion without putting stress on the surgical site are typically recommended.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which form is used to document a patients blood transfusion?
- A.
Standard Form 518
- B.
Standard Form 3066
- C.
AF Form 2019
- D.
AF Form 3066
Correct Answer
A. Standard Form 518Explanation
Standard Form 518 is used to document a patient's blood transfusion.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How is whole blood normally supplied?
- A.
100 cc units
- B.
250 cc units
- C.
450 cc units
- D.
500 cc units
Correct Answer
C. 450 cc unitsExplanation
Young blood always supplied in 450 CCs by Uncle Drew.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?
- A.
20
- B.
30
- C.
60
- D.
90
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products is 30. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure their effectiveness and safety. Transfusing the blood products within this timeframe helps to minimize the risk of bacterial contamination or any other complications that may arise if the products are not administered promptly.Rate this question:
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- 21.
If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?
- A.
Continue to monitor; this is a normal side effect
- B.
Place the patient on his or her left side
- C.
Administer 100 percent oxygen
- D.
Stop the transfusion
Correct Answer
D. Stop the transfusionExplanation
If a patient receiving a blood transfusion exhibits symptoms such as distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential transfusion reaction or fluid overload. Stopping the transfusion is the first and most important step to prevent further complications. By discontinuing the transfusion, the healthcare provider can assess the patient's condition and determine the appropriate course of action. Continuing to monitor the patient without taking immediate action could lead to worsening symptoms and potential harm to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can results in a depressed respiratory system?
- A.
Application of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation(TENS) devices
- B.
Injection of long duration local anesthetic into the incisional area
- C.
Administration of oral analgesics
- D.
Administration of narcotics
Correct Answer
D. Administration of narcoticsExplanation
Don't do drugs kids.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?
- A.
Modified lateral
- B.
Trendelenberg
- C.
Semisitting
- D.
Supine
Correct Answer
C. SemisittingExplanation
The ideal position for a patient before performing oropharyngeal suctioning is the semisitting position. This position allows for better visualization and access to the oropharynx, making suctioning more effective. It also helps prevent aspiration of secretions into the lungs by promoting drainage of secretions away from the airway. The modified lateral position, Trendelenberg, and supine positions are not as suitable for oropharyngeal suctioning as they may not provide optimal access to the oropharynx or drainage of secretions.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as
- A.
Infectious
- B.
Congenital
- C.
Pathologic
- D.
Temporary
Correct Answer
B. CongenitalExplanation
Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. Congenital means that these deformities are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development or formation of a body part. They are not caused by infection, pathology, or temporary factors.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called
- A.
Hairline
- B.
Pathologic
- C.
Congenital
- D.
Traumatic
Correct Answer
B. PathologicExplanation
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when a weakened bone is unable to withstand normal stress and breaks more easily. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells weaken the bone structure, making it more susceptible to fractures. Pathologic fractures are different from traumatic fractures, which occur due to external forces or injuries, and congenital fractures, which are present at birth. Hairline fractures, on the other hand, are small cracks in the bone that do not fully separate the bone fragments.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopaedic disorders because it
- A.
Causes a drop foot
- B.
Causes venous stasis
- C.
Causes external hip rotation
- D.
Promotes flexion deformities of the hips
Correct Answer
D. Promotes flexion deformities of the hipsExplanation
The semi-recumbent position can promote flexion deformities of the hips in patients with orthopaedic disorders. This position involves sitting with the knees bent and the hips flexed, which can lead to tightening of the hip flexor muscles and weakening of the hip extensor muscles. Over time, this can result in a loss of range of motion and flexibility in the hip joints, leading to a flexion deformity where the hips are permanently bent. This can further exacerbate orthopaedic issues and cause discomfort and mobility limitations for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?
- A.
Crepitus
- B.
Vibration
- C.
Resonance
- D.
Intonation
Correct Answer
A. CrepitusExplanation
Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound can occur due to various reasons such as arthritis, fractures, or joint injuries. It is often described as a crackling or grinding noise and can be accompanied by pain or discomfort. Crepitus is commonly heard in conditions like osteoarthritis, where the cartilage between bones wears down, causing the bones to rub against each other.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Pin care is required with what type of reduction of the bone?
- A.
Closed reduction, external fixation
- B.
Closed reduction, internal fixation
- C.
Open reduction, external fixation
- D.
Open reduction, internal fixation
Correct Answer
C. Open reduction, external fixationExplanation
Pin care is required with open reduction, external fixation because in this type of reduction, the bone is surgically realigned and held in place with external pins or wires. These pins or wires protrude through the skin, creating an open wound. Proper care of these pins is essential to prevent infection and promote healing.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What actions, if any , should you take if your patient complains that his or her short leg cast feels tight?
- A.
None, it is normal for a cast to feel tight
- B.
Remove the cast
- C.
Bivalve the cast
- D.
Petal the cast
Correct Answer
C. Bivalve the castExplanation
If a patient complains that their short leg cast feels tight, the appropriate action to take is to bivalve the cast. Bivalving involves cutting the cast along its length to create two halves, allowing for expansion and relieving pressure on the patient's limb. This can help alleviate discomfort and prevent any potential complications that may arise from a tight cast, such as restricted blood flow or nerve damage. Removing the cast entirely may not be necessary or practical, as the patient may still require immobilization. Petaling the cast involves creating small cuts or openings at the edges of the cast to relieve pressure, but bivalving is a more effective solution in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The cramping, burning or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as
- A.
Phantom limb pain
- B.
Phantom limb sensation
- C.
Physiological phenomena
- D.
Psychological phenomena
Correct Answer
A. pHantom limb painExplanation
Phantom limb pain is the correct answer because it refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This pain is perceived as if it is coming from the amputated limb, even though it no longer exists. This phenomenon is a well-documented and recognized condition that affects many amputees, and it is distinct from phantom limb sensation, which refers to the perception of still having the missing limb without any pain. It is also different from physiological and psychological phenomena, which are more general terms that do not specifically describe the pain experienced by amputees.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
- A.
Nasogastric(NG) Tube
- B.
Tourniquet
- C.
Oxygen
- D.
Suction
Correct Answer
B. TourniquetExplanation
A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb to control bleeding and prevent excessive blood loss. It is used to apply pressure to the limb, compressing the blood vessels and stopping the flow of blood. This helps in minimizing the risk of hemorrhage and maintaining hemostasis.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause
- A.
Aspiration
- B.
Cardiac arrest
- C.
Disorientation
- D.
Respiratory arrest
Correct Answer
B. Cardiac arrestExplanation
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because rapid movement or rotation of the body can lead to a sudden decrease in blood pressure, which can result in inadequate blood flow to the heart. This can disrupt the heart's normal rhythm and lead to cardiac arrest, where the heart stops pumping blood effectively. It is important to handle patients with spinal cord injuries carefully and avoid sudden movements to prevent such complications.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
- A.
A lifelong process
- B.
Of no use because they do no fully recover
- C.
Continued for six months after the injury occured
- D.
Continued for up to two years after the final surgery
Correct Answer
A. A lifelong processExplanation
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a lifelong process because they do not fully recover. Spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and loss of function, requiring ongoing therapy and support to manage the physical, emotional, and practical challenges associated with the injury. The goal of rehabilitation is to maximize the individual's independence and quality of life, adapting to their specific needs and abilities over time. Therefore, lifelong rehabilitation is necessary to optimize the patient's overall well-being and functional abilities.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The side of the body that is affected by stroke is determined by the
- A.
Dominant right or left side
- B.
Side of the body that is weaker
- C.
Side of the brain that was traumatized
- D.
Position the patient was in when the stroke occured
Correct Answer
C. Side of the brain that was traumatizedExplanation
The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the side of the brain that was traumatized. When a stroke occurs, it is usually caused by a blockage or rupture of blood vessels in the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to certain areas. Depending on which side of the brain is affected, the opposite side of the body may experience weakness or paralysis. This is because the brain controls the movement and sensation of the opposite side of the body. Therefore, the side of the brain that was traumatized is the determining factor in which side of the body is affected by a stroke.Rate this question:
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- 35.
During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?
- A.
Early infancy
- B.
Preschool
- C.
School age
- D.
Adolescence
Correct Answer
B. PreschoolExplanation
During the preschool stage, children typically experience separation anxiety as they begin to develop a sense of independence and autonomy. This stage, usually between the ages of 3 and 5, is a time when children are starting to separate from their primary caregivers and venture into new environments such as preschool or daycare. The unfamiliarity and uncertainty of these new settings can cause significant stress and anxiety for young children, leading to separation anxiety. Therefore, the preschool stage is considered the most stressful period for separation anxiety.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is
- A.
Fantasy
- B.
Projection
- C.
Regression
- D.
Displacement
Correct Answer
C. RegressionExplanation
Regression is the correct answer because it refers to the psychological process where individuals revert back to earlier, more childlike behaviors and thought patterns in order to cope with feelings of loss of control. When children experience a loss of control, they may exhibit behaviors that they have outgrown, such as bed-wetting or temper tantrums. This regression allows them to temporarily escape from the stress and anxiety caused by the loss of control and regain a sense of security and comfort.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
- A.
Hypernatremia
- B.
Hyperkalemia
- C.
Dehydration
- D.
Aspiration
Correct Answer
C. DehydrationExplanation
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, dehydration would be a primary concern. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children. Dehydration can be dangerous and can lead to various complications, such as electrolyte imbalances, decreased urine output, and low blood pressure. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the child's fluid intake and provide appropriate rehydration measures to prevent dehydration.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?
- A.
Physician needs to suture the child's face
- B.
Child continues to climb out of bed in the night
- C.
Prevent the child from falling out of a high chair
- D.
You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
Correct Answer
D. You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the childExplanation
The reason "You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it prioritizes the caregiver's convenience over the child's safety and well-being. It is important to ensure the child's safety and provide appropriate supervision, especially in situations where there is a risk of injury or harm. Neglecting to provide proper supervision can lead to accidents or incidents that could have been prevented.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using
- A.
Alcohol
- B.
Lotion
- C.
Lanolin
- D.
Antiseptic soap
Correct Answer
A. AlcoholExplanation
Alcohol can be drying and irritating to the skin, especially for elderly individuals who may already have dry or sensitive skin. It can strip the skin of its natural oils and cause further dryness and discomfort. Therefore, it is important to avoid using alcohol-based products when providing skin care for the elderly.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?
- A.
Explain the importance of nutrition
- B.
Ask the patient to try new foods
- C.
Cater to the patient's customs
- D.
Bring a tray full of choices
Correct Answer
C. Cater to the patient's customsExplanation
Option D not that bad.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which is a sign of uremia?
- A.
Oliguria
- B.
Hematuria
- C.
Polyuria
- D.
Dysuria
Correct Answer
A. OliguriaExplanation
Oliguria is a sign of uremia because it refers to a decreased production of urine. Uremia is a condition characterized by the buildup of waste products in the blood due to impaired kidney function. When the kidneys are not able to properly filter waste from the blood, urine production decreases, leading to oliguria. This can be a result of various underlying causes such as kidney disease, dehydration, or urinary tract obstruction. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, polyuria refers to excessive urine production, and dysuria refers to painful urination, which are not specific signs of uremia.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The first stage of dying is
- A.
Bargaining
- B.
Depression
- C.
Anger
- D.
Denial
Correct Answer
D. DenialExplanation
The first stage of dying is denial. Denial is a common psychological defense mechanism that individuals use to cope with overwhelming or distressing situations. In the context of dying, denial allows individuals to temporarily avoid the reality of their impending death. It is a way for them to protect themselves from the emotional pain and fear associated with the idea of dying. Denial can manifest as a refusal to accept the diagnosis or a belief that the situation will improve. It is an initial stage that individuals may go through before eventually moving on to other stages of grief and acceptance.Rate this question:
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- 43.
All that a person is, feels and odes is generally termed
- A.
Environment
- B.
Personality
- C.
Character
- D.
Heredity
Correct Answer
B. PersonalityExplanation
Personality refers to the unique combination of traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses a person's emotions, attitudes, and overall demeanor. While environment, character, and heredity can all influence personality to some extent, personality itself is a broader concept that encompasses all aspects of an individual's identity and how they interact with the world around them.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?
- A.
Socioeconomic status
- B.
Opinions of others
- C.
Self-perception
- D.
Job title
Correct Answer
C. Self-perceptionExplanation
An individual's feeling about themselves is influenced by their self-perception. Self-perception refers to how individuals perceive and evaluate themselves, including their beliefs, attitudes, and self-worth. It is the way individuals see themselves, which can impact their self-esteem, confidence, and overall sense of identity. Factors such as personal achievements, experiences, and self-reflection contribute to one's self-perception. Unlike socioeconomic status, opinions of others, or job title, self-perception is an internal factor that plays a significant role in shaping an individual's self-image and emotional well-being.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
- A.
Compulsion
- B.
Delusion
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Conflict
Correct Answer
A. CompulsionExplanation
This is an example of compulsion. Starting to loose my mind powering through the creation of this reviewer.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas and physical over activity?
- A.
Neurosis
- B.
Mania
- C.
Obsession
- D.
Psychosis
Correct Answer
B. ManiaExplanation
Mania is the correct answer because it is a psychiatric term that defines a mood disorder characterized by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity. Neurosis refers to a milder form of mental disorder, obsession refers to persistent and intrusive thoughts, and psychosis refers to a severe mental disorder characterized by a loss of contact with reality.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be
- A.
Excited
- B.
Consistent
- C.
Demanding
- D.
Unsympathetic
Correct Answer
B. ConsistentExplanation
When a patient is anxious, it is important for healthcare professionals to maintain a consistent behavior or approach. Consistency helps to establish trust and provides a sense of stability for the patient. By being consistent in their actions and communication, healthcare professionals can help to alleviate the patient's anxiety and create a calm and reassuring environment. This approach also ensures that the patient receives the same level of care and attention regardless of their anxiety levels.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior and hurt displays a behavior of
- A.
Withdrawal
- B.
Suspicion
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Anger
Correct Answer
A. WithdrawalExplanation
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt may display a behavior of withdrawal. This means that the person may isolate themselves from others, avoid social interactions, and may not actively participate in activities or conversations. They may feel the need to withdraw from others because they believe that they are not valued or loved, which can lead to feelings of loneliness and sadness.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?
- A.
During pre-admission
- B.
Within 12 hours of admission
- C.
Within 24 hours of admission
- D.
As soon as the patient is admitted
Correct Answer
D. As soon as the patient is admittedExplanation
The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial for the success of the treatment. Starting the rehabilitation process immediately allows for the implementation of appropriate therapies and interventions to address the patient's mental health needs. Delaying the rehabilitation process could result in a worsening of symptoms and hinder the patient's progress towards recovery. Therefore, initiating rehabilitation as soon as the patient is admitted ensures that they receive the necessary support and care from the beginning of their treatment journey.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is the primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient?
- A.
Strengthening the patient's defenses
- B.
Group therapy to prevent relapse
- C.
Prevention of regression
- D.
Social actions follow-up
Correct Answer
A. Strengthening the patient's defensesExplanation
The primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient is to strengthen their defenses. This refers to helping the patient develop coping mechanisms and strategies to deal with their mental illness. By strengthening their defenses, the patient becomes better equipped to handle the challenges and stressors that may arise as a result of their condition. This can include building resilience, improving self-esteem, and enhancing problem-solving skills. By focusing on strengthening the patient's defenses, the rehabilitation process aims to empower the patient and improve their overall well-being.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 14, 2017Quiz Created by
Frskn.prado
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