Do You Know About Infection
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Write text here
- 2.
What is the most common cause of anaphylaxis?
- A.
Allergy to pollen
- B.
Allergy to antibiotics (penicillin)
- C.
Allergy to peanuts
Correct Answer
B. Allergy to antibiotics (penicillin)Explanation
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. While allergies to pollen and peanuts are common, the most common cause of anaphylaxis is actually an allergy to antibiotics, specifically penicillin. When someone with a penicillin allergy is exposed to this medication, their immune system overreacts, releasing chemicals that cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling, and a drop in blood pressure. It is important for individuals with a known penicillin allergy to avoid this medication and inform healthcare providers to prevent anaphylactic reactions.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the 1st line of defense? Select all that apply
- A.
Skin
- B.
Phagocytosis
- C.
Inflammation
- D.
Mucous Membranes
Correct Answer(s)
A. Skin
D. Mucous MembranesExplanation
The first line of defense refers to the body's initial barriers that protect against pathogens. The skin acts as a physical barrier that prevents the entry of microorganisms. Mucous membranes, such as those in the respiratory and digestive tracts, produce mucus that traps pathogens and prevents their entry into the body. Therefore, both the skin and mucous membranes are part of the first line of defense against pathogens. Phagocytosis, which is the process of engulfing and destroying pathogens by specialized cells, is part of the second line of defense, not the first. Inflammation is also part of the second line of defense, involving the recruitment of immune cells to the site of infection.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is the 2nd line of defense? Select all that apply
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Skin
- C.
Phagocytosis
- D.
Mucous Membranes
Correct Answer(s)
A. Inflammation
C. pHagocytosisExplanation
The second line of defense includes inflammation and phagocytosis. Inflammation is a response triggered by the body to protect against harmful stimuli such as pathogens or tissue damage. It involves the release of chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate and increase blood flow to the affected area, leading to redness, swelling, and heat. Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is the process by which immune cells called phagocytes engulf and destroy foreign particles or pathogens. Both inflammation and phagocytosis play crucial roles in the body's immune response to infection or injury.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Inflammation means 'the fire within' it is a nonspecific immune response that occurs in response to bodily injury. What are the 5 signs? Select all that apply
- A.
Coldness
- B.
Tumor (swelling)
- C.
Numbness
- D.
Calor (heat)
- E.
Rubor (redness)
- F.
Loss of function
- G.
Dolor (pain
Correct Answer(s)
B. Tumor (swelling)
D. Calor (heat)
E. Rubor (redness)
F. Loss of function
G. Dolor (painExplanation
Inflammation is a nonspecific immune response that occurs in response to bodily injury. The five signs of inflammation are tumor (swelling), calor (heat), rubor (redness), loss of function, and dolor (pain). These signs indicate the body's attempt to protect and repair the injured tissue. Coldness and numbness are not signs of inflammation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the correct order of the chain of infection?
- A.
Portal of exit, reservoir, mode of transmission, vector transmission, portal of entry, causative agent
- B.
Portal of entry, reservoir, causative agent, mode of transmission, vector transmission, portal of exit
- C.
Causative agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, vector transmission, portal of entry
Correct Answer
C. Causative agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, vector transmission, portal of entryExplanation
The correct order of the chain of infection is as follows: causative agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, vector transmission, portal of entry. This order represents the sequence of events in which an infectious agent is transmitted from one host to another. The causative agent refers to the microorganism or pathogen causing the infection. The reservoir is the source or location where the pathogen resides. The portal of exit is the route through which the pathogen leaves the reservoir. The mode of transmission is the method by which the pathogen is transmitted. Vector transmission specifically refers to transmission through a vector, such as a mosquito or tick. Lastly, the portal of entry is the route through which the pathogen enters a new host.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which hormone is produced by the adrenal cortex, is an anti-inflammatory, slows release of histamine & is mimicked by corticosteroids?
- A.
Testosterone
- B.
Estrogen
- C.
Epinephrine
- D.
Cortisol
Correct Answer
D. CortisolExplanation
Cortisol is the correct answer because it is a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that has anti-inflammatory properties. It also slows down the release of histamine, which is involved in allergic reactions. Cortisol's actions are similar to corticosteroids, which are synthetic drugs that mimic its effects.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The aging process can be delayed in the older person as a result of decreased tissue elasticity & decreased blood supply.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement suggests that the aging process can be delayed in older individuals due to two factors: decreased tissue elasticity and decreased blood supply. These factors can contribute to maintaining a more youthful appearance and overall health in older people. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Iatrogenic Infections are infections caused by the process of giving care. (C-Diff)
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Iatrogenic infections refer to infections that are caused by medical or healthcare procedures. In this case, the specific example mentioned is Clostridium difficile (C-Diff) infection, which is commonly associated with healthcare settings. Therefore, it is true that iatrogenic infections can be caused by the process of giving care.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Neupogen- can help the body make WBC after receiving cancer medications. Can also improve survival in people who have been exposed to radiation
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Neupogen is a medication that can stimulate the production of white blood cells (WBC) in the body. This is particularly useful for individuals who have received cancer medications that may suppress the immune system and lower WBC counts. Additionally, Neupogen has been shown to improve survival rates in individuals who have been exposed to radiation. Therefore, the statement that Neupogen can help the body make WBC after receiving cancer medications and improve survival in people exposed to radiation is true.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HARRT): is a combination if antiretroviral drugs that may be prescribed when the HIV viral load reaches certain levels,
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART) is indeed a combination of antiretroviral drugs that are prescribed when the HIV viral load reaches certain levels. HAART is a standard treatment for HIV infection and is highly effective in suppressing the replication of the virus, reducing the viral load, and improving the immune system. It involves taking a combination of different antiretroviral drugs simultaneously to target the virus at various stages of its life cycle. This approach helps to prevent the virus from replicating and developing drug resistance, thus improving the overall health and longevity of individuals living with HIV.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When is a patient considered to have AIDS?
- A.
When the CD8 level drops below 300 cells/mm
- B.
When the CD8 level drops below 500 cells/mm
- C.
When the CD4 level drops below 200 cells/mm
- D.
When the CD4 level drops below 1000 cells/mm
Correct Answer
C. When the CD4 level drops below 200 cells/mmExplanation
When the CD4 level drops below 200 cells/mm, a patient is considered to have AIDS. CD4 cells are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. In individuals with a healthy immune system, the CD4 count is typically between 500 and 1,600 cells/mm. However, when the CD4 count drops below 200 cells/mm, it indicates severe immunodeficiency, which is a defining characteristic of AIDS. At this stage, the immune system is significantly compromised, making the patient more susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain types of cancers.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Mode of TransmissionDirect contact: transfer of microorganisms directlyIndirect contact: occurs when pathogens are spread through droplets expelled during a sneeze or a cough or through inanimate objects
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given statement is true because direct contact and indirect contact are indeed modes of transmission for microorganisms. Direct contact refers to the transfer of microorganisms from one person to another through physical touch or close proximity. Indirect contact, on the other hand, occurs when pathogens are spread through droplets expelled during a sneeze or a cough, or through inanimate objects like doorknobs or surfaces. Both direct and indirect contact can contribute to the spread of infectious diseases.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Anaphylaxis: an allergic reaction when a allergen enters the bloodstream.S/S: anxiety, wheezing, dyspnea, cyanosis, hives, facial edema, joint pain, hypotensionAs a nurse how would you provide care of the patient experiencing anaphylaxis? Select all tat apply
- A.
Give oxygen & IV epinephrine
- B.
Dopamine or a volume expander (or both) to raise BP
- C.
A nebulized bronchodilator to relax bronchi & improve ventilation
- D.
Diphenhydramine for antihistamine effects
- E.
Corticosteroids to decrease the inflammatory response
- F.
Monitor respirations, HR, color, & oxygen saturation until the patient is fully recovered
- G.
Monitor IV fluids & minimize the patients anxiety
Correct Answer(s)
A. Give oxygen & IV epinepHrine
B. Dopamine or a volume expander (or both) to raise BP
C. A nebulized bronchodilator to relax bronchi & improve ventilation
D. DipHenhydramine for antihistamine effects
E. Corticosteroids to decrease the inflammatory response
F. Monitor respirations, HR, color, & oxygen saturation until the patient is fully recovered
G. Monitor IV fluids & minimize the patients anxietyExplanation
The correct answer includes multiple interventions that are appropriate for providing care to a patient experiencing anaphylaxis. Giving oxygen and IV epinephrine helps to improve oxygenation and reduce the allergic response. Dopamine or a volume expander can be used to raise blood pressure, which may drop during anaphylaxis. A nebulized bronchodilator helps to relax the bronchi and improve ventilation. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can help alleviate symptoms. Corticosteroids are used to decrease the inflammatory response. Monitoring respirations, heart rate, color, and oxygen saturation is important to assess the patient's condition. Additionally, monitoring IV fluids and minimizing the patient's anxiety are important aspects of care.Rate this question:
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- 15.
HIVInitial stage lasts 4-8 weeks: generalized flu symptoms (malaise, N&V, rash, diarrhea, decreased appetite)Latent Stage lasts 2-12 yrs.: patient is asymptomatic, eventually has persistent infections.3rd stage lasts 2-3 years: patient begins to experience opportunistic infections. CD4 levels usually less than 500 & declining.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given statement is true. The initial stage of HIV infection lasts for 4-8 weeks and is characterized by generalized flu-like symptoms such as malaise, nausea and vomiting, rash, diarrhea, and decreased appetite. The latent stage can last for 2-12 years, during which the patient is asymptomatic but may eventually develop persistent infections. The third stage lasts for 2-3 years and is marked by the onset of opportunistic infections. In this stage, the CD4 levels are usually less than 500 and declining.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Fomite: any item that has been touched or cross-contaminated by the host (bed rails)
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The correct answer is true because fomite refers to any item that has been touched or cross-contaminated by the host, such as bed rails. This means that if a person who is infected with a contagious disease touches a bed rail, the bed rail becomes a fomite. Fomites can play a role in the transmission of diseases, as they can harbor pathogens and potentially transfer them to other individuals who come into contact with the contaminated item. Therefore, it is important to practice good hygiene and regularly disinfect commonly touched surfaces to prevent the spread of diseases.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A series of blood screenings are performed to test for HIV. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is done first, if you are positive on the ELISA a western blot is done to confirm it.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The explanation for the correct answer is that ELISA is a screening test for HIV that detects antibodies to the virus. It is highly sensitive but may produce false positives. Therefore, if a person tests positive on the ELISA, a confirmatory test like the western blot is performed to rule out any false positives and provide a definitive diagnosis. Therefore, it is true that a western blot is done to confirm a positive result on the ELISA.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Aug 22, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Apr 01, 2016Quiz Created by
Jhayes0719
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