Security Forces Craftsman Vol. 1

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

The military is one of the shows of might of any country. It involves many hours of endless training, all which is necessary for the line of work. The security forces craftsman vol. 1 tests more on the subject.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the most rigorous stage of development? 

    • A.

      SrA

    • B.

      MSgt

    • C.

      Ssgt and Tsgt

    • D.

      Amn and A1C

    Correct Answer
    D. Amn and A1C
    Explanation
    The most rigorous stage of development is at the level of Amn and A1C. This is because at this stage, individuals are relatively new to the military and are still learning the basics. They are expected to undergo extensive training and development in order to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively. Additionally, they are often closely supervised and evaluated to ensure they meet the standards and requirements of the military.

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  • 2. 

    Which of these is not a Senior Airman Duty?

    • A.

      Patrol leader

    • B.

      Squad leader

    • C.

      BDOC

    • D.

      ISRT/ESRT

    Correct Answer
    B. Squad leader
    Explanation
    A squad leader is not a Senior Airman duty because a Senior Airman is typically an enlisted rank in the Air Force, and a squad leader is a leadership position within a squad or unit. Senior Airmen are usually responsible for performing technical duties and providing support to higher-ranking officers, whereas a squad leader is responsible for leading and managing a group of individuals within the unit.

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  • 3. 

    Which Ssgt or Tsgt dust is available in certain locations?

    • A.

      Supervisor

    • B.

      Flight Sergeant

    • C.

      Response force leader

    • D.

      NCOIC/ Assistant NCOIC

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight Sergeant
    Explanation
    Flight Sergeant is the correct answer because it is a rank in the Royal Air Force (RAF) and certain locations may have Flight Sergeants available. Ssgt or Tsgt dust is not a recognizable term or acronym, and Supervisor, Response force leader, and NCOIC/Assistant NCOIC are not specific to certain locations. Therefore, Flight Sergeant is the most logical choice as the correct answer.

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  • 4. 

    What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?

    • A.

      MSgt

    • B.

      CMSGT

    • C.

      SMSGT

    • D.

      SSGT AND TSGT

    Correct Answer
    C. SMSGT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SMSGT. In the military, SMSGT stands for Senior Master Sergeant, which is a rank that is typically associated with higher levels of leadership and responsibility. At this level, individuals are expected to have a strong understanding of operational and strategic concepts and be able to effectively lead and manage teams in complex and challenging situations.

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  • 5. 

    What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?

    • A.

      Tactical control

    • B.

      Strategic control

    • C.

      Operational control

    • D.

      Administrative Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Tactical control
    Explanation
    Tactical control refers to the type of control that is present over assigned or attached forces or commands. It involves the authority to direct and coordinate military forces and assets in order to achieve specific objectives in a particular operational area. Tactical control focuses on the immediate and short-term actions and decisions made on the battlefield. It is typically exercised by lower-level commanders who are responsible for the execution of military operations and tactics.

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  • 6. 

    Which commander exercises operational control?

    • A.

      Squadron commander

    • B.

      Installation commander

    • C.

      Joint Force Commander

    • D.

      Major command Commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Joint Force Commander
    Explanation
    The Joint Force Commander exercises operational control because they are responsible for the overall planning and execution of military operations involving multiple services or agencies. They have the authority to direct and coordinate the actions of all forces assigned to the joint operation, ensuring unity of effort and achieving the mission objectives. The squadron commander, installation commander, and major command commander have more limited roles and responsibilities within their specific units or geographical areas.

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  • 7. 

    Supervisors must ensure their troops

    • A.

      Have food and water

    • B.

      Possess required qualifications and certifications

    • C.

      Are supplied with weapons and required equipment

    • D.

      Are issued special security instructions and study material

    Correct Answer
    B. Possess required qualifications and certifications
    Explanation
    Supervisors must ensure that their troops possess the required qualifications and certifications. This is important to ensure that the troops have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively and safely. Having the required qualifications and certifications also demonstrates that the troops have met the necessary standards and requirements for their specific roles. This ensures that they are capable and competent in their assigned tasks, which is crucial for the overall success of the team or unit.

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  • 8. 

    Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      Security forces manager

    • D.

      Unit deployment manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the scheduling of flights. They are in charge of ensuring that all flights are organized and planned effectively, taking into consideration factors such as pilot availability, aircraft maintenance, and mission requirements. The squadron commander's role is crucial in ensuring the smooth operation of the unit's flight schedule.

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  • 9. 

    Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the

    • A.

      Duty roster

    • B.

      Post priority listing

    • C.

      Unit manning document

    • D.

      Unit personnel manning roster

    Correct Answer
    B. Post priority listing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Post priority listing." A post priority listing is a document that determines the order in which posts or patrols should be manned. It helps to prioritize the allocation of personnel to different posts based on their importance or urgency. This ensures that critical areas or tasks are adequately staffed and that resources are allocated efficiently. The duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may also be relevant for determining staffing levels, but they do not specifically address the prioritization of posts or patrols.

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  • 10. 

    All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties except the

    • A.

      Major command Commander

    • B.

      MAJCOM vice commander

    • C.

      Installation Commander

    • D.

      Combatant Commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation Commander
    Explanation
    The Installation Commander is not authorized to authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties. This responsibility falls under the jurisdiction of the Major command Commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and Combatant Commander. The Installation Commander is responsible for the management and operation of a specific military installation and does not have the authority to make decisions regarding firearms authorization in foreign countries.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm?

    • A.

      Supervisor

    • B.

      Commander

    • C.

      Servicing armory

    • D.

      Security forces manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Commander
    Explanation
    The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. As the person in charge of a military unit or organization, the commander has the authority to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms. They have the power to suspend or revoke someone's right to bear arms if they deem it necessary for the safety and security of the unit or individual.

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  • 12. 

    How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.

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  • 13. 

    What drives a post priority chart?

    • A.

      Vulnerability assessment

    • B.

      Inspector General assessment

    • C.

      Force protection Conditions

    • D.

      Integrated defense risk management assessment

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrated defense risk management assessment
    Explanation
    The Integrated Defense Risk Management Assessment drives a post priority chart. This assessment helps in identifying and evaluating potential risks and threats to a military post or installation. It takes into consideration various factors such as vulnerability assessment, Inspector General assessment, and force protection conditions to determine the priority of different posts. By conducting this assessment, military authorities can allocate resources and prioritize their actions based on the level of risk and potential impact on the overall defense system.

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  • 14. 

    Post priority charts are used to

    • A.

      Allocate vehicles

    • B.

      Allocate manpower

    • C.

      Determine post rotations

    • D.

      Determine weapon configurations

    Correct Answer
    B. Allocate manpower
    Explanation
    Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that these charts are used to determine how many personnel are needed for each post or task. By using these charts, organizations can ensure that they have the right number of people in each position, based on the priority and importance of the tasks. This helps in optimizing the allocation of manpower resources and ensuring that all posts are adequately staffed. It also helps in identifying any gaps or imbalances in the distribution of manpower and allows for adjustments to be made accordingly.

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  • 15. 

    Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?

    • A.

      Group commander

    • B.

      Security forces manager

    • C.

      Defense Forces commandrr

    • D.

      Each individual flight chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense Forces commandrr
    Explanation
    The Defense Forces commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This implies that the commander is responsible for making decisions regarding the allocation of resources and personnel within the Defense Forces. They have the power to decide whether certain posts can be left unmanned, potentially based on factors such as the current situation, available resources, and strategic priorities.

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  • 16. 

    The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited security forces in

    • A.

      Higher force protection conditions

    • B.

      Peacetime and wartime

    • C.

      Peacetime

    • D.

      Wartime

    Correct Answer
    B. Peacetime and wartime
    Explanation
    The post priority chart is designed to optimize the allocation of limited security forces in both peacetime and wartime. This means that regardless of the security conditions, whether it is a higher force protection condition or during times of peace or war, the chart ensures that the available security forces are utilized efficiently. It provides a systematic approach to prioritize posts and allocate resources based on the level of threat or importance, allowing for effective security measures to be implemented in any situation.

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  • 17. 

    When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain

    • A.

      Proficiency

    • B.

      Discipline

    • C.

      Fairness

    • D.

      Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Proficiency
    Explanation
    Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified ensures that they gain experience and expertise in different areas, thereby enhancing their proficiency. By being exposed to different roles, individuals can develop a broader skill set and a deeper understanding of the organization's operations. This rotation also prevents employees from becoming complacent or stagnant in one position, promoting continuous learning and growth. Ultimately, maintaining proficiency among personnel contributes to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the organization.

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  • 18. 

    What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?

    • A.

      Post rotations

    • B.

      Specialized courses

    • C.

      Recognition program

    • D.

      Providing time off

    Correct Answer
    A. Post rotations
    Explanation
    Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high by providing variety and new challenges for the team. By rotating individuals to different positions or tasks within the flight, it prevents monotony and allows team members to learn new skills. This can boost morale as it keeps the team engaged and motivated. Additionally, post rotations provide opportunities for personal growth and development, which can further contribute to a positive and high morale within the flight.

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  • 19. 

    As a supervisor what must you instill in your subordinates?

    • A.

      Standards

    • B.

      Discipline

    • C.

      Work ethic

    • D.

      Mentorship

    Correct Answer
    C. Work ethic
    Explanation
    As a supervisor, it is essential to instill a strong work ethic in your subordinates. This means promoting values such as dedication, responsibility, and professionalism in the workplace. By emphasizing the importance of a strong work ethic, supervisors can ensure that their subordinates are motivated, focused, and committed to achieving the goals of the organization. This will ultimately lead to increased productivity, efficiency, and overall success within the team.

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  • 20. 

    What should you do if your subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?

    • A.

      Issue paperwork

    • B.

      Verbally counsel the subordinate

    • C.

      Investigate to determine the cause

    • D.

      Assign the subordinate a new supervisor

    Correct Answer
    C. Investigate to determine the cause
    Explanation
    When a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This step is crucial in order to understand the underlying reasons behind the employee's performance issues. By conducting an investigation, the supervisor can identify any potential obstacles or challenges that may be affecting the subordinate's performance. This will enable the supervisor to address the root cause of the problem and provide appropriate guidance or support to help the subordinate improve their performance.

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  • 21. 

    The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is

    • A.

      Report

    • B.

      Parade rest

    • C.

      Open ranks march

    • D.

      Prepare for inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Report
    Explanation
    After the flight falls in for inspection, the next command given would be "Report". This command is used to indicate that the individuals in the flight should provide their names or any necessary information to the person in charge of the inspection. It is a way to ensure accountability and organization within the flight during the inspection process.

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  • 22. 

    After the command "open rank, March", which of the following action does the flight take?

    • A.

      The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal.interval. each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces forward, halts and automatically executes dress right dress

    • B.

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress

    • C.

      Not this long option

    • D.

      Nor this long option

    Correct Answer
    B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress
    Explanation
    After the command "open rank, March", the flight takes the following action: The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress. This means that the last person in the formation remains in place while everyone else moves forward a certain number of paces before halting and performing the dress right dress action.

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  • 23. 

    After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left facing movement.

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  • 24. 

    When does the second element leader give the command "Second elemen, Attention"

    • A.

      As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands "Second element, attention"

    • B.

      As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element

    • C.

      As the inspecting official gets withing two paces of the right flank of the formation

    • D.

      As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader

    Correct Answer
    A. As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands "Second element, attention"
  • 25. 

    When do you give the command "Close ranks, March!"?

    • A.

      Upon departure of the inspecting offical

    • B.

      At the completion of the guard mount briefing

    • C.

      Immediately after the fourth rank has been inspected

    • D.

      When the remarks of the inspecting offical have been completed

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon departure of the inspecting offical
    Explanation
    The command "Close ranks, March!" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This command is used to signal the guards to close their ranks and resume their positions after the inspection is complete. It ensures that the formation is ready to move on to the next phase of the ceremony or event.

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  • 26. 

    Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?

    • A.

      AFI 36-2903

    • B.

      AFI 36-2905

    • C.

      AFMAN 36-2903

    • D.

      AFMAN 36-2905

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 36-2905
    Explanation
    AFI 36-2905 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides information about current fitness standards and assessments. AFI 36-2905 specifically covers the Air Force Fitness Program and outlines the requirements for physical fitness testing, as well as the standards that individuals must meet to maintain their fitness and readiness for duty. This instruction is a reliable source of information for anyone looking to understand the current fitness standards and assessments in the Air Force.

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  • 27. 

    Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?

    • A.

      Flight member

    • B.

      Flight supervisor

    • C.

      Flight commander

    • D.

      On commissioned officer in charge of supply

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight member
    Explanation
    The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that it is their duty to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and to report any issues or malfunctions. This responsibility is likely assigned to the flight member because they have direct access to and knowledge of the equipment they use on a regular basis. The flight supervisor and flight commander may also have some oversight and responsibility, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the individual flight member. The commissioned officer in charge of supply may have a role in managing the inventory and procurement of equipment, but they may not have direct responsibility for its maintenance.

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  • 28. 

    A post check generally includes all of these items except

    • A.

      Area inspection

    • B.

      Facility inspection

    • C.

      Weapons inspection

    • D.

      Classified material inspection

    Correct Answer
    C. Weapons inspection
    Explanation
    A post check is a process that involves inspecting various aspects of a facility or area. It typically includes area inspection, facility inspection, and classified material inspection to ensure everything is in order. However, weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check as it is more specific to security measures and may be conducted separately.

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  • 29. 

    What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else's writing?

    • A.

      AFI 33-337

    • B.

      AFH 33-336

    • C.

      AFI 32-337

    • D.

      AFH 33-337

    Correct Answer
    D. AFH 33-337
    Explanation
    AFH 33-337 is the correct answer because it is a publication that provides guidance for effective communication and offers tools for reviewing and assessing someone else's writing. This publication is likely to contain valuable information and resources that can assist individuals in improving their communication skills and evaluating the quality of written content.

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  • 30. 

    When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is 

    • A.

      Lengthy

    • B.

      Made up

    • C.

      Irrelevant

    • D.

      Inappropriate

    Correct Answer
    C. Irrelevant
    Explanation
    When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one of the concerns is that it may contain irrelevant information. Irrelevant information can distract the reader from the main points and make it difficult to understand and apply the technical content effectively. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the material is focused and only includes relevant information that is necessary for the intended audience.

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  • 31. 

    The primary function of reviewing is to ensure

    • A.

      The communication gets the point across

    • B.

      Ideas are being communicated understandably, ND the communication gets the point across.

    • C.

      Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect puncuation) and the communication gets the point across

    • D.

      Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across

    Correct Answer
    D. Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, pHrases, and paragrapHs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across
    Explanation
    The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, using acceptable English with correct grammar, easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs, and proper punctuation. Additionally, the review process aims to ensure that the communication effectively conveys the intended point or message.

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  • 32. 

    Who's is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

    • A.

      Unit training section

    • B.

      Defense force commander

    • C.

      Air force security forces center

    • D.

      Senior security forces non-commissioned officers

    Correct Answer
    C. Air force security forces center
    Explanation
    The Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This suggests that they have the authority and resources to develop and implement training programs for security forces personnel. They are likely to have specialized knowledge and expertise in security forces training, making them the most suitable entity to oversee the training program.

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  • 33. 

    Who's is reponsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools? 

    • A.

      Unit training secrion

    • B.

      Immediate supervisors

    • C.

      Air force security forces center

    • D.

      Senior security forces NCO'S

    Correct Answer
    D. Senior security forces NCO'S
    Explanation
    Senior security forces NCO's are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They play a crucial role in overseeing the training and development of security forces personnel, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their duties effectively. This includes identifying training needs, coordinating training programs, evaluating performance, and providing guidance and mentorship to enlisted personnel.

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  • 34. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • A.

      Analysis

    • B.

      Feedback

    • C.

      Evaluation

    • D.

      Cross-feed

    Correct Answer
    B. Feedback
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it allows them to gather information and insights about their performance and make necessary adjustments. Feedback provides commanders with an understanding of how their decisions and actions are perceived by others, helps them identify areas of improvement, and enables them to make informed decisions based on the input received. By actively seeking and utilizing feedback, commanders can enhance their leadership skills, optimize their strategies, and ultimately achieve their objectives more effectively.

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  • 35. 

    The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to

    • A.

      Measure qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions

    • B.

      Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller

    • C.

      Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions

    • D.

      Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions
    Explanation
    The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This evaluation ensures that individuals have the necessary skills and abilities to effectively carry out their assigned duties. It helps in determining whether an individual is suitable for a particular position and provides a certification that validates their competency. By assessing qualifications, the evaluation process helps in ensuring that only qualified individuals are assigned to specific duty positions.

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  • 36. 

    The primary purpose of the Military Working Dog is to 

    • A.

      Aggressive against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources

    • B.

      Track, detect, and aggressive against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources

    • C.

      Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources

    • D.

      Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources

    Correct Answer
    D. Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the Military Working Dog is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the dogs are trained to discourage potential intruders from entering Air Force areas, identify any intruders that do enter, and physically restrain or apprehend them if necessary. The dogs play a crucial role in enhancing security and protecting Air Force resources by providing a highly trained and capable force to respond to potential threats.

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  • 37. 

    Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is

    • A.

      Apprehension or release

    • B.

      Pepper spray or gunfire

    • C.

      Resistance or restraint

    • D.

      Gunfire or escape

    Correct Answer
    D. Gunfire or escape
    Explanation
    Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that when faced with a situation where the use of firearms or the possibility of the suspect escaping is present, patrol dogs are seen as a safer and less harmful option. Patrol dogs can be used to apprehend suspects without resorting to the use of firearms, reducing the risk of injury or death to both the suspect and law enforcement personnel. Additionally, the use of patrol dogs can help prevent suspects from escaping, ensuring that they are brought to justice.

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  • 38. 

    When using dogs on deception screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?

    • A.

      In low contact areas, so they don't give away your position to the enemy by barking

    • B.

      Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability

    • C.

      At Key vantage points and avenues of apoach to deny entry to unauthorized persons

    • D.

      Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy

    Correct Answer
    C. At Key vantage points and avenues of apoach to deny entry to unauthorized persons
    Explanation
    Dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This positioning allows the dogs to effectively monitor and control access to certain areas, preventing the entry of individuals who are not authorized. By being positioned strategically, the dogs can act as a deterrent and provide an extra layer of security.

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  • 39. 

    A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous 

    • A.

      Deterrent to potential violators

    • B.

      Physical deterrent to potential violators

    • C.

      Physiological deterrent to potential violators

    • D.

      Psychological deterrent to potential violators

    Correct Answer
    D. Psychological deterrent to potential violators
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team used in police services activities can act as a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a well-trained and intimidating police dog can create fear and uncertainty in the minds of potential criminals, making them think twice before engaging in illegal activities. The perception of being chased or apprehended by a police dog can be enough to discourage individuals from committing crimes, thus serving as a psychological deterrent.

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  • 40. 

    During peaceful confrontations, the MWD team should be positioned

    • A.

      In reserve, out of sight of the crowd

    • B.

      Off to the side, out of direct vision of the crowd

    • C.

      Right out in front to ward off potential participants

    • D.

      Elsewhere and not used in peaceful confrontations

    Correct Answer
    A. In reserve, out of sight of the crowd
    Explanation
    During peaceful confrontations, it is important for the MWD team to be positioned in reserve, out of sight of the crowd. This allows them to be ready to intervene if necessary, without provoking or escalating the situation. Being out of sight also helps to maintain a peaceful atmosphere and prevent unnecessary tension or fear among the crowd. By staying in reserve, the MWD team can effectively monitor the situation and take appropriate action if needed, while still allowing the peaceful confrontation to proceed without interference.

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  • 41. 

    All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 37-117, arming and use of force by air force personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the

    • A.

      Threat working group

    • B.

      Integrated base defense council

    • C.

      Force protection commodity council

    • D.

      Equipment, weapons, and configuration board

    Correct Answer
    B. Integrated base defense council
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Integrated base defense council. The explanation for this answer is that all arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 37-117, which is a regulation that governs the arming and use of force by air force personnel. Additionally, the other options listed (Threat working group, Force protection commodity council, and Equipment, weapons, and configuration board) do not specifically pertain to arming rules and are therefore not the correct answer.

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  • 42. 

    "All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked" means that they

    • A.

      All must have SF badges applied to both the front doors

    • B.

      Al must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios

    • C.

      Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system

    • D.

      All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD

    Correct Answer
    C. Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system
    Explanation
    The statement "All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked" implies that these vehicles are required to have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This is because these features are essential for ensuring the visibility and audibility of the security forces vehicles while performing their duties. These tools help to alert and communicate with the public in emergency situations, enhancing the effectiveness and safety of the security forces.

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  • 43. 

    Which radio type can talk over great distances?

    • A.

      Base station

    • B.

      Portable radio

    • C.

      Basic station remote

    • D.

      Mobile two-way radion

    Correct Answer
    D. Mobile two-way radion
    Explanation
    A mobile two-way radio is capable of transmitting and receiving signals over great distances. Unlike a base station or portable radio, a mobile two-way radio is designed to be used while in motion, allowing for communication over larger areas. It typically has a higher power output and a longer antenna, which enables it to reach farther distances compared to other radio types. Therefore, a mobile two-way radio is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 44. 

    The basic pursue of the financial plan submission is to

    • A.

      Ensure the Air Force is a lower to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions

    • B.

      Ensure an equitable distribution of the President's budget for the next fiscal year

    • C.

      Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission

    • D.

      Provide congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensure an equitable distribution of the President's budget for the next fiscal year
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ensure an equitable distribution of the President's budget for the next fiscal year." This means that the purpose of the financial plan submission is to ensure that the budget allocated by the President for the next fiscal year is distributed fairly and evenly among different areas or departments within the Air Force. It is important to ensure that resources are allocated in a balanced manner to meet the needs of various operations and missions.

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  • 45. 

    Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year?

    • A.

      Numbered air forces

    • B.

      Headquarters Air Force

    • C.

      MAJCOMs

    • D.

      Air Force Security Forces Center

    Correct Answer
    C. MAJCOMs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MAJCOMs. MAJCOMs stands for Major Commands and they are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping the various units within the United States Air Force. They provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year, indicating that they allocate and distribute security forces to the different units based on their needs and requirements. Numbered air forces, Headquarters Air Force, and Air Force Security Forces Center may have roles related to security forces, but they do not specifically provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year.

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  • 46. 

    What is not a category for the status of funds?

    • A.

      Committed

    • B.

      Obligated

    • C.

      End of year

    • D.

      Uncommitted

    Correct Answer
    C. End of year
    Explanation
    The status of funds can be categorized as committed, obligated, or uncommitted, but "end of year" is not a category for the status of funds. The end of year refers to a specific time period rather than a category for the status of funds.

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  • 47. 

    Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) functional

    • B.

      MAJCOM corporate structure

    • C.

      Financial management board

    • D.

      Financial working group

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM) functional
    Explanation
    The Major command (MAJCOM) functional reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that the installation submissions are accurate and meet the requirements of their functional area. They have the expertise and authority to assess the submissions and make informed decisions on their validity.

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  • 48. 

    What provides standards to help commanders determine the an power requirements for their units?

    • A.

      Manpower standards program

    • B.

      Manpower standards platform

    • C.

      Management engineering program

    • D.

      Management and equipment program

    Correct Answer
    C. Management engineering program
    Explanation
    The management engineering program provides standards to help commanders determine the power requirements for their units. This program focuses on optimizing the management and utilization of resources, including manpower and equipment. By using established standards and methodologies, commanders can accurately assess the power needs of their units and make informed decisions regarding resource allocation and planning.

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  • 49. 

    When are manpower numbers reviewed

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Bi-annually

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    Manpower numbers are reviewed annually. This means that the evaluation and assessment of the number of employees or workers in an organization is conducted once every year. This review helps in determining the current workforce and making decisions related to recruitment, layoffs, promotions, and other workforce management strategies. By reviewing the manpower numbers annually, organizations can ensure that they have the right number of employees to meet their business needs and objectives.

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  • 50. 

    Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?

    • A.

      Work center

    • B.

      Position number

    • C.

      AFSC

    • D.

      Report no later than date

    Correct Answer
    D. Report no later than date
    Explanation
    The report no later than date is not tracked on the unit manning document. The unit manning document typically includes information such as work center, position number, and AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) to track personnel and their assigned roles within the unit. However, the report no later than date is not a component of the unit manning document as it pertains to reporting deadlines or arrival times for individuals rather than their specific positions or roles.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 28, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    JOEBAWDEN
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