CDC Vol 1 Z3p071

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Alixcline
A
Alixcline
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 229
| Attempts: 229 | Questions: 90
Please wait...
Question 1 / 90
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. (002) After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?

Explanation

After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left-facing movement.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
CDC Vol 1 Z3p071 - Quiz

NEWEST CDC URE's Vol 1

Tell us your name to personalize your report, certificate & get on the leaderboard!
2. (001) Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?

Explanation

A Senior Airman (SrA) is responsible for leading a squad, so being a Squad Leader is indeed a duty of a Senior Airman. Patrol Leader, Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller, and Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT) Leader are also duties that a Senior Airman may be assigned to. Therefore, the correct answer is Squad Leader.

Submit
3. (006) Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security?

Explanation

PL4 is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security. PL4, also known as "High Security," indicates that the highest level of protection is required. In this case, the owner/users take full responsibility for implementing and maintaining security measures in the controlled areas. This may include advanced security systems, strict access controls, and regular monitoring to ensure the safety and integrity of the area.

Submit
4. (005) Where does the installations' labor relations specialist work?

Explanation

The installations' labor relations specialist works in the Civilian Personnel Office.

Submit
5. (005) All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except

Explanation

This question is asking for the exception to being included in a bargaining unit. A bargaining unit typically includes employees who have similar job roles and interests for the purpose of collective bargaining. Supervisors, management officials, and professional employees are often excluded from being part of a bargaining unit because they have different responsibilities and may have conflicting interests. However, employees in non-dedicated positions are not explicitly mentioned as being excluded, so they would not be an exception to being in a bargaining unit.

Submit
6. (001) Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the

Explanation

The correct answer is "Post priority listing". A post priority listing is a document that determines the order in which posts or patrols should be manned based on their importance or urgency. It helps to allocate personnel resources effectively and ensure that critical areas are adequately covered. The duty roster, unit Manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may also be used for scheduling and assigning personnel, but they do not specifically prioritize posts based on their importance.

Submit
7. (009) What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?

Explanation

Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because the destruction or alteration of evidence can lead to the loss of important information that could have been used to accurately analyze the scene and determine what occurred. Without all the evidence intact, the investigator may make incorrect assumptions or miss crucial details, potentially leading to an inaccurate understanding of the crime and the identification of the perpetrator.

Submit
8. (009) Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?

Explanation

Having a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it allows for fresh eyes to examine the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This helps to ensure that all potential evidence is properly identified and collected, without any preconceived notions or influences. By having someone with a neutral perspective conduct the search, it reduces the risk of contaminating the scene or violating the chain of evidence requirements.

Submit
9. (008) What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?

Explanation

The attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute are determined by the responding patrol's attitude. The way the patrol handles the situation, their approach, and their demeanor can greatly influence the behavior and cooperation of the individuals involved in the dispute. A patrol officer with a calm and respectful attitude is more likely to de-escalate the situation and encourage cooperation from all parties. On the other hand, an aggressive or confrontational attitude can escalate tensions and hinder cooperation. Therefore, the responding patrol's attitude plays a crucial role in determining the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute.

Submit
10. (003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

Explanation

Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. Feedback allows commanders to assess the impact of their strategies, identify areas for improvement, and make necessary adjustments to achieve their objectives. It helps them understand the perspectives and concerns of their subordinates, enabling them to build stronger relationships and enhance teamwork. Additionally, feedback helps commanders to learn from their mistakes and successes, ultimately leading to better decision-making and overall performance.

Submit
11. (011) What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?

Explanation

The correct answer is "There is no time limit." This means that there is no specific duration set for suspect interviews. The absence of a time limit allows investigators to conduct thorough and comprehensive interviews, giving them the flexibility to gather all necessary information and evidence. It also ensures that suspects are not rushed or coerced into providing a confession, promoting a fair and unbiased investigation process.

Submit
12. (004) When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?

Explanation

Dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This placement allows the dogs to effectively detect and deter any unauthorized individuals from entering the area. By strategically positioning the dogs in these locations, they can act as a barrier and provide maximum usage in preventing unauthorized access.

Submit
13. (001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?

Explanation

Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows for a change in job roles and responsibilities, preventing monotony and burnout. This can help to keep the team engaged and motivated, as they have the opportunity to learn new skills and gain different experiences. Additionally, post rotations can foster a sense of fairness and equal opportunity among team members, as everyone gets a chance to take on different roles within the flight.

Submit
14. (013) Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?

Explanation

Arranging and reviewing original notes aids in recalling all the details of the case prior to the trial. This involves organizing and going through the written records and evidence collected during the investigation. By reviewing these original notes, the person involved can refresh their memory and ensure that they have a comprehensive understanding of the case, including all the relevant details and evidence. It helps them to be well-prepared and have a clear recollection of the events when presenting the case in court.

Submit
15. (001) Post priority charts are used to

Explanation

Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that these charts are used to determine the distribution of personnel resources in order to effectively manage and assign tasks and responsibilities. By using post priority charts, organizations can ensure that the right amount of manpower is allocated to different posts or positions based on their importance and priority. This helps in optimizing productivity, efficiency, and overall operational effectiveness.

Submit
16. (006) Which is not a designated PL1 resource?

Explanation

The question asks for a resource that is not designated as a PL1 resource. PL1 resources refer to resources that are considered critical to national security and require protection. Nuclear weapons, SENEX aircraft, and C4 systems are all examples of PL1 resources as they are crucial for national defense and communication. On the other hand, aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States is not considered a PL1 resource as it does not have a direct impact on national security or defense.

Submit
17. (002) The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is

Explanation

After the flight falls in for inspection, the next command given would be "Report". This command is given to instruct the members of the flight to report their presence and readiness to the person in charge of the inspection. It is a standard military protocol to ensure that all members are accounted for and prepared for the inspection process.

Submit
18. (001) What is the most rigorous stage of development?

Explanation

The most rigorous stage of development is at the level of Amn and A1C because this is the beginning stage of a person's military career. During this stage, individuals are expected to learn and adapt to the military environment, undergo basic training, and develop the necessary skills and discipline required for their future roles. It is a period of intense physical and mental training, where individuals are pushed to their limits to ensure they are prepared for the challenges ahead.

Submit
19. (002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?

Explanation

The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that each individual within the flight is responsible for ensuring that the equipment is properly maintained and functioning correctly. This includes regular inspections, cleaning, and reporting any issues or malfunctions to the appropriate personnel. By holding each flight member accountable for equipment maintenance, it helps to ensure that the equipment is kept in good working order and ready for use when needed.

Submit
20. (001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?

Explanation

The defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not someone needs to be present at a particular post or if it can be left unattended. This decision is crucial for the overall security and functioning of the defense force, as it ensures that resources are allocated efficiently and effectively. The defense force commander's role is to make strategic decisions regarding the deployment and management of personnel, and this includes determining which posts can be unmanned.

Submit
21. (001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?

Explanation

When a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This step is crucial as it helps identify the underlying issues or reasons behind the substandard performance. By conducting an investigation, the supervisor can gather relevant information, assess the situation, and make informed decisions on how to address the problem effectively. This approach allows for a fair and comprehensive understanding of the situation, enabling the supervisor to take appropriate actions to improve the subordinate's performance.

Submit
22. (001) When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain

Explanation

Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified in helps to maintain proficiency. This practice ensures that individuals gain experience and knowledge in different roles, allowing them to develop a well-rounded skill set. By regularly rotating personnel, organizations can prevent skill gaps and ensure that all team members are competent and capable in their respective positions. This promotes efficiency, adaptability, and a higher level of performance overall.

Submit
23. (009) What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?

Explanation

Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because it ensures that no evidence is tampered with or contaminated, which is crucial for an accurate investigation. By preserving the scene, the investigator can gather all the necessary information and clues to piece together what happened and potentially identify the perpetrator. It also helps in maintaining the integrity of the evidence and ensuring a fair trial.

Submit
24. (008) Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?

Explanation

A bloody nose is not considered grievous bodily harm because it is a relatively minor injury compared to the others listed. Deep cuts, fractured bones, and damaged internal organs are all more severe injuries that can cause significant harm and have long-lasting effects on a person's health and well-being. A bloody nose, on the other hand, is a common injury that usually does not result in serious complications or long-term consequences.

Submit
25. (008) Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?

Explanation

Rape is considered one of the most serious crimes that will be investigated, excluding homicide. It is a violent act that involves non-consensual sexual intercourse or penetration, causing severe physical and psychological harm to the victim. The gravity of this crime is reflected in the legal system, where perpetrators can face significant penalties, including imprisonment. The investigation of rape cases is crucial to ensure justice for the victims and to prevent further harm to society.

Submit
26. (001) How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?

Explanation

There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.

Submit
27. (010) Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming?

Explanation

The recovery phase is the most complex and time-consuming major accident response phase because it involves the restoration of normal operations and the recovery of affected areas. This phase includes activities such as assessing the damage, developing a recovery plan, coordinating resources, and implementing measures to restore the affected area to its pre-incident state. It requires careful coordination and collaboration among various stakeholders, including emergency responders, government agencies, and the affected community. The recovery phase may involve extensive cleanup, repairs, and rebuilding efforts, which can take a significant amount of time and resources to complete.

Submit
28. (003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to

Explanation

The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This evaluation ensures that individuals are competent and capable of fulfilling the requirements of their assigned positions. It helps in identifying the skills, knowledge, and abilities of individuals and ensures that they are appropriately qualified for their roles. This process also helps in maintaining the highest standards of performance and professionalism within the organization.

Submit
29. (010) Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation?

Explanation

In a school violence situation, the responsibility for information flow lies with the Public Affairs department. Public Affairs is responsible for managing communication and disseminating information to the public, media, and other stakeholders. They ensure that accurate and timely information is provided to keep everyone informed and address any concerns or rumors. The Public Affairs team works closely with school administrators, law enforcement, and other relevant parties to coordinate messaging and provide updates during such critical incidents.

Submit
30. (011) When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?

Explanation

If a parent cannot be found or they cannot respond in a timely manner when questioning a juvenile, seeking Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice is the appropriate action to take. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on the proper procedures and protocols to follow when dealing with juveniles. They can ensure that the questioning is done in a legal and ethical manner, protecting the rights of the juvenile. Seeking their advice helps to ensure that the juvenile's best interests are taken into account and that the questioning is conducted within the bounds of the law.

Submit
31. (004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to

Explanation

The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the MWD is responsible for preventing unauthorized individuals from entering and causing harm to Air Force facilities. They are trained to intimidate and discourage potential intruders, identify and locate them through their sense of smell and hearing, and physically apprehend them if necessary. This mission helps to ensure the security and protection of Air Force resources.

Submit
32. (011) An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

Explanation

An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a habitual offender. This term is used to describe someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without remorse or guilt. They have a pattern of committing crimes and may have a high recidivism rate. Unlike a first-time offender who may feel remorse or guilt after committing a crime, a habitual offender lacks the moral compass or empathy to recognize the wrongfulness of their actions. A psychotic offender refers to someone with a severe mental illness, while a professional offender typically refers to someone who commits crimes as a means of livelihood.

Submit
33. (012) The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension

Explanation

The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension in a private dwelling. This means that when someone is being apprehended or arrested by the Air Force, this form is used specifically for situations that occur in a private residence or dwelling. It is not used for apprehensions that happen during an interview, off the installation, or in a work center.

Submit
34. (004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous

Explanation

A patrol dog team used in police services activities can be a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a trained dog can create fear and uncertainty in the minds of individuals who may be considering criminal activities. The perception of the dog's abilities and the potential consequences of engaging in illegal behavior can discourage potential violators from committing crimes. The psychological impact of the dog's presence and the fear it can instill in individuals can act as a deterrent to criminal activity.

Submit
35. (001) As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates?

Explanation

As a supervisor, it is important to instill a strong work ethic in each of your subordinates. Work ethic refers to the set of values and principles that guide an individual's attitude and approach towards their work. By instilling a strong work ethic, supervisors can ensure that their subordinates are committed, dedicated, and motivated to perform their tasks to the best of their abilities. This includes traits such as reliability, professionalism, accountability, and a willingness to go above and beyond. A strong work ethic not only contributes to the overall productivity and success of the team, but also helps in fostering a positive work culture.

Submit
36. (002) When do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH!"?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Upon departure of the inspecting official." This is because the command "Close Ranks, MARCH!" is given when the inspecting official is leaving, indicating that the guard or unit should close ranks and continue marching. This command is used to signal the end of the inspection and the resumption of normal marching.

Submit
37. (001) Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certain locations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Flight Sergeant. Flight Sergeant is a duty available in certain locations for Staff Sergeants (SSgt) or Technical Sergeants (TSgt). This duty involves supervising and leading a flight within the military organization.

Submit
38. (001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in

Explanation

The post priority chart is a tool used to allocate limited Security Forces (SF) resources in an efficient manner. It helps determine the level of force protection required based on the current FPCON (Force Protection Condition) level. Since FPCONs can be applicable in both peacetime and wartime scenarios, the post priority chart is used in both situations to ensure the most effective use of SF resources.

Submit
39. (002) What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else's writing?

Explanation

The Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33-337 is the correct publication that will assist in becoming a good communicator and provide tools to review and assess someone else's writing. This handbook is specifically designed to improve communication skills and provides guidance on effective writing techniques. It offers tips, examples, and strategies for clear and concise writing, which are essential for effective communication in the Air Force.

Submit
40. (001) What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?

Explanation

The correct answer is SMSgt. SMSgt, or Senior Master Sergeant, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership. This rank is typically achieved after years of experience and demonstrates a high level of expertise and responsibility. SMSgts are often involved in decision-making processes and provide guidance and direction to lower-ranking personnel. They play a crucial role in the overall force development and leadership at the operational or strategic level.

Submit
41. (002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is

Explanation

When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one of the concerns is that it may contain irrelevant information. Irrelevant information refers to content that is not necessary or related to the topic at hand. This can make the material confusing, time-consuming, and less effective in conveying the intended message. Therefore, it is important to identify and remove any irrelevant information to ensure the accuracy and clarity of the material.

Submit
42. (002) The primary function of reviewing is to ensure

Explanation

The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and that the communication gets the point across.

Submit
43. (007) When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the

Explanation

When making room entry, it is important to keep your weapons oriented towards the unknown. This means that you should be prepared for any potential threat that may be present inside the room. By keeping your weapons oriented towards the unknown, you are ready to react quickly and effectively to any danger that may arise. This approach ensures that you are prepared to handle any situation and maintain your safety and the safety of others.

Submit
44. (001) Supervisors must ensure their troops

Explanation

The correct answer is "possess required qualifications and certifications." This answer is supported by the fact that supervisors have a responsibility to ensure that their troops have the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles. This is important for maintaining the effectiveness and safety of the troops in their duties.

Submit
45. (004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is

Explanation

Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that when faced with a situation where the use of firearms is necessary or when there is a risk of the suspect escaping, patrol dogs are used as a less lethal option. They can be deployed to apprehend and subdue the suspect without resorting to gunfire, reducing the risk of injury or fatality. Additionally, patrol dogs can be effective in preventing suspects from escaping, providing a valuable tool for law enforcement in situations where a quick and safe resolution is required.

Submit
46. (013) Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential when testifying?

Explanation

The personal attributes that are essential when testifying include skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence. These attributes are necessary to effectively communicate and present information during testimony. Skill refers to the ability to effectively convey information and answer questions. Tact is important in maintaining professionalism and sensitivity while providing testimony. Poise is necessary to remain composed and confident while under pressure. Self-confidence is essential for conveying credibility and conviction in one's testimony.

Submit
47. (005) Which radio type can talk over great distances?

Explanation

A mobile two-way radio is the correct answer because it is designed to communicate over long distances. Unlike a base station or base station remote, which are stationary and have limited range, a mobile two-way radio can be used while on the move, allowing for communication over greater distances. Portable radios, while convenient, typically have shorter range compared to mobile radios. Therefore, a mobile two-way radio is the best option for talking over great distances.

Submit
48. (005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to

Explanation

The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the President's Budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the Financial Plan submission aims to allocate the budget in a fair and balanced manner across different areas and departments, ensuring that each receives an appropriate share of funding to meet their requirements. This helps to prevent any bias or favoritism in the distribution of funds and promotes transparency and accountability in the budgeting process.

Submit
49. (006) Which of the following is not an alarm response code?

Explanation

The given options list different codes, and the question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code. Among the options, Code 4 is the only one that is not an alarm response code.

Submit
50. (002) After the command "Open rank, MARCH," which of the following action does the flight take?

Explanation

After the command "Open rank, MARCH," the flight takes the following action: The last element stands still and automatically performs the dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each element in front of the last element takes one, two, or three steps forward, stops, and automatically performs the dress right dress.

Submit
51. (007) Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front?

Explanation

A three-person team movement allows for more coverage to the front because it involves three individuals positioned in a way that covers a wider area. With three people, they can spread out and provide better visibility and protection compared to a two-person team movement or a four-person team movement. The Y-formation, although not specified in the question, is a common formation used by three-person teams to maximize coverage to the front.

Submit
52. (002) A post check generally includes all of these items except

Explanation

A post check is a comprehensive assessment conducted after a mission or operation. It involves inspecting various aspects to ensure everything is in order. Area inspection refers to examining the surroundings for any potential hazards or damage. Facility inspection involves assessing the condition and functionality of the facilities used during the mission. Classified material inspection is conducted to ensure the proper handling and storage of sensitive information. However, weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check as it falls under a separate process of inspecting and maintaining weapons.

Submit
53. (005) Which statue protects an alleged violation of a right?

Explanation

The Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statue (5 U.S.C. Chapter 71) protects an alleged violation of a right.

Submit
54. (001) Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?

Explanation

The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority to make decisions regarding the scheduling and coordination of flights. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to assess the operational requirements, availability of resources, and the capabilities of the unit. By taking into account various factors such as training requirements, mission objectives, and personnel availability, the squadron commander can effectively plan and organize the unit's flight schedule.

Submit
55. (008) What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program?

Explanation

The Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program aims to mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim, ensure that victims are accorded certain rights, and foster the cooperation of victims and witnesses. However, prosecuting the accused is not considered an objective of the VWAP program. The program focuses on supporting and assisting victims and witnesses rather than actively prosecuting the accused.

Submit
56. (001) Which commander exercises operational control?

Explanation

A Joint Force Commander exercises operational control. Operational control refers to the authority to plan, coordinate, and direct military operations. The Joint Force Commander is responsible for overseeing the activities of multiple branches of the military and coordinating their efforts towards a common objective. This position is typically held by a high-ranking officer who has the authority to make strategic decisions and allocate resources as needed.

Submit
57. (007) Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun?

Explanation

When using a shotgun for entry, the center mass of the door is not considered a target point. The hinges, door knob, and locking mechanism are all potential target points that can be targeted to disable the door and gain entry. However, aiming at the center mass of the door would not be effective in achieving this goal.

Submit
58. (001) All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the

Explanation

The correct answer is the Installation commander. While all of the other commanders listed (MAJCOM commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and Combatant commander) have the authority to authorize personnel to bear firearms in foreign countries for non-routine law enforcement and security duties, the Installation commander does not have this authority. The Installation commander is responsible for the day-to-day operations and security of a specific military installation, but does not have the jurisdiction or authority to authorize personnel to bear firearms in foreign countries.

Submit
59. (003) Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

Explanation

The Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. They are tasked with developing and implementing training programs for security forces personnel in the Air Force. This includes training in areas such as law enforcement, physical security, and combat tactics. The Security Forces Center plays a crucial role in ensuring that security forces personnel are properly trained and prepared to carry out their duties effectively and safely.

Submit
60. (009) Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to

Explanation

During the preliminary investigation, it is important to observe and record information. This involves carefully observing the scene, taking note of any relevant details, and recording them accurately. By observing and recording, investigators can gather important evidence and information that can be used later in the investigation. This step is crucial in ensuring that no crucial details are missed and that an accurate record of the scene is created.

Submit
61. (010) What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?

Explanation

The hot zone is the zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site that is also referred to as a restricted zone. This zone is the area closest to the incident site where the highest level of contamination and potential danger exists. It is typically reserved for emergency responders and specialized personnel who are equipped with the necessary protective gear and training to handle the hazardous materials present. The hot zone is strictly regulated and access is restricted to minimize the risk of further contamination and ensure the safety of individuals in the area.

Submit
62. (005) "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked" means that they

Explanation

The statement "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked" implies that the vehicles must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This is because these features are essential for security forces vehicles to effectively communicate and respond to emergencies. The other options mentioned, such as SF badges, flood lights, mobile radios, and a cage for military working dogs, are not explicitly mentioned in the statement and therefore cannot be inferred as requirements for proper marking.

Submit
63. (005) When are manpower numbers reviewed?

Explanation

Manpower numbers are reviewed on an annual basis. This means that the review of the number of personnel in a company or organization takes place once every year. This allows for an evaluation of the current workforce and any changes that may be necessary, such as hiring or downsizing, to meet the company's needs. Monthly, quarterly, and bi-annual reviews are not as appropriate for assessing long-term workforce planning and adjustments.

Submit
64. (005) Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?

Explanation

The unit manning document is a record that tracks the personnel assigned to a specific unit. It includes information such as work center, position number, and Air Force specialty code. The "Report No Later than Date" is not a personnel-specific information and is not typically tracked on the unit manning document.

Submit
65. (007) The T-formation is best suited for what environment?

Explanation

The T-formation is best suited for wider hallways because it allows for better visibility and control over the area. In wider hallways, there is more space to position team members strategically, with some members covering each hallway and others positioned at the intersection. This formation provides a clear line of sight and allows for effective communication and coordination among team members. In narrow hallways, the T-formation may not be as effective as it can limit movement and obstruct visibility, while in stairwells or intersecting hallways, different formations may be more suitable to cover multiple directions.

Submit
66. (001) Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm?

Explanation

The Commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This implies that the Commander has the authority and decision-making power to suspend or revoke someone's firearm privileges in certain situations. The other options, such as Supervisor, Servicing Armory, and Security Forces Manager, do not hold the same level of authority as the Commander in this context.

Submit
67. (003) Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?

Explanation

Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs) are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They have the knowledge and experience to assess the training needs of their subordinates and ensure that they receive the necessary training and education to excel in their roles. As leaders within the Security Forces career field, they play a crucial role in developing and maintaining the technical proficiency of their personnel.

Submit
68. (010) During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported?

Explanation

During the notification phase of a major accident response, the estimated number of casualties is reported. This phase involves alerting the appropriate authorities and emergency services about the accident, including providing initial information such as the estimated number of casualties. It is an important step in initiating a coordinated response to the accident and ensuring that the necessary resources and support are mobilized promptly.

Submit
69. (010) Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) requests help through the

Explanation

Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) requests help through the United States Army. This is because the United States Army has the necessary resources and capabilities to provide immediate assistance in disaster response and recovery efforts. The Army can deploy personnel, equipment, and logistical support to affected areas, ensuring the efficient and effective delivery of emergency aid to those in need. The Department of State, Department of Defense, and Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) may have their own roles in emergency situations, but in this case, the United States Army is the appropriate choice for FEMA's request for assistance.

Submit
70. (011) Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to questioning?

Explanation

Income is of no value prior to questioning because it does not provide any relevant information about the suspect's involvement in the situation under investigation. Nationality, race, and age could potentially be relevant factors in certain cases, such as hate crimes or profiling, but income does not directly impact the investigation process.

Submit
71. (001) What drives a post priority chart?

Explanation

The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment drives a post priority chart. This assessment helps in identifying and prioritizing potential risks and threats to the defense system. It provides a systematic approach to risk management by evaluating vulnerabilities and determining the necessary actions to mitigate them. The post priority chart is a tool that is used to allocate resources and prioritize actions based on the results of the IDRMP assessment.

Submit
72. (007) How many team configurations are there for use in a tactical situation?

Explanation

There are three team configurations for use in a tactical situation. This suggests that there are three different ways in which a team can be organized or structured to effectively handle a tactical situation.

Submit
73. (001) What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?

Explanation

Tactical control refers to the authority and responsibility for directing and coordinating the use of assigned or attached forces in combat operations or tactical maneuvers. It involves making decisions and giving orders in real-time to achieve specific objectives on the battlefield. This type of control focuses on the immediate and short-term actions of forces and is typically exercised by commanders at the operational or tactical level. Strategic control, on the other hand, deals with long-term planning and decision-making, while operational control involves the direction and coordination of military operations. Administrative control relates to the management and support functions of military organizations.

Submit
74. (002) When does the second element leader give the command, "Second Element, ATTENTION"?

Explanation

The second element leader gives the command "Second Element, ATTENTION" as the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation. This indicates that the second element should come to attention and be prepared for inspection.

Submit
75. (007) When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to the next bend or landing?

Explanation

In order to secure a closed stairwell, the person who pulls long security to the next bend or landing is person #2.

Submit
76. (010) During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation commander reassess the situation?

Explanation

During the sustained emergency phase of a natural disaster, the installation commander should reassess the situation. This phase occurs after the initial emergency phase and is characterized by an ongoing emergency situation that requires continued response and management. Reassessing the situation during this phase is crucial as it allows the commander to evaluate the effectiveness of the initial response, identify any changes or developments in the disaster, and make necessary adjustments to ensure the safety and well-being of personnel and resources.

Submit
77. (012) To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander must coordinate with the

Explanation

The correct answer is Major command (MAJCOM) Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). The installation commander needs to coordinate with the MAJCOM SJA in order to authorize the use of off base patrols overseas. This is because the MAJCOM SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the installation commander, and they have the authority to authorize such actions. The Defense Force Commander and host nation may have their own roles and responsibilities, but they are not directly involved in authorizing off base patrols.

Submit
78. (010) Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site?

Explanation

The Disaster Control Group assumes overall command and control at a major accident site. They are responsible for coordinating and managing the response to the incident, ensuring the safety of personnel, and making critical decisions to mitigate the situation. The Installation Commander may have authority over the site but may not be directly involved in the day-to-day operations. The Incident Commander is responsible for managing the incident on-site, while the Fire Chief typically oversees firefighting operations.

Submit
79. (005) All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel,MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the

Explanation

The correct answer is Integrated Base Defense Council. The question is asking about the arming rules that will be followed, and the answer is the Integrated Base Defense Council. This council is responsible for establishing and implementing the arming rules in accordance with AFI 31-117, MAJCOM requirements, and the Threat Working Group. The other options listed are not specifically responsible for establishing arming rules.

Submit
80. (005) What is not a category for the status of funds?

Explanation

The status of funds can be categorized as committed, obligated, or uncommitted. "End of year" is not a category for the status of funds. This category does not provide any information about the current state or allocation of funds, but rather refers to a specific time period.

Submit
81. (002) Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?

Explanation

AFI 36-2903 is the Air Force Instruction that provides information about dress and appearance standards for military personnel. It does not specifically address fitness standards and assessments. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.

Submit
82. (008) Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or died?

Explanation

The Defense Force Commander is responsible for notifying the victim if the accused has escaped, was released, or died. This role is important as it ensures that the victim is informed about the status of the accused and can take appropriate actions or precautions if necessary. The Defense Force Commander is specifically tasked with this responsibility within the military justice system.

Submit
83. (005) Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?

Explanation

The correct answer is Major command (MAJCOM) functional. This is because the Major command (MAJCOM) functional is responsible for reviewing and validating installation submissions for respective functional areas. They have the authority and expertise to ensure that the installations are in compliance with the requirements and standards set by the MAJCOM. The MAJCOM functional team is knowledgeable about the specific needs and priorities of their functional area and can effectively assess the installation submissions to ensure their validity and appropriateness.

Submit
84. (005) What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units?

Explanation

The Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP) provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units. This program focuses on managing and optimizing the use of resources, including manpower, to ensure efficient and effective operations. By utilizing the standards set by MEP, commanders can accurately assess the number of personnel needed for their units, ensuring that they have the appropriate manpower to accomplish their mission objectives.

Submit
85. (012) During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up investigation, should a determination be made that the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed?

Explanation

During the step of collecting physical evidence, it is necessary to determine whether the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed. This is because collecting physical evidence involves carefully examining the scene, documenting and collecting any relevant evidence, and ensuring that nothing important has been missed. By assessing whether the scene was thoroughly processed during this step, investigators can ensure that all necessary evidence has been collected before moving on to other steps such as conducting additional interviews, identifying and apprehending suspects, and reviewing previous reports.

Submit
86. (004) During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned

Explanation

During peaceful confrontations, it is recommended to position the Military Working Dog (MWD) team in reserve and out of sight of the crowd. This ensures that the presence of the dogs does not escalate the situation or provoke any unnecessary reactions from the crowd. Keeping them out of sight also allows for better control and coordination of their deployment if the need arises.

Submit
87. (008) When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not

Explanation

When responding to a residence, it is not recommended to stand directly in front of the door. This is because standing directly in front of the door puts the responder in a vulnerable position, as they can be easily targeted if someone inside the residence opens the door aggressively or unexpectedly. It is advisable to stand to the side of the door, where the responder can have a better view of their surroundings and be better prepared to react to any potential threats.

Submit
88. (005) Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal inspections?

Explanation

Commanders control the depth, scope, and frequency of internal inspections. This means that they have the authority to determine how thorough the inspections will be, what areas will be covered, and how often they will be conducted. As the leaders of their respective units, commanders are responsible for ensuring compliance with regulations and standards, and they have the power to set the parameters for internal inspections to ensure that their units are meeting these requirements.

Submit
89. (005) Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspections?

Explanation

The correct answer is Controlled Nuclear Surety Inspection (CNSI). The reason why CNSI is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspection is because it is not listed among the options provided. The question asks for the type of inspection that is not included in the given options, and CNSI is not one of them. Therefore, CNSI is the correct answer.

Submit
90. (005) Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year?

Explanation

Major commands (MAJCOMs) provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year. MAJCOMs are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping their assigned forces, including security forces. They have the authority to allocate security forces based on the specific needs and requirements of their command. Therefore, they are the primary source for providing the most up-to-date security forces allocation.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 19, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Alixcline
Cancel
  • All
    All (90)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
(002) After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the...
(001) Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?
(006) Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas...
(005) Where does the installations' labor relations specialist work?
(005) All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining...
(001) Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
(009) What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched,...
(009) Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in...
(008) What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved...
(003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their...
(011) What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
(004) When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be...
(001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight...
(013) Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of...
(001) Post priority charts are used to
(006) Which is not a designated PL1 resource?
(002) The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection...
(001) What is the most rigorous stage of development?
(002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
(001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go...
(001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard...
(001) When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each...
(009) What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately...
(008) Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous...
(008) Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that...
(001) How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are...
(010) Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time...
(003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
(010) Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence...
(011) When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you...
(004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to
(011) An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing...
(012) The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension
(004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a...
(001) As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your...
(002) When do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH!"?
(001) Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is...
(001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of...
(002) What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator...
(001) What force development level, encompasses the operational or...
(002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that...
(002) The primary function of reviewing is to ensure
(007) When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards...
(001) Supervisors must ensure their troops
(004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the...
(013) Which of the following best describes the personal attributes...
(005) Which radio type can talk over great distances?
(005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to
(006) Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
(002) After the command "Open rank, MARCH," which of the following...
(007) Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front?
(002) A post check generally includes all of these items except
(005) Which statue protects an alleged violation of a right?
(001) Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?
(008) What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness...
(001) Which commander exercises operational control?
(007) Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for...
(001) All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear...
(003) Who is responsible for the overall security forces training...
(009) Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to
(010) What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD)...
(005) "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles...
(005) When are manpower numbers reviewed?
(005) Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?
(007) The T-formation is best suited for what environment?
(001) Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily...
(003) Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are...
(010) During which major accident response phase is the estimated...
(010) Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring...
(011) Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value...
(001) What drives a post priority chart?
(007) How many team configurations are there for use in a tactical...
(001) What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces...
(002) When does the second element leader give the command, "Second...
(007) When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long...
(010) During which phase of a natural disaster, should the...
(012) To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the...
(010) Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident...
(005) All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117,...
(005) What is not a category for the status of funds?
(002) Where can you find information about current fitness standards...
(008) Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released,...
(005) Who reviews and validates installation submissions for...
(005) What provides standards to help commanders determine the...
(012) During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up...
(004) During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD)...
(008) When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door...
(005) Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal...
(005) Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons technical...
(005) Who provides the most current security forces...
Alert!

Advertisement