CDC Vol 1 Z3p071

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  • 1/90 Questions

    (001) Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?

    • Patrol Leader
    • Squad Leader
    • Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller
    • Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security response Team (ESRT) Leader
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CDC Vol 1 Z3p071 - Quiz
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  • 2. 

    (001) Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the

    • Duty roster

    • Post priority listing

    • Unit Manning document

    • Unit personnel manning roster

    Correct Answer
    A. Post priority listing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Post priority listing". A post priority listing is a document that determines the order in which posts or patrols should be manned based on their importance or urgency. It helps to allocate personnel resources effectively and ensure that critical areas are adequately covered. The duty roster, unit Manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may also be used for scheduling and assigning personnel, but they do not specifically prioritize posts based on their importance.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Post priority charts are used to

    • Allocate vehicles.

    • Allocate manpower.

    • Determine post rotations.

    • Determine weapon configurations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allocate manpower.
    Explanation
    Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that these charts are used to determine the distribution of personnel resources in order to effectively manage and assign tasks and responsibilities. By using post priority charts, organizations can ensure that the right amount of manpower is allocated to different posts or positions based on their importance and priority. This helps in optimizing productivity, efficiency, and overall operational effectiveness.

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  • 4. 

    (001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?

    • Post rotations.

    • Specialized courses.

    • Recognition program.

    • Providing time off.

    Correct Answer
    A. Post rotations.
    Explanation
    Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows for a change in job roles and responsibilities, preventing monotony and burnout. This can help to keep the team engaged and motivated, as they have the opportunity to learn new skills and gain different experiences. Additionally, post rotations can foster a sense of fairness and equal opportunity among team members, as everyone gets a chance to take on different roles within the flight.

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  • 5. 

    (002) After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left-facing movement.

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  • 6. 

    (003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • Analysis.

    • Feedback.

    • Evaluation.

    • Cross-feed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Feedback.
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. Feedback allows commanders to assess the impact of their strategies, identify areas for improvement, and make necessary adjustments to achieve their objectives. It helps them understand the perspectives and concerns of their subordinates, enabling them to build stronger relationships and enhance teamwork. Additionally, feedback helps commanders to learn from their mistakes and successes, ultimately leading to better decision-making and overall performance.

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  • 7. 

    (004) When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?

    • In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.

    • Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability.

    • At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.

    • Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    A. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
    Explanation
    Dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This placement allows the dogs to effectively detect and deter any unauthorized individuals from entering the area. By strategically positioning the dogs in these locations, they can act as a barrier and provide maximum usage in preventing unauthorized access.

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  • 8. 

    (005) Where does the installations’ labor relations specialist work?

    • Civilian Personnel Office.

    • Staff Judge Advocate Office.

    • Contract Management Office.

    • Area Defense Council Office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Civilian Personnel Office.
    Explanation
    The installations' labor relations specialist works in the Civilian Personnel Office.

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  • 9. 

    (005) All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except

    • Supervisors.

    • Management officials.

    • Professional employees.

    • Employees in non-dedicated positions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Employees in non-dedicated positions.
    Explanation
    This question is asking for the exception to being included in a bargaining unit. A bargaining unit typically includes employees who have similar job roles and interests for the purpose of collective bargaining. Supervisors, management officials, and professional employees are often excluded from being part of a bargaining unit because they have different responsibilities and may have conflicting interests. However, employees in non-dedicated positions are not explicitly mentioned as being excluded, so they would not be an exception to being in a bargaining unit.

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  • 10. 

    (006) Which is not a designated PL1 resource?

    • Nuclear weapons.

    • Senior Executive Mission (SENEX) aircraft.

    • Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States.

    • Command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States.
    Explanation
    The question asks for a resource that is not designated as a PL1 resource. PL1 resources refer to resources that are considered critical to national security and require protection. Nuclear weapons, SENEX aircraft, and C4 systems are all examples of PL1 resources as they are crucial for national defense and communication. On the other hand, aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States is not considered a PL1 resource as it does not have a direct impact on national security or defense.

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  • 11. 

    (006) Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security?

    • PL4.

    • PL3.

    • PL2.

    • PL1.

    Correct Answer
    A. PL4.
    Explanation
    PL4 is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security. PL4, also known as "High Security," indicates that the highest level of protection is required. In this case, the owner/users take full responsibility for implementing and maintaining security measures in the controlled areas. This may include advanced security systems, strict access controls, and regular monitoring to ensure the safety and integrity of the area.

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  • 12. 

    (008) What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?

    • The nature of the dispute.

    • The location of the dispute.

    • The responding patrol’s attitude.

    • Whether or not children are present.

    Correct Answer
    A. The responding patrol’s attitude.
    Explanation
    The attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute are determined by the responding patrol's attitude. The way the patrol handles the situation, their approach, and their demeanor can greatly influence the behavior and cooperation of the individuals involved in the dispute. A patrol officer with a calm and respectful attitude is more likely to de-escalate the situation and encourage cooperation from all parties. On the other hand, an aggressive or confrontational attitude can escalate tensions and hinder cooperation. Therefore, the responding patrol's attitude plays a crucial role in determining the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute.

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  • 13. 

    (009) What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?

    • It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.

    • It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.

    • It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.

    • It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found faster.

    Correct Answer
    A. It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.
    Explanation
    Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because the destruction or alteration of evidence can lead to the loss of important information that could have been used to accurately analyze the scene and determine what occurred. Without all the evidence intact, the investigator may make incorrect assumptions or miss crucial details, potentially leading to an inaccurate understanding of the crime and the identification of the perpetrator.

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  • 14. 

    (009) Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?

    • It allows for additional flight members to gain experience.

    • It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training.

    • It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.

    • It could possibly destroy your hard work, contaminate the scene, and violate the chain of evidence requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.
    Explanation
    Having a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it allows for fresh eyes to examine the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This helps to ensure that all potential evidence is properly identified and collected, without any preconceived notions or influences. By having someone with a neutral perspective conduct the search, it reduces the risk of contaminating the scene or violating the chain of evidence requirements.

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  • 15. 

    (011) What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?

    • As long as it takes to obtain a confession.

    • No more than 30 minutes.

    • No more than 60 minutes.

    • There is no time limit.

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no time limit.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "There is no time limit." This means that there is no specific duration set for suspect interviews. The absence of a time limit allows investigators to conduct thorough and comprehensive interviews, giving them the flexibility to gather all necessary information and evidence. It also ensures that suspects are not rushed or coerced into providing a confession, promoting a fair and unbiased investigation process.

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  • 16. 

    (013) Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?

    • Speaking to the witnesses.

    • Consulting with the defense counsel.

    • Arranging and reviewing original notes.

    • Returning to the crime scene to recall the events.

    Correct Answer
    A. Arranging and reviewing original notes.
    Explanation
    Arranging and reviewing original notes aids in recalling all the details of the case prior to the trial. This involves organizing and going through the written records and evidence collected during the investigation. By reviewing these original notes, the person involved can refresh their memory and ensure that they have a comprehensive understanding of the case, including all the relevant details and evidence. It helps them to be well-prepared and have a clear recollection of the events when presenting the case in court.

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  • 17. 

    (001) What is the most rigorous stage of development?

    • SrA

    • MSgt

    • SSgt and TSgt

    • Amn and A1C

    Correct Answer
    A. Amn and A1C
    Explanation
    The most rigorous stage of development is at the level of Amn and A1C because this is the beginning stage of a person's military career. During this stage, individuals are expected to learn and adapt to the military environment, undergo basic training, and develop the necessary skills and discipline required for their future roles. It is a period of intense physical and mental training, where individuals are pushed to their limits to ensure they are prepared for the challenges ahead.

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  • 18. 

    (001) How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.

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  • 19. 

    (001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?

    • Group commander.

    • Security Forces manager.

    • Defense force commander.

    • Each individual flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense force commander.
    Explanation
    The defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not someone needs to be present at a particular post or if it can be left unattended. This decision is crucial for the overall security and functioning of the defense force, as it ensures that resources are allocated efficiently and effectively. The defense force commander's role is to make strategic decisions regarding the deployment and management of personnel, and this includes determining which posts can be unmanned.

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  • 20. 

    (001) When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain

    • Proficiency.

    • Discipline.

    • Fairness.

    • Control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proficiency.
    Explanation
    Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified in helps to maintain proficiency. This practice ensures that individuals gain experience and knowledge in different roles, allowing them to develop a well-rounded skill set. By regularly rotating personnel, organizations can prevent skill gaps and ensure that all team members are competent and capable in their respective positions. This promotes efficiency, adaptability, and a higher level of performance overall.

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  • 21. 

    (001) As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates?

    • Standards.

    • Discipline.

    • Work ethic.

    • Mentorship.

    Correct Answer
    A. Work ethic.
    Explanation
    As a supervisor, it is important to instill a strong work ethic in each of your subordinates. Work ethic refers to the set of values and principles that guide an individual's attitude and approach towards their work. By instilling a strong work ethic, supervisors can ensure that their subordinates are committed, dedicated, and motivated to perform their tasks to the best of their abilities. This includes traits such as reliability, professionalism, accountability, and a willingness to go above and beyond. A strong work ethic not only contributes to the overall productivity and success of the team, but also helps in fostering a positive work culture.

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  • 22. 

    (001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?

    • Issue paperwork.

    • Verbally counsel the subordinate.

    • Investigate to determine the cause.

    • Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Investigate to determine the cause.
    Explanation
    When a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This step is crucial as it helps identify the underlying issues or reasons behind the substandard performance. By conducting an investigation, the supervisor can gather relevant information, assess the situation, and make informed decisions on how to address the problem effectively. This approach allows for a fair and comprehensive understanding of the situation, enabling the supervisor to take appropriate actions to improve the subordinate's performance.

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  • 23. 

    (002) The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is

    • Report

    • Parade rest

    • Open ranks march

    • Prepare for inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Report
    Explanation
    After the flight falls in for inspection, the next command given would be "Report". This command is given to instruct the members of the flight to report their presence and readiness to the person in charge of the inspection. It is a standard military protocol to ensure that all members are accounted for and prepared for the inspection process.

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  • 24. 

    (002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?

    • Flight member

    • Flight supervisor

    • Flight commander

    • Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), supply.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight member
    Explanation
    The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that each individual within the flight is responsible for ensuring that the equipment is properly maintained and functioning correctly. This includes regular inspections, cleaning, and reporting any issues or malfunctions to the appropriate personnel. By holding each flight member accountable for equipment maintenance, it helps to ensure that the equipment is kept in good working order and ready for use when needed.

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  • 25. 

    (003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to

    • Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.

    • Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller.

    • Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions.

    • Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty.

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This evaluation ensures that individuals are competent and capable of fulfilling the requirements of their assigned positions. It helps in identifying the skills, knowledge, and abilities of individuals and ensures that they are appropriately qualified for their roles. This process also helps in maintaining the highest standards of performance and professionalism within the organization.

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  • 26. 

    (004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to

    • Aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • Track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
    Explanation
    The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the MWD is responsible for preventing unauthorized individuals from entering and causing harm to Air Force facilities. They are trained to intimidate and discourage potential intruders, identify and locate them through their sense of smell and hearing, and physically apprehend them if necessary. This mission helps to ensure the security and protection of Air Force resources.

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  • 27. 

    (004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous

    • Deterrent to potential violators.

    • Physical deterrent to potential violators.

    • Physiological deterrent to potential violators.

    • Psychological deterrent to potential violators.

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent to potential violators.
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team used in police services activities can be a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a trained dog can create fear and uncertainty in the minds of individuals who may be considering criminal activities. The perception of the dog's abilities and the potential consequences of engaging in illegal behavior can discourage potential violators from committing crimes. The psychological impact of the dog's presence and the fear it can instill in individuals can act as a deterrent to criminal activity.

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  • 28. 

    (008) Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?

    • Deep cuts.

    • Bloody nose.

    • Fractured bones.

    • Damaged internal organs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bloody nose.
    Explanation
    A bloody nose is not considered grievous bodily harm because it is a relatively minor injury compared to the others listed. Deep cuts, fractured bones, and damaged internal organs are all more severe injuries that can cause significant harm and have long-lasting effects on a person's health and well-being. A bloody nose, on the other hand, is a common injury that usually does not result in serious complications or long-term consequences.

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  • 29. 

    (008) Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?

    • Rape.

    • Assault.

    • Adultery.

    • Child Abuse.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rape.
    Explanation
    Rape is considered one of the most serious crimes that will be investigated, excluding homicide. It is a violent act that involves non-consensual sexual intercourse or penetration, causing severe physical and psychological harm to the victim. The gravity of this crime is reflected in the legal system, where perpetrators can face significant penalties, including imprisonment. The investigation of rape cases is crucial to ensure justice for the victims and to prevent further harm to society.

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  • 30. 

    (009) What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?

    • It allows photographs to be taken.

    • It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene.

    • It allows responding patrols to better piece together events.

    • It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found.

    Correct Answer
    A. It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found.
    Explanation
    Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because it ensures that no evidence is tampered with or contaminated, which is crucial for an accurate investigation. By preserving the scene, the investigator can gather all the necessary information and clues to piece together what happened and potentially identify the perpetrator. It also helps in maintaining the integrity of the evidence and ensuring a fair trial.

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  • 31. 

    (010) Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming?

    • Recovery phase.

    • Response phase.

    • Notification phase.

    • Withdrawal phase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery phase.
    Explanation
    The recovery phase is the most complex and time-consuming major accident response phase because it involves the restoration of normal operations and the recovery of affected areas. This phase includes activities such as assessing the damage, developing a recovery plan, coordinating resources, and implementing measures to restore the affected area to its pre-incident state. It requires careful coordination and collaboration among various stakeholders, including emergency responders, government agencies, and the affected community. The recovery phase may involve extensive cleanup, repairs, and rebuilding efforts, which can take a significant amount of time and resources to complete.

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  • 32. 

    (010) Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation?

    • Public Affairs.

    • School Principal.

    • Incident Commander.

    • Defense Force Commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Public Affairs.
    Explanation
    In a school violence situation, the responsibility for information flow lies with the Public Affairs department. Public Affairs is responsible for managing communication and disseminating information to the public, media, and other stakeholders. They ensure that accurate and timely information is provided to keep everyone informed and address any concerns or rumors. The Public Affairs team works closely with school administrators, law enforcement, and other relevant parties to coordinate messaging and provide updates during such critical incidents.

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  • 33. 

    (011) When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?

    • Seek Defense Force Commander (DFC) advice.

    • Seek Area Defense Counsel (ADC) advice.

    • Seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice.

    • Question them with a witness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice.
    Explanation
    If a parent cannot be found or they cannot respond in a timely manner when questioning a juvenile, seeking Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice is the appropriate action to take. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on the proper procedures and protocols to follow when dealing with juveniles. They can ensure that the questioning is done in a legal and ethical manner, protecting the rights of the juvenile. Seeking their advice helps to ensure that the juvenile's best interests are taken into account and that the questioning is conducted within the bounds of the law.

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  • 34. 

    (011) An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

    • Habitual offender.

    • Psychotic offender.

    • First time offender.

    • Professional offender.

    Correct Answer
    A. Habitual offender.
    Explanation
    An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a habitual offender. This term is used to describe someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without remorse or guilt. They have a pattern of committing crimes and may have a high recidivism rate. Unlike a first-time offender who may feel remorse or guilt after committing a crime, a habitual offender lacks the moral compass or empathy to recognize the wrongfulness of their actions. A psychotic offender refers to someone with a severe mental illness, while a professional offender typically refers to someone who commits crimes as a means of livelihood.

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  • 35. 

    (012) The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension

    • In a private dwelling.

    • During the interview.

    • Off the installation.

    • In a work center.

    Correct Answer
    A. In a private dwelling.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension in a private dwelling. This means that when someone is being apprehended or arrested by the Air Force, this form is used specifically for situations that occur in a private residence or dwelling. It is not used for apprehensions that happen during an interview, off the installation, or in a work center.

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  • 36. 

    (001) Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certain locations?

    • Supervisor

    • Flight Sergeant

    • Response force leader

    • Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)/Assistant NCOIC

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Sergeant
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Flight Sergeant. Flight Sergeant is a duty available in certain locations for Staff Sergeants (SSgt) or Technical Sergeants (TSgt). This duty involves supervising and leading a flight within the military organization.

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  • 37. 

    (001) What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?

    • MSgt

    • CMSgt

    • SMSgt

    • SSgt and TSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. SMSgt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SMSgt. SMSgt, or Senior Master Sergeant, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership. This rank is typically achieved after years of experience and demonstrates a high level of expertise and responsibility. SMSgts are often involved in decision-making processes and provide guidance and direction to lower-ranking personnel. They play a crucial role in the overall force development and leadership at the operational or strategic level.

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  • 38. 

    (001) Supervisors must ensure their troops

    • Have food and water.

    • Possess required qualifications and certifications.

    • Are supplied with weapons and required equipment.

    • Are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.

    Correct Answer
    A. Possess required qualifications and certifications.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "possess required qualifications and certifications." This answer is supported by the fact that supervisors have a responsibility to ensure that their troops have the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles. This is important for maintaining the effectiveness and safety of the troops in their duties.

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  • 39. 

    (001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in

    • Higher force protection conditions (FPCONs).

    • Peacetime and wartime.

    • Peacetime.

    • Wartime.

    Correct Answer
    A. Peacetime and wartime.
    Explanation
    The post priority chart is a tool used to allocate limited Security Forces (SF) resources in an efficient manner. It helps determine the level of force protection required based on the current FPCON (Force Protection Condition) level. Since FPCONs can be applicable in both peacetime and wartime scenarios, the post priority chart is used in both situations to ensure the most effective use of SF resources.

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  • 40. 

    (002) When do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH!”?

    • Upon departure of the inspecting official.

    • At the completion of the guardmount briefing

    • Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.

    • When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon departure of the inspecting official.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Upon departure of the inspecting official." This is because the command "Close Ranks, MARCH!" is given when the inspecting official is leaving, indicating that the guard or unit should close ranks and continue marching. This command is used to signal the end of the inspection and the resumption of normal marching.

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  • 41. 

    (002) What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else’s writing?

    • Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–337.

    • Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–336.

    • Air Force Instruction (AFI) 32–337.

    • Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33-337 is the correct publication that will assist in becoming a good communicator and provide tools to review and assess someone else's writing. This handbook is specifically designed to improve communication skills and provides guidance on effective writing techniques. It offers tips, examples, and strategies for clear and concise writing, which are essential for effective communication in the Air Force.

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  • 42. 

    (002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is

    • Lengthy.

    • Made up.

    • Irrelevant.

    • Inappropriate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Irrelevant.
    Explanation
    When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one of the concerns is that it may contain irrelevant information. Irrelevant information refers to content that is not necessary or related to the topic at hand. This can make the material confusing, time-consuming, and less effective in conveying the intended message. Therefore, it is important to identify and remove any irrelevant information to ensure the accuracy and clarity of the material.

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  • 43. 

    (002) The primary function of reviewing is to ensure

    • The communication gets the point across.

    • Ideas are being communicated understandably and the communication gets the point across.

    • Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect punctuation), and the communication get the point across.

    • Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.
    Explanation
    The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and that the communication gets the point across.

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  • 44. 

    (004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is

    • Apprehension or release.

    • Pepper spray or gunfire.

    • Resistance or restraint.

    • Gunfire or escape.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunfire or escape.
    Explanation
    Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that when faced with a situation where the use of firearms is necessary or when there is a risk of the suspect escaping, patrol dogs are used as a less lethal option. They can be deployed to apprehend and subdue the suspect without resorting to gunfire, reducing the risk of injury or fatality. Additionally, patrol dogs can be effective in preventing suspects from escaping, providing a valuable tool for law enforcement in situations where a quick and safe resolution is required.

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  • 45. 

    (005) Which radio type can talk over great distances?

    • Base station.

    • Portable radio.

    • Base station remote.

    • Mobile two-way radio.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobile two-way radio.
    Explanation
    A mobile two-way radio is the correct answer because it is designed to communicate over long distances. Unlike a base station or base station remote, which are stationary and have limited range, a mobile two-way radio can be used while on the move, allowing for communication over greater distances. Portable radios, while convenient, typically have shorter range compared to mobile radios. Therefore, a mobile two-way radio is the best option for talking over great distances.

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  • 46. 

    (005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to

    • Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    • Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.

    • Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.

    • Provide Congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.
    Explanation
    The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the President's Budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the Financial Plan submission aims to allocate the budget in a fair and balanced manner across different areas and departments, ensuring that each receives an appropriate share of funding to meet their requirements. This helps to prevent any bias or favoritism in the distribution of funds and promotes transparency and accountability in the budgeting process.

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  • 47. 

    (006) Which of the following is not an alarm response code?

    • Code 1.

    • Code 2.

    • Code 3.

    • Code 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. Code 4.
    Explanation
    The given options list different codes, and the question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code. Among the options, Code 4 is the only one that is not an alarm response code.

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  • 48. 

    (007) When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the

    • Threat.

    • Fast wall.

    • Unknown.

    • Strong wall.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unknown.
    Explanation
    When making room entry, it is important to keep your weapons oriented towards the unknown. This means that you should be prepared for any potential threat that may be present inside the room. By keeping your weapons oriented towards the unknown, you are ready to react quickly and effectively to any danger that may arise. This approach ensures that you are prepared to handle any situation and maintain your safety and the safety of others.

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  • 49. 

    (013) Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential when testifying?

    • Skill, tact, poise, and self-assurance.

    • Skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence.

    • Skill, reliance, poise and self-confidence.

    • Skill, cockiness, poise, and self-confidence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence.
    Explanation
    The personal attributes that are essential when testifying include skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence. These attributes are necessary to effectively communicate and present information during testimony. Skill refers to the ability to effectively convey information and answer questions. Tact is important in maintaining professionalism and sensitivity while providing testimony. Poise is necessary to remain composed and confident while under pressure. Self-confidence is essential for conveying credibility and conviction in one's testimony.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jan 19, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Alixcline
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