Detectives Exam Part 1
(158).webp "Detectives Exam Part 1 - Quiz")
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which office falls under the umbrella of the Office of First Deputy Superintendent?
- A.
A. Special Events Unit
- B.
B. Bureau of Detectives
- C.
C. Bureau of Organized Crime
- D.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer
D. D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is d. All of the above. This means that all of the offices mentioned in the options (Special Events Unit, Bureau of Detectives, and Bureau of Organized Crime) fall under the umbrella of the Office of First Deputy Superintendent. This indicates that the Office of First Deputy Superintendent has authority and oversight over these offices.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which section is not a part of the Bureau of Detectives?
- A.
A. Investigative Support Section
- B.
B. Special Investigative Group
- C.
C. Bureau of Detectives Areas
- D.
D. Narcotics
Correct Answer
D. D. NarcoticsExplanation
The section that is not a part of the Bureau of Detectives is the Narcotics section. The other options, Investigative Support Section, Special Investigative Group, and Bureau of Detectives Areas, are all sections that are part of the Bureau of Detectives.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which Unit under the Central Investigations Division, a section of the Special Investigative Group, Bureau of Detectives, investigates financial crimes, including identity theft, credit card fraud, mortgage fraud, embezzlement, and money laundering?
- A.
A. DNA Unit
- B.
B. Fugitive Apprehension Unit
- C.
C. Financial Crimes Unit
- D.
D. CPD/FBI Violent Crimes Task Force
Correct Answer
C. C. Financial Crimes UnitExplanation
The correct answer is c. Financial Crimes Unit. The Financial Crimes Unit, which is a part of the Central Investigations Division, investigates various financial crimes such as identity theft, credit card fraud, mortgage fraud, embezzlement, and money laundering. This unit focuses on investigating and preventing financial crimes to protect individuals and businesses from fraudulent activities that can cause significant financial harm.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Per G01-03, pg. 2, what messages are types of communications of an immediate nature transmitted via the Administrative Message Center, which may be utilized by command and supervisory personnel to direct those Department activities that are within their scope of authority?
- A.
Intra-Departmental Messages
- B.
Email Messages
- C.
Administrative Messages
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Administrative MessagesExplanation
According to G01-03, pg. 2, Administrative Messages are types of communications of an immediate nature transmitted via the Administrative Message Center. These messages can be utilized by command and supervisory personnel to direct Department activities that are within their scope of authority.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which system serves as the official repository for the Department directives and provides access to the current, official copies?
- A.
The Department Directives System
- B.
Automated Incident Report Application
- C.
CLEAR System
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. The Department Directives SystemExplanation
The Department Directives System serves as the official repository for the Department directives and provides access to the current, official copies. This system is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all department directives are stored and accessible in one central location. The Automated Incident Report Application and CLEAR System may serve other purposes within the department, but they are not the official repositories for directives. Therefore, the correct answer is The Department Directives System.Rate this question:
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- 6.
True or False? The Department’s Limited English Proficiency Policy ensures that individuals with Limited English Proficiency who require police services, will be provided with interpretation services by the Department free of charge
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The Department's Limited English Proficiency Policy guarantees that individuals with Limited English Proficiency who need police services will receive interpretation services from the Department without any cost. This means that language barriers will not hinder individuals from accessing necessary police assistance.Rate this question:
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- 7.
True of False? Records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis or treatment of a patient in a drug or alcohol abuse program may not be disclosed unless the prior written consent of the patient has been obtained or authorized by a court order?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The answer is true because the question is asking whether records of a patient in a drug or alcohol abuse program can be disclosed without the patient's consent or a court order. According to the question, these records may not be disclosed unless the patient has given prior written consent or a court has authorized the disclosure. Therefore, the correct answer is true.Rate this question:
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- 8.
True or False? Whenever practical, TIGN arrestees will be transported alone in a passenger vehicle, van cell, or squadrol compartment.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Whenever practical, TIGN arrestees will be transported alone in a passenger vehicle, van cell, or squadrol compartment. This means that when it is feasible and possible, TIGN arrestees will be transported without any other individuals in the same vehicle or compartment. This is done to ensure the safety and security of both the arrestee and the law enforcement officers involved in the transportation. It helps to minimize the risk of any altercations or incidents during the transportation process.Rate this question:
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- 9.
True or False? The relinquishing party’s information will ONLY be added if it is freely (without prompting) given by that person. Department members will make no attempt to ask for this information nor will any physical descriptions be given of the relinquishing parent.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The explanation for the correct answer, which is True, is that the department members will only add the relinquishing party's information if it is freely given by that person, without any prompting. They will not ask for this information themselves, nor will they provide any physical descriptions of the relinquishing parent.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Signs and indicators of an older adult at risk include but are not limited to:
- A.
Unusual activity in bank accounts
- B.
Old and new bruising, suggesting repeated injury
- C.
Unsafe conditions in the home, including those related to hoarding
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The given answer "All of the above" is correct because it includes all the mentioned signs and indicators of an older adult at risk. Unusual activity in bank accounts can indicate financial exploitation or scams targeting older adults. Old and new bruising suggests repeated injury, which may be a sign of physical abuse. Unsafe conditions in the home, including hoarding, can pose a risk to the older adult's safety and well-being. Therefore, all these signs should be taken into consideration when assessing the risk faced by an older adult.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Per Department policy, in what time frame does an officer, who initially discovers any suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of an older adult, have to report the offense to the Illinois Department on Aging Elder Abuse Hotline?
- A.
A. Before the end of the work week
- B.
B. Before the end of his tour of duty
- C.
C. First thing when he reports to work the following day or after RDO’s
- D.
D. There is no time frame
Correct Answer
B. B. Before the end of his tour of dutyExplanation
An officer who initially discovers any suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of an older adult must report the offense to the Illinois Department on Aging Elder Abuse Hotline before the end of his tour of duty. This means that the officer must report the offense within the time frame of their scheduled shift or work hours. There is a specific time limit for reporting the offense, and it must be done before the officer's shift ends.Rate this question:
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- 12.
- True or False? Information obtained during a public gathering investigation will be documented via an Automated Information Report.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
During a public gathering investigation, information is collected and documented for analysis and future reference. An Automated Information Report (AIR) is a standardized method used to document this information. It ensures consistency and accuracy in recording the details of the investigation. Therefore, it can be concluded that information obtained during a public gathering investigation will indeed be documented via an Automated Information Report.Rate this question:
- 13.
- Members conducting a First Amendment-related information gathering investigation will submit to their exempt commanding officer__________reports detailing the progress of the investigation at ___________ day intervals or at shorter intervals as directed by the exempt commanding officer.
- A.
A. To-From-Subject / 30
- B.
B. To-From-Subject / 45
- C.
C. Information / 30
- D.
D. Information / 45
Correct Answer
A. A. To-From-Subject / 30Explanation
Members conducting a First Amendment-related information gathering investigation will submit reports detailing the progress of the investigation at 30-day intervals or at shorter intervals as directed by the exempt commanding officer. The reports will follow the format of To-From-Subject, where the report is addressed to the commanding officer, includes the sender's information, and has a subject line indicating the purpose of the report. This format allows for clear communication and organization of the information being reported.Rate this question:
- 14.
- A district-level strategy outlining the steps that will be taken to prevent chronic crime from returning to the area of deployment after a Police Observation Device (POD) removal is known as:
- A.
A. A Removal Strategy Plan
- B.
B. An Exit Strategy Plan
- C.
C. An Egress Strategy Plan
- D.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer
B. B. An Exit Strategy PlanExplanation
An exit strategy plan is a district-level strategy that outlines the steps to prevent chronic crime from returning to the area after a Police Observation Device (POD) removal. This plan focuses on the necessary measures and actions to be taken to ensure a smooth transition and sustained crime prevention efforts in the area. It includes strategies such as community engagement, targeted policing, and collaboration with other agencies to address the root causes of crime and maintain a safe environment.Rate this question:
- 15.
- There are two types of POD’S used by the Department: Wireless and Non-Wireless. Respectively, for Wireless and Non-Wireless POD’S how long does an investigating member have in order to retrieve recorded images?
- A.
A. 15 days / 72 hours
- B.
B. 10 days / 48 hours
- C.
C. 5 days / 24 hours
- D.
D. N/A. Recorded images are indefinitely stored until manually purged by members of the Public Safety Information Technology section (PSIT)
Correct Answer
A. A. 15 days / 72 hoursExplanation
The correct answer is a. 15 days / 72 hours. This means that for Wireless POD's, an investigating member has 15 days to retrieve recorded images, while for Non-Wireless POD's, they have 72 hours. This time limit ensures that the recorded images are accessible for a reasonable amount of time before they may be deleted or purged.Rate this question:
- 16.
- True or False? Per S02-05, Community Programs, a “Gun Offender” is defined as any person convicted of a gun offense that is subject to the provisions of chapter 8-26 of the Municipal Code of Chicago (Gun Offender Registration Program).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Per S02-05, Community Programs, a "Gun Offender" is defined as any person convicted of a gun offense that is subject to the provisions of chapter 8-26 of the Municipal Code of Chicago (Gun Offender Registration Program). Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
- 17.
- Within what time frame must a convicted sex offender living in Chicago, annually re-register with the Department in order to maintain compliance?
- A.
A. 1 year
- B.
B. 1 year and 1 week
- C.
C. 1 year and 2 weeks
- D.
D. 1 year and 10 days
Correct Answer
C. C. 1 year and 2 weeksExplanation
The order is says every year but the "Last Contact Date" listed in the SIR file is over 1 year and two weeks ( 730 ILCS 150/3 - The offender had a duty to register annually and failed).Rate this question:
- 18.
- ___________________is a section within the OEMC responsible for the processing of specific, designated non-emergency call/requests for service.
- A.
A. Alternate Response Division
- B.
B. Alternate Reaction Section
- C.
C. Alternate Response Section
- D.
D. Alternate Results Section
Correct Answer
C. C. Alternate Response SectionExplanation
The correct answer is c. Alternate Response Section. This section within the OEMC is responsible for processing specific, designated non-emergency calls and requests for service.Rate this question:
- 19.
- What two things must you immediately notify the dispatcher of when communicating via radio an on-view incident?
- A.
A. Type of incident and if possible the suspect’s gang affiliation
- B.
B. Address of incident and physical description of the suspect
- C.
C. Type of incident and Address of incident
- D.
D. Weather and traffic conditions
Correct Answer
C. C. Type of incident and Address of incidentExplanation
When communicating an on-view incident via radio, it is crucial to immediately notify the dispatcher of the type of incident and the address of the incident. This information is essential for the dispatcher to accurately assess the situation and dispatch the appropriate resources to the location. By providing the type of incident, such as a burglary or assault, and the address, the dispatcher can quickly relay this information to responding units, ensuring a timely and effective response.Rate this question:
- 20.
- Which criteria must be met in order to justify turning off your radio during your tour of duty?
- A.
A. Unusual circumstances exist
- B.
B. Approval has been obtained from a supervisor
- C.
C. The dispatcher is notified (court and beat meetings)
- D.
D. All of the above must
Correct Answer
D. D. All of the above mustExplanation
In order to justify turning off your radio during your tour of duty, all of the above criteria must be met. This means that unusual circumstances must exist, approval must be obtained from a supervisor, and the dispatcher must be notified (in court and beat meetings). Meeting all of these criteria ensures that there is a valid reason for turning off the radio and that proper communication channels are followed.Rate this question:
- 21.
- Which best describes a Department member’s responsibility when receiving their assignment by voice radio and, if equipped, via PDT?
- A.
A. Maintain contact with the dispatch only when responding to emergency situations
- B.
B. Report any changes in availability status to the dispatcher via PDT only
- C.
C. If equipped, clear the assignment via the PDT and voice radio
- D.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer
C. C. If equipped, clear the assignment via the PDT and voice radioExplanation
When receiving their assignment by voice radio and, if equipped, via PDT, a Department member's responsibility is to clear the assignment via both the PDT and voice radio. This means that they need to acknowledge and confirm their understanding of the assignment using both communication methods. This ensures that there is no miscommunication or confusion regarding the assignment and allows for proper coordination and tracking of resources.Rate this question:
- 22.
- The PCAD system automatically organizes and prioritizes each event prior to dispatch. Which Priority event is described as a response to a call for service that conforms to Alternate Response Strategies enumerated in the Department directive entitles “Alternate Response Section Case Reporting Policy,” and does not require the dispatch of a field unit?
- A.
A. Priority 5 – Alternate Response
- B.
B. Priority 4 – Administrative Dispatch
- C.
C. Priority 3 – Routine Dispatch
- D.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer
A. A. Priority 5 – Alternate ResponseExplanation
The correct answer is Priority 5 - Alternate Response. This priority event is described as a response to a call for service that conforms to Alternate Response Strategies outlined in the Department directive titled "Alternate Response Section Case Reporting Policy." It does not require the dispatch of a field unit, indicating that it can be handled without sending personnel to the scene.Rate this question:
- 23.
- Which U. S. Supreme Court case helped set forth that the central inquiry in every use of force is whether the amount of force used by the officer was objectively reasonable in light of the particular circumstances faced by the officer?
- A.
A. Tennessee v Garner
- B.
B. Minnesota v Dickerson
- C.
C. Miranda v Arizona
- D.
D. Graham v Connor
Correct Answer
D. D. Graham v ConnorExplanation
Graham v Connor is the correct answer because this Supreme Court case established the standard for evaluating the use of force by law enforcement officers. The case determined that the central question in every use of force incident is whether the amount of force used by the officer was objectively reasonable based on the circumstances faced by the officer at the time. This ruling set forth the "objective reasonableness" standard, which is now widely used to assess the constitutionality of police use of force.Rate this question:
- 24.
- Whenever reasonable, members will exercise persuasion, advice, and__________prior to the use of physical force.
- A.
A. influence
- B.
B. warning
- C.
C. counsel
- D.
D. guidance
Correct Answer
B. B. warningExplanation
Members will exercise persuasion, advice, and warning prior to the use of physical force. This means that they will try to convince or influence others, provide guidance or counsel, and issue a warning before resorting to physical force. By giving a warning, they give the other person a chance to reconsider their actions and avoid the need for physical force.Rate this question:
- 25.
- True or False? In reportable use of force incidents, each sworn member who uses force will complete a TRR for a single incident.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In reportable use of force incidents, each sworn member who uses force will complete a TRR for a single incident. This means that if multiple officers are involved in a use of force incident, each officer will need to fill out a separate TRR form. This ensures that all details and perspectives of the incident are accurately recorded and documented.Rate this question:
- 26.
- In any instance where a member has discharged a firearm outside the City of Chicago, the member will notify the local police agency and the CPD’S .
- A.
A. OEMC
- B.
B. Bureau of Internal Affairs
- C.
C. IPRA
- D.
D. CPIC
Correct Answer
D. D. CPICExplanation
In any instance where a member has discharged a firearm outside the City of Chicago, the member will notify the local police agency and the CPD's CPIC. CPIC stands for the Chicago Police Department's Crime Prevention and Information Center. This is the correct answer because CPIC is responsible for collecting and analyzing crime data, providing support to officers in the field, and coordinating with other law enforcement agencies. It makes sense that the member would notify CPIC in order to ensure that the incident is properly documented and that any necessary actions are taken.Rate this question:
- 27.
- An active pursuit will involve no more than a primary and one__________ pursuit unit unless authorized by a supervisor.
- A.
A. support
- B.
B. alternative
- C.
C. secondary
- D.
D. none of the above
Correct Answer
C. C. secondaryExplanation
An active pursuit will involve no more than a primary and one secondary pursuit unit unless authorized by a supervisor. This means that during a pursuit, there can be a primary unit (the main unit leading the chase) and one secondary unit (a backup unit), but no more than that, unless a supervisor gives authorization. The answer "c. secondary" aligns with this explanation.Rate this question:
- 28.
- The officer initiating the pursuit will, in all instances, immediately notify the OEMC dispatcher that a pursuit is in progress and provide the following:
- A.
A. Radio-call ID # AND the reason for the pursuit
- B.
B. Location, speed, direction of travel, and # of occupants
- C.
C. Vehicle description, including the license plate #
- D.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer
D. D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is d. All of the above. This means that the officer initiating the pursuit will notify the OEMC dispatcher of the pursuit and provide all of the following information: the radio-call ID # and the reason for the pursuit, the location, speed, direction of travel, and # of occupants, and the vehicle description including the license plate #.Rate this question:
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