N312 Neuro/ Mental Status
This is a basic quiz to test your knowledge on neurological and mental disorders. Enjoy
- 1.
Which of the following is a major role of the central nervous system?
- A.
Involuntary control of internal environment
- B.
Personality and strength
- C.
Body control and coordination
- D.
Fight or flight
Correct Answer
C. Body control and coordinationExplanation
The central nervous system plays a major role in body control and coordination. It is responsible for receiving and processing sensory information from the body and sending appropriate signals to the muscles and organs to produce coordinated movements and actions. This includes controlling voluntary movements, maintaining balance and posture, and regulating bodily functions such as heart rate and respiration.Rate this question:
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- 2.
True or False? The parasympathetic system is a fight or flight response.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The parasympathetic system is not a fight or flight response. It is responsible for promoting rest, relaxation, and digestion. The fight or flight response is associated with the sympathetic nervous system, which prepares the body for action in response to perceived threats or stressors.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the function of the cerebellum?
- A.
Body control and coordination
- B.
Integration of voluntary movement: posture, balance, coordination
- C.
Involuntary control of internal environment
- D.
Comprehension of written words and symbols
Correct Answer
B. Integration of voluntary movement: posture, balance, coordinationExplanation
The cerebellum is responsible for the integration of voluntary movement, including maintaining posture, balance, and coordination. It receives information from various sensory systems and helps to coordinate muscle movements, ensuring smooth and precise execution of voluntary actions. It does not play a role in the comprehension of written words and symbols or the involuntary control of the internal environment.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following s/sx are associated with upper motor neuron lesions?
- A.
Muscle spasticity, contractures
- B.
Absent abdominal reflex
- C.
Fasiculations
- D.
Muscle flaccidity, decreased tone
- E.
Hyperreflexia
Correct Answer(s)
A. Muscle spasticity, contractures
B. Absent abdominal reflex
E. HyperreflexiaExplanation
Muscle spasticity, contractures, absent abdominal reflex, and hyperreflexia are all associated with upper motor neuron lesions. Upper motor neuron lesions occur in the brain or spinal cord and can result in increased muscle tone (spasticity) and muscle stiffness (contractures). The absent abdominal reflex is a reflex that is normally present when stroking the abdomen, but it is diminished or absent in upper motor neuron lesions. Hyperreflexia refers to an exaggerated reflex response, which is also commonly seen in upper motor neuron lesions.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following s/sx are associated with lower motor neuron lesions?
- A.
Little of no muscle atrophy
- B.
Paralysis: same side as lesion at and below level of injury
- C.
Decreased to no plantar reflex
- D.
Absent abdominal reflex
- E.
Positive Babinski reflex
Correct Answer(s)
B. Paralysis: same side as lesion at and below level of injury
C. Decreased to no plantar reflex
D. Absent abdominal reflexExplanation
Lower motor neuron lesions are characterized by damage to the motor neurons in the spinal cord or peripheral nerves. This can result in paralysis on the same side as the lesion at and below the level of injury. Additionally, lower motor neuron lesions can cause a decreased or absent plantar reflex, as well as an absent abdominal reflex. The presence of a positive Babinski reflex is associated with upper motor neuron lesions, not lower motor neuron lesions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When should cranial nerves be assessed in the physical examination?
- A.
Peripheral vascular
- B.
Musculoskeletal
- C.
Head and Neck
- D.
Integumentary
Correct Answer
C. Head and NeckExplanation
Cranial nerves should be assessed in the physical examination when examining the head and neck. The cranial nerves are responsible for controlling various functions in the head and neck region, such as facial expressions, eye movements, and sensory perception. Assessing the cranial nerves can help identify any abnormalities or dysfunction in these areas, providing valuable information for diagnosis and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is not a risk factor for acquiring stroke/ CVA
- A.
HTN
- B.
Hyperlipidemia
- C.
Contraceptive use
- D.
Being over 55
Correct Answer
D. Being over 55Explanation
Being over 55 is not a risk factor for acquiring stroke/CVA. While age is a risk factor for many health conditions, including stroke, being over 55 is not specifically associated with an increased risk of stroke. However, HTN (high blood pressure), hyperlipidemia (high levels of lipids or cholesterol in the blood), and contraceptive use are all known risk factors for stroke/CVA.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is not a chief complaint for patients with neurological disorders?
- A.
Seizures
- B.
Nausea
- C.
Pain
- D.
Weakness or paresthesia
Correct Answer
B. NauseaExplanation
Patients with neurological disorders commonly present with symptoms such as seizures, pain, weakness, or paresthesia. Nausea, however, is not typically considered a chief complaint for patients with neurological disorders. Nausea is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal or other non-neurological conditions. Therefore, among the given options, nausea is the only one that does not typically indicate a neurological disorder.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following is the most sensitive indicator of changes in the neurological status of patients with neurological disorders?
- A.
LOC
- B.
Orientation
- C.
Cognitive function
- D.
Coordination
Correct Answer
A. LOCExplanation
LOC, or level of consciousness, is the most sensitive indicator of changes in the neurological status of patients with neurological disorders. Changes in LOC can indicate a deterioration or improvement in the patient's neurological condition. It is a critical assessment parameter that helps healthcare providers monitor the patient's overall neurological function and detect any potential neurological emergencies.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which test is the most effective when testing arousability?
- A.
Testing the patients orientation to person, place, and time
- B.
Pouring ice cold water into the patients ear
- C.
Screaming into the patients left ear for six seconds
- D.
Applying a painful (noxious) stimulus to the nail bed
Correct Answer
D. Applying a painful (noxious) stimulus to the nail bedExplanation
The most effective test for testing arousability is applying a painful stimulus to the nail bed. This test is commonly used to assess a patient's level of consciousness and their ability to respond to stimuli. It is a reliable method to determine if the patient can be awakened or aroused from a state of unconsciousness or sedation. Pouring ice cold water into the patient's ear and screaming into the patient's left ear may also elicit a response, but they are not as specific or reliable as the painful stimulus to the nail bed. Testing the patient's orientation to person, place, and time is important for assessing cognitive function, but it does not directly measure arousability.Rate this question:
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- 11.
When examining a patients general appearance and behavior—look at:
- A.
Facial expressions and orientation to place
- B.
How they are sitting and facial expressions
- C.
Grooming and orientation to time
- D.
Facial expressions and object identification
Correct Answer
B. How they are sitting and facial expressionsExplanation
When examining a patient's general appearance and behavior, it is important to observe how they are sitting and their facial expressions. This can provide valuable information about their level of comfort, pain, anxiety, or distress. The way a patient is sitting can indicate their physical condition and any discomfort they may be experiencing. Facial expressions can also reveal emotions and any signs of pain or discomfort. By observing these aspects, healthcare professionals can gain insights into the patient's overall well-being and potentially identify any underlying issues that need to be addressed.Rate this question:
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- 12.
All of the following are crucial components of the mental status examination EXCEPT?
- A.
Thought processes and perceptions; Motor activity integration
- B.
LOC; General Appearance and Behavior
- C.
Language and speech; Cognitive function
- D.
Emotional status; Pain perception
Correct Answer
D. Emotional status; Pain perceptionExplanation
MOLTLACERate this question:
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- 13.
Of the following, which one is not one of the functions assessed in the Glasgow Coma Scale.
- A.
Eye opening
- B.
Verbal response
- C.
Motor response
- D.
Pain response
Correct Answer
D. Pain responseExplanation
The Glasgow Coma Scale is a neurological assessment tool used to evaluate a patient's level of consciousness after a brain injury. It consists of three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. These components assess the patient's ability to respond to stimuli and provide information about the severity of the brain injury. The pain response is not one of the functions assessed in the Glasgow Coma Scale, as it focuses on the patient's ability to open their eyes, respond verbally, and move their limbs.Rate this question:
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- 14.
When screening a patients sensory perception which techniques would you avoid?
- A.
Check from distal to proximal
- B.
Increase the volume of the patient’s TV
- C.
Map out abnormalities
- D.
Compare sides
- E.
Have the client’s eyes open throughout the tests
Correct Answer(s)
B. Increase the volume of the patient’s TV
E. Have the client’s eyes open throughout the testsExplanation
When screening a patient's sensory perception, it is important to avoid increasing the volume of the patient's TV and having the client's eyes open throughout the tests. Increasing the volume of the TV can artificially enhance the patient's hearing ability, leading to inaccurate results. Having the client's eyes open throughout the tests can provide visual cues that may influence their perception, again leading to inaccurate results. It is crucial to ensure that the screening techniques are objective and unbiased to obtain reliable information about the patient's sensory perception.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Pick two tests that you could used on your patient when assessing cerebellar coordination.
- A.
Back bends
- B.
Tandem walking
- C.
Touching toes
- D.
Hopping
Correct Answer(s)
B. Tandem walking
D. HoppingExplanation
the components are : walking, knee bends, toe then heel walking, tandem walking, hoppingRate this question:
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- 16.
How do you facilitate a Romberg’s test?
- A.
Client touches finger to nose, finger-finger
- B.
Client stands on one foot, puts arms above head, and does one knee bend
- C.
Client stands with feet together, hands at sides and eyes closed
- D.
Client sits on chair and then tries to stand back up
Correct Answer
C. Client stands with feet together, hands at sides and eyes closedExplanation
The correct answer is client stands with feet together, hands at sides and eyes closed. This position is known as the Romberg's test and is used to assess a person's balance and proprioception. By standing with feet together, hands at sides, and eyes closed, the client removes visual cues and relies solely on their proprioceptive sense to maintain balance. This test helps to evaluate any impairment in the sensory and motor systems that contribute to balance control.Rate this question:
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- 17.
True of false a + Romberg’s test is pathological?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The answer is true because the combination of "a + Romberg's test" refers to the neurological examination technique known as the Romberg test, which assesses a person's balance and proprioception. If the test result is pathological, it means that there is an abnormality or dysfunction in the individual's nervous system, indicating a potential neurological disorder or issue. Therefore, the statement "a + Romberg's test is pathological" is true.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following is not a component of the cerebellar examination?
- A.
Coordination
- B.
Motor activity integration
- C.
Balance
- D.
Fine coordination
- E.
Muscle strength
Correct Answer
B. Motor activity integrationExplanation
Motor activity integration is not a component of the cerebellar examination because it refers to the ability of the cerebellum to coordinate and integrate motor movements. The cerebellar examination typically assesses coordination, balance, fine coordination, and muscle strength, but motor activity integration is not specifically evaluated.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following gait disturbances does not match with their clinical manifestations?
- A.
Spastic hemiparesis: arm flexed, close to side
- B.
Parkinsons’: stooped, hips, knees flexed; short shuffling steps
- C.
Cerebellar ataxia: staggering, unsteady, wide based
- D.
Scissor gait: paralysis of the lower foot
- E.
Steppage gait: feet lifted high, slapped down
Correct Answer
D. Scissor gait: paralysis of the lower footExplanation
scissor gait is thighs tend to cross (X), short stepsRate this question:
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- 20.
Out of the following involuntary movements which one doesn't match?
- A.
Fasiculations : visible twitching of muscle bundle
- B.
Chorea : chomping of the teeth
- C.
Athetosis : choreform movement affecting tongue, lips, face
- D.
Tardive dyskensia : slower, twisting, writhing
Correct Answer
B. Chorea : chomping of the teethExplanation
chorea is the involuntary movement on body, face: rapid, jerky, irregularRate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 10, 2008Quiz Created by
Tyraikaika
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