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NCCT Quizzes & Trivia

Law and ethics


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Right and wrong conduct is know as _______?

    • A.

      Empathy

    • B.

      Criminal law

    • C.

      Ethics

    • D.

      Licensure

    Correct Answer
    C. Ethics
    Explanation
    Ethics refers to the principles and values that guide individuals or groups to determine right and wrong conduct. It involves making moral judgments about what is considered acceptable behavior and involves considering the consequences of actions on others. Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of others, while criminal law pertains to the legal system that deals with crimes and their punishments. Licensure refers to the process of obtaining a license to practice a particular profession. Therefore, ethics is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the concept of right and wrong conduct.

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  • 2. 

    The most common type of medical tort liability is _______?

    • A.

      Negligence

    • B.

      Breach of contract

    • C.

      Breach of confidence

    • D.

      Fraud and deceit

    Correct Answer
    A. Negligence
    Explanation
    Negligence is the most common type of medical tort liability because it refers to the failure of a healthcare professional to provide the standard level of care, resulting in harm or injury to the patient. This can include actions such as misdiagnosis, surgical errors, medication mistakes, or failure to properly inform the patient about risks. Breach of contract, breach of confidence, and fraud and deceit may also occur in medical cases, but they are not as prevalent as negligence.

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  • 3. 

    A person being sued is called the _____?

    • A.

      Plaintiff

    • B.

      Tort

    • C.

      Defendant

    • D.

      Criminal law

    Correct Answer
    C. Defendant
    Explanation
    In legal terms, the person against whom a lawsuit is filed is referred to as the defendant. They are the individual or entity who is being accused or sued by the plaintiff. The defendant is responsible for defending themselves in court and providing evidence or arguments to counter the claims made against them.

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  • 4. 

    The withdrawal of a physician from the care of patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is ______.

    • A.

      Contract

    • B.

      Reasonable care

    • C.

      Negligence

    • D.

      Abandonment

    Correct Answer
    D. Abandonment
    Explanation
    Abandonment is the correct answer because it refers to the act of a physician withdrawing from the care of a patient without providing reasonable notice or a valid reason for discharge. This action can be seen as a breach of the physician's duty to provide reasonable care to the patient, as it leaves the patient without proper medical attention and support. Abandonment can be considered a form of negligence, as it disregards the patient's well-being and can lead to harmful consequences.

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  • 5. 

    An unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another is ______.

    • A.

      Litigation

    • B.

      Assault

    • C.

      Crime

    • D.

      Libel

    Correct Answer
    B. Assault
    Explanation
    Assault is the correct answer because it refers to an unlawful threat or attempt to cause physical harm or injury to another person. It involves the intentional act of creating fear or apprehension of harm in someone else, even if there is no actual physical contact. Assault is a criminal offense and can result in legal consequences for the perpetrator. Litigation refers to the process of resolving disputes through legal action, crime refers to any illegal activity, and libel refers to a false and damaging written statement about someone.

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  • 6. 

    The health worker is protected by law if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonable as compared with fellow workers. This called _____.

    • A.

      Respondeat superior

    • B.

      Reasonable care

    • C.

      Duty of care

    • D.

      Statute

    Correct Answer
    B. Reasonable care
    Explanation
    The concept being described in the question is "reasonable care." This means that a health worker is legally protected if it can be proven that their actions were reasonable when compared to the actions of their colleagues. In other words, if the health worker acted in a way that any other competent health worker would have acted in the same situation, they are protected by the law. This principle ensures that professionals are not held liable for every mistake or decision made in the course of their work, as long as they meet the standard of reasonable care.

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  • 7. 

    Negligence by aprofessional person is called ______.

    • A.

      Invasion of privacy

    • B.

      Slander

    • C.

      Malpractice

    • D.

      Tort

    Correct Answer
    C. Malpractice
    Explanation
    When a professional person fails to fulfill their duty of care towards their clients or patients, it is referred to as malpractice. This negligence can result in harm, injury, or loss to the individuals seeking their professional services. It is a legal concept that applies to various professions such as medicine, law, and accounting, among others. The term "malpractice" is specifically used to describe the negligence of professionals in their field of expertise, distinguishing it from other forms of negligence such as torts or general negligence.

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  • 8. 

    The breaking of a law, promise, or duty is called _____.

    • A.

      Statute

    • B.

      Breach

    • C.

      Consent

    • D.

      Incompetent

    Correct Answer
    B. Breach
    Explanation
    The term "breach" refers to the act of breaking or violating a law, promise, or duty. It implies a failure to fulfill or comply with a legal or moral obligation. In this context, breach is the correct answer as it accurately describes the breaking of a law, promise, or duty.

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  • 9. 

    The ability to see things from another person's point of view is _______.

    • A.

      Consent

    • B.

      Respondeat superior

    • C.

      Empathy

    • D.

      Ethics

    Correct Answer
    C. Empathy
    Explanation
    Empathy refers to the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person. It involves putting oneself in someone else's shoes and seeing things from their perspective. This skill allows individuals to connect with others on a deeper level, build relationships, and show understanding and compassion. It is an important trait in fostering positive interpersonal relationships and promoting effective communication.

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  • 10. 

    An act that violates criminal law is called ______.

    • A.

      Defamation

    • B.

      Crime

    • C.

      Libel

    • D.

      Slander

    Correct Answer
    B. Crime
    Explanation
    An act that violates criminal law is called a crime. Criminal law encompasses a set of rules and regulations that define certain behaviors as illegal and punishable by the state. Crimes can range from minor offenses to serious felonies, and they typically involve harm or potential harm to individuals or society as a whole. Defamation, libel, and slander refer to specific types of wrongful actions related to damaging someone's reputation through false statements, but they do not encompass the broader concept of criminal behavior.

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  • 11. 

    The time established for filing law suits is _____.

    • A.

      Civil law

    • B.

      Statute of limitations

    • C.

      Contract

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Statute of limitations
    Explanation
    The time established for filing law suits is referred to as the statute of limitations. This is a legal term that sets a specific time period within which a person must file a lawsuit in order to seek legal remedy. Once the statute of limitations expires, the individual loses their right to bring a lawsuit. Therefore, the correct answer is "statute of limitations."

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  • 12. 

    A writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony is a(n) _____.

    • A.

      Habeas corpus

    • B.

      Tort of appearance

    • C.

      Subpoena

    • D.

      Tort et a travers

    Correct Answer
    C. Subpoena
    Explanation
    A subpoena is a writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony. It is a legal document issued by a court or an authorized party, requiring the presence of a witness and their testimony. This is different from a habeas corpus, which is a writ used to bring a person before a court to determine if their detention is lawful. The options "tort of appearance" and "tort et a travers" are not relevant to the given context and do not accurately describe a writ that commands a witness to appear and testify.

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  • 13. 

    A wrong committed against another person or the person's property is a ______.

    • A.

      Defamation

    • B.

      Libel

    • C.

      Tort

    • D.

      Plaintiff

    Correct Answer
    C. Tort
    Explanation
    A wrong committed against another person or their property is referred to as a tort. A tort is a civil wrong that causes harm or injury to someone and can result in a legal liability for the person who committed the wrongdoing. Examples of torts include negligence, assault, battery, and trespassing.

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  • 14. 

    Holding or detaining a person against his will is ______.

    • A.

      False imprisonment

    • B.

      Crime

    • C.

      Incompetent

    • D.

      Duty of care

    Correct Answer
    A. False imprisonment
    Explanation
    False imprisonment refers to the act of unlawfully restraining or confining someone against their will. It is considered a crime because it violates a person's freedom and liberty. This can occur through physical force, threats, or coercion. The term "incompetent" does not relate to the concept of false imprisonment. "Duty of care" refers to the legal obligation to take reasonable measures to prevent harm to others, which is unrelated to false imprisonment.

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  • 15. 

    A violation of a person's right not to have his/her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed of made public without giving consent is ______.

    • A.

      False imprisonment

    • B.

      Malpractice

    • C.

      Invasion of privacy

    • D.

      Statute

    Correct Answer
    C. Invasion of privacy
    Explanation
    Invasion of privacy refers to the violation of an individual's right to keep their personal information, such as their name, photograph, or private affairs, private without their consent. This could include unauthorized disclosure or public exposure of such information, which goes against the person's right to privacy. False imprisonment refers to the illegal confinement of a person, malpractice refers to professional negligence, and a statute is a law or legislation.

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  • 16. 

    A major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is ______.

    • A.

      Licensure

    • B.

      Civil law

    • C.

      Tort

    • D.

      Felony

    Correct Answer
    D. Felony
    Explanation
    A major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is a felony. Felonies are serious offenses that typically involve violence or significant financial loss and are punishable by imprisonment for more than one year or even death in some cases. Unlike misdemeanors, which are less serious crimes, felonies carry harsher penalties and can have long-lasting consequences on an individual's personal and professional life.

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  • 17. 

    One who institutes a lawsuit is ______.

    • A.

      Defendant

    • B.

      Plaintiff

    • C.

      Litigation

    • D.

      Respondeat superior

    Correct Answer
    B. Plaintiff
    Explanation
    A plaintiff is the correct answer because they are the one who initiates or institutes a lawsuit by bringing a legal action against another party in a court of law. The defendant, on the other hand, is the party who is being sued and is required to defend themselves against the claims made by the plaintiff. Litigation refers to the process of taking legal action, but it does not specifically identify the party who institutes the lawsuit. "Respondeat superior" is a legal doctrine that holds employers responsible for the actions of their employees, but it is not directly related to the question.

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  • 18. 

    A legal statement of how an individual's property is to be distributed after death is ______.

    • A.

      Contract

    • B.

      Tort

    • C.

      Will

    • D.

      Judgment

    Correct Answer
    C. Will
    Explanation
    A will is a legal statement that outlines how an individual's property is to be distributed after their death. It is a document that allows a person to specify their wishes regarding the distribution of their assets, such as money, property, and possessions, among their beneficiaries. A will ensures that the individual's property is distributed according to their desires and can help avoid disputes and confusion among family members.

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  • 19. 

    Information given by a patient to medical personnel which cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is ______.

    • A.

      Duty of care

    • B.

      Respondeat superior

    • C.

      Judgment

    • D.

      Privileged communication

    Correct Answer
    D. Privileged communication
    Explanation
    Privileged communication refers to the confidential information shared by a patient with medical personnel, which cannot be disclosed without the patient's consent. This concept is a crucial aspect of maintaining trust and privacy in the doctor-patient relationship. It allows patients to freely communicate their personal and sensitive information, ensuring that it remains protected and confidential.

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  • 20. 

    A rule of conduct made by a government body is ________.

    • A.

      Tort

    • B.

      Law

    • C.

      Will

    • D.

      Contract

    Correct Answer
    B. Law
    Explanation
    A rule of conduct made by a government body is referred to as "law". Laws are established by government entities to regulate and govern the behavior of individuals and maintain order in society. They are enforceable and violations of laws can result in legal consequences. Laws can cover a wide range of areas such as criminal offenses, civil disputes, property rights, and more.

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  • 21. 

    Failure to do something that a reasonale person would be under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another person or person's property is ________.

    • A.

      Malpractice

    • B.

      Negligence

    • C.

      Slander

    • D.

      Defamation

    Correct Answer
    B. Negligence
    Explanation
    Negligence refers to the failure of an individual to exercise reasonable care or caution in a situation where harm to another person or their property is foreseeable. It involves the failure to meet the standard of care that a reasonable person would have exercised in similar circumstances. Negligence can result in legal liability for the negligent party, as it is considered a breach of duty of care owed to others. Therefore, negligence is the appropriate term to describe the situation where someone fails to do something that a reasonable person would do, leading to harm to another person or their property.

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  • 22. 

    Injuring the nameand reputation of another by making false statements to a third person is _____.

    • A.

      Empathy

    • B.

      Negligence

    • C.

      Defamation

    • D.

      Ethics

    Correct Answer
    C. Defamation
    Explanation
    Defamation refers to the act of injuring someone's name and reputation by making false statements to a third person. It involves spreading false information about someone that harms their reputation and can lead to legal consequences. Empathy, negligence, and ethics are unrelated to the act of making false statements about someone to harm their reputation.

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  • 23. 

    An agreemetn between two or more parties fro the doing or not doing of some definite this is _________.

    • A.

      Contract

    • B.

      Litigation

    • C.

      Statute

    • D.

      Felony

    Correct Answer
    A. Contract
    Explanation
    An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is known as a contract. A contract is a legally binding agreement that outlines the rights and obligations of the parties involved. It establishes the terms and conditions under which the parties agree to perform certain actions or refrain from doing certain things. Contracts can be written or verbal, and they serve as a means of ensuring that all parties involved fulfill their agreed-upon obligations.

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  • 24. 

    Permission granted by a person voulntarily and in his right mind is ________.

    • A.

      Consent

    • B.

      Litigation

    • C.

      Breach

    • D.

      Duty of care

    Correct Answer
    A. Consent
    Explanation
    When a person grants permission voluntarily and in their right mind, it is referred to as consent. Consent implies that the person has given their approval or agreement for something to happen. In this context, consent signifies that the person has willingly allowed or authorized an action to take place.

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  • 25. 

    Lack of physival or mental fitness is known as _________.

    • A.

      Breach of duty

    • B.

      Abandonment

    • C.

      Competence

    • D.

      Incompetence

    Correct Answer
    D. Incompetence
    Explanation
    Incompetence refers to the lack of physical or mental fitness. It indicates a person's inability or lack of skill to perform a task or fulfill their responsibilities effectively. This term is commonly used to describe someone who is not capable or qualified to carry out a specific role or function due to their lack of knowledge, skills, or experience.

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  • 26. 

    The final decision of a court in an action or suit is ______.

    • A.

      Consent

    • B.

      Contract

    • C.

      Judgment

    • D.

      Licensure

    Correct Answer
    C. Judgment
    Explanation
    In a legal context, the final decision made by a court in an action or suit is referred to as a judgment. This decision is the court's official ruling on the matter, determining the rights and obligations of the parties involved in the case. It signifies the end of the legal process and is binding on all parties involved. Consents are agreements, contracts are legally binding agreements, and licensure refers to granting permission or a license, none of which accurately describe the final decision of a court.

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  • 27. 

    Responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee is ________.

    • A.

      Libel

    • B.

      Malpractice

    • C.

      Respondeat superior

    • D.

      Civil law

    Correct Answer
    C. Respondeat superior
    Explanation
    Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds employers responsible for the actions of their employees when those actions occur within the scope of their employment. This means that if an employee causes harm or commits a wrongful act while performing their job duties, the employer can be held liable for any resulting damages. Respondeat superior is a principle of vicarious liability, ensuring that victims can seek compensation from the employer who has greater resources and control over the employee's actions. It is a fundamental concept in employment law, promoting accountability and protecting the rights of those affected by an employee's actions.

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  • 28. 

    A latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is ______.

    • A.

      Res gestae

    • B.

      Non compos mentis

    • C.

      Re judicata

    • D.

      Tecum

    Correct Answer
    B. Non compos mentis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "non compos mentis." This Latin term is used to describe a person who is not of sound mind or mentally incompetent. It is often used in legal contexts to determine someone's mental capacity to make decisions or understand the consequences of their actions.

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  • 29. 

    A person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent is called a(n) _______.

    • A.

      Emancipated minor

    • B.

      Plaintiff

    • C.

      Defendant

    • D.

      Tort

    Correct Answer
    A. Emancipated minor
    Explanation
    An emancipated minor refers to a person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent. This means that they have been granted legal independence and are considered to have the rights and responsibilities of an adult, even if they are still under the age of majority. This status is typically achieved through a legal process in which the minor demonstrates their ability to live independently and make decisions for themselves.

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  • 30. 

    An impartial panel established to listen to and investigate patient's complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called a _________ committee.

    • A.

      Medical ethics

    • B.

      Medical grievance

    • C.

      Civil law

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Medical grievance
    Explanation
    A medical grievance committee is an impartial panel that is set up to address and investigate patient complaints regarding medical care or excessive fees. This committee provides a platform for patients to voice their concerns and ensures that their complaints are thoroughly examined and resolved. It plays a crucial role in upholding medical ethics and ensuring that patients receive fair and appropriate treatment.

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  • 31. 

    Latin for "things done; deeds"; the facts and circumstances attendant to the act in question would be called ______.

    • A.

      Res gestae

    • B.

      Locum tenems

    • C.

      Tecum

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Res gestae
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "res gestae." This Latin term refers to "things done" or "deeds." It encompasses the facts and circumstances surrounding a particular act or event. It is commonly used in legal contexts to describe the immediate circumstances surrounding a crime or a legal action.

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  • 32. 

    Testimony of a witness under oath and written down before trial for possible use when the case comes to trial is ________.

    • A.

      Deposition

    • B.

      Citation

    • C.

      Warrant

    • D.

      Expert testimony

    Correct Answer
    A. Deposition
    Explanation
    A deposition is a testimony given by a witness under oath, which is recorded in writing before a trial for potential use when the case goes to trial. It allows both parties to gather information and evidence, and it can be used to impeach a witness's credibility if their testimony changes during the trial. Therefore, a deposition is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 33. 

    A statue that enforces private right and liabilities, as differentiated from criminal law is called a _______.

    • A.

      Statute of limitations

    • B.

      Civil law

    • C.

      Medical arbitration

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Civil law
    Explanation
    A statute that enforces private rights and liabilities, as differentiated from criminal law, is called civil law. Civil law deals with disputes between individuals or organizations, focusing on resolving conflicts and providing compensation or remedies for harm caused. It is distinct from criminal law, which involves the prosecution and punishment of individuals for committing crimes. The term "statute of limitations" refers to a specific time period within which legal action must be initiated for a particular claim, and it is not the correct answer in this context.

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  • 34. 

    Violation or omission of a legal or moral duty is called _______.

    • A.

      Negligence

    • B.

      Breach of duty

    • C.

      Defamation

    • D.

      Malpractice

    Correct Answer
    B. Breach of duty
    Explanation
    Breach of duty refers to the act of failing to fulfill a legal or moral obligation. It implies a violation or omission of responsibilities that one is expected to fulfill. Negligence, defamation, and malpractice are related concepts but they do not capture the essence of violating or omitting a legal or moral duty as accurately as breach of duty does.

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  • 35. 

    A deliberate physical attack upon a person is called ______.

    • A.

      Assault

    • B.

      Battery

    • C.

      Slander

    • D.

      Contributory negligence

    Correct Answer
    B. Battery
    Explanation
    Battery is the correct answer because it refers to a deliberate physical attack upon a person. It involves the intentional and unlawful touching or striking of another person without their consent, resulting in harmful or offensive contact. Assault, on the other hand, refers to the threat or attempt to physically harm someone. Slander is a form of defamation involving false spoken statements that harm a person's reputation. Contributory negligence is a legal concept that refers to the negligence of the plaintiff contributing to their own injury or harm.

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  • 36. 

    Latin for "he who acts through another acts for himself" is called _______.

    • A.

      Res gestae

    • B.

      Qui facit per alium facit per se

    • C.

      Locum tenems

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Qui facit per alium facit per se
    Explanation
    The Latin phrase "qui facit per alium facit per se" translates to "he who acts through another acts for himself." This phrase reflects the principle of agency, where an individual who acts on behalf of another person is considered to be acting in their own interest as well. It emphasizes the idea that the actions of an agent are equivalent to the actions of the principal.

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  • 37. 

    The branch of study of moral issues, questions, and problems arising in the practice of medicine  and in biomedical research is called ________.

    • A.

      Bioethics

    • B.

      Litigation

    • C.

      Philosophy

    • D.

      Privileged communication

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioethics
    Explanation
    Bioethics is the correct answer because it refers to the branch of study that deals with moral issues, questions, and problems that arise in the practice of medicine and biomedical research. It involves the ethical considerations and dilemmas faced by healthcare professionals, researchers, and patients in making decisions about medical treatments, research protocols, and other related issues. Bioethics combines principles from biology, medicine, philosophy, and ethics to provide guidelines and frameworks for ethical decision-making in the field of healthcare.

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  • 38. 

    A statemen given concerning some scientific, technical, or professional matter by an expert, such as a physician is called ______.

    • A.

      Litigation

    • B.

      Expert testimony

    • C.

      Medical arbitration

    • D.

      Burden of proof

    Correct Answer
    B. Expert testimony
    Explanation
    Expert testimony refers to a statement provided by a knowledgeable professional, such as a physician, regarding scientific, technical, or professional matters. This testimony is often given in legal proceedings, where the expert provides their opinion or analysis based on their expertise in a particular field. It is a crucial form of evidence that helps the court make informed decisions and understand complex issues. The term "expert testimony" accurately describes the given statement by an expert in the context of scientific, technical, or professional matters.

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  • 39. 

    A patient's failure to act prudently and reasonably, or doing that which a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances is called ________.

    • A.

      Breach of duty

    • B.

      Assumption of risk

    • C.

      Contributory negligence

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    C. Contributory negligence
    Explanation
    Contributory negligence refers to a situation where a patient fails to act prudently and reasonably, or does something that a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances. In medical malpractice cases, it means that the patient's own negligence contributed to their injury or harm. This can affect the patient's ability to recover damages, as their own negligence is taken into account when determining liability. Therefore, contributory negligence is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 40. 

    Consent to treatment based on a full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of  that treatment is called ______.

    • A.

      Contributory negligence

    • B.

      Fraud

    • C.

      Assumption of risk

    • D.

      Proximate cause

    Correct Answer
    C. Assumption of risk
    Explanation
    Assumption of risk refers to the consent given by a patient to undergo a treatment, fully aware of all the potential risks and unpreventable outcomes associated with it. It implies that the patient understands and accepts the possible negative consequences that may arise from the treatment. This concept is important in medical ethics as it ensures that patients are well-informed about the potential risks involved in their treatment decisions and allows them to make autonomous choices.

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  • 41. 

    Conduct, courtesy, and manners that are customarily used in a medical office by medical professionals are known as ________.

    • A.

      Ethics

    • B.

      Moral therapy

    • C.

      Precocity

    • D.

      Medical etiquette

    Correct Answer
    D. Medical etiquette
    Explanation
    Medical etiquette refers to the conduct, courtesy, and manners that are commonly practiced in a medical office by medical professionals. It encompasses the professional behavior, communication, and respect for patients and colleagues. It includes principles such as maintaining patient confidentiality, being punctual, showing empathy, and respecting patient autonomy. Ethics and moral therapy are related concepts, but they do not specifically refer to the conduct and manners in a medical office. Precocity refers to early development or maturity, which is not relevant to the context of the question.

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  • 42. 

    An intentional perversion of truth for the purpose of inducing another in reliance upon it to part with some valuable thing belonging to him or to surrender a legal right is called _________.

    • A.

      Fraud

    • B.

      Negligence

    • C.

      Assumption of risk

    • D.

      Contributory negligence

    Correct Answer
    A. Fraud
    Explanation
    Fraud is the intentional perversion of truth with the intention of deceiving someone into giving up something valuable or surrendering a legal right. It involves dishonesty and deceit in order to gain an unfair advantage or benefit at the expense of another person. This can include actions such as making false statements, concealing important information, or manipulating facts to mislead and exploit someone for personal gain.

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  • 43. 

    To interrupt or discontinue a suit temporarily with he intenetion or resumption at a later date, or to ask for a continuance is called a ________.

    • A.

      Suspension

    • B.

      Judgment

    • C.

      Civil law

    • D.

      Deposition

    Correct Answer
    A. Suspension
    Explanation
    When a suit is temporarily interrupted or discontinued with the intention of resuming it at a later date, it is called a suspension. This term is commonly used in legal contexts to refer to the temporary halt of legal proceedings. It is different from a judgment, which is a final decision or ruling in a legal case. Civil law refers to the system of laws that govern private disputes between individuals, while a deposition is a sworn out-of-court testimony used as evidence in a legal case.

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  • 44. 

    Latin for "things decided" -- that is, a matter already decided by judicial authority is called _______.

    • A.

      Res judicata

    • B.

      Repondeat superior

    • C.

      Locum tenems

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Res judicata
    Explanation
    Res judicata is the correct answer because it is a Latin term that translates to "things decided." It refers to a legal principle that a matter that has already been decided by a court cannot be re-litigated. Once a case has been resolved and a final judgment has been issued, it is considered res judicata, and the parties involved are bound by the decision. This principle promotes finality and prevents the same issue from being repeatedly brought before the courts.

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  • 45. 

    That which in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any new independent cause, produces an event, and without which the injury would not have occuurred is called ________. 

    • A.

      Negligence

    • B.

      Proximate cause

    • C.

      Assumption of risk

    • D.

      Assault

    Correct Answer
    B. Proximate cause
    Explanation
    Proximate cause refers to the action or event that directly leads to a specific outcome or injury. It is the cause that is closest in time and space to the result, and without which the injury would not have occurred. In other words, it is the immediate and uninterrupted cause that sets off a chain of events resulting in the injury or event. Negligence, assumption of risk, and assault are all related concepts but do not specifically refer to the unbroken sequence of events that proximate cause does.

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  • 46. 

    The presumption or inference of negligence when an accident is otherwise unable to be explained in terms of ordinary and known experience is called ________.

    • A.

      Res judicata

    • B.

      Res ipsa loquitur

    • C.

      Locum tenems

    • D.

      Res gestae

    Correct Answer
    B. Res ipsa loquitur
    Explanation
    Res ipsa loquitur is a legal doctrine that allows a court to infer negligence based on the circumstances surrounding an accident. It applies when the accident is of a kind that typically does not occur without negligence, and the defendant had control over the situation. The phrase "res ipsa loquitur" means "the thing speaks for itself," suggesting that the accident itself is evidence of negligence. In this case, the correct answer refers to the presumption or inference of negligence when an accident cannot be explained in ordinary terms, aligning with the concept of res ipsa loquitur.

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  • 47. 

    Failure to achieve an agreed upon result, even hen the highest degree of skill has been used is called _________. 

    • A.

      Breach of contract

    • B.

      Negligence

    • C.

      Proximate cause

    • D.

      Ethics

    Correct Answer
    A. Breach of contract
    Explanation
    Breach of contract refers to the failure to achieve an agreed upon result, even when the highest degree of skill has been used. It occurs when one party fails to fulfill their obligations as outlined in a legally binding agreement. This can result in legal consequences and potential damages for the party that breached the contract.

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  • 48. 

    What license must a physician have to dispense, prescibe or administer controlled substances?

    • A.

      Lawyers

    • B.

      Narcotic

    • C.

      Business

    • D.

      Occupational

    Correct Answer
    B. Narcotic
    Explanation
    To dispense, prescribe, or administer controlled substances, a physician must have a narcotic license. This license allows them to handle and distribute drugs that are classified as narcotics, which are substances that have a high potential for abuse and can cause addiction. This license ensures that physicians are knowledgeable and responsible when dealing with these substances, as they are closely monitored and regulated by law enforcement agencies to prevent misuse and protect public health and safety.

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  • 49. 

    Unauthorized disclosure of information regarding any patient to a third party may result in _________.

    • A.

      Civil law liability

    • B.

      Medical liability

    • C.

      Invasion of privacy

    • D.

      Defamation of character

    Correct Answer
    C. Invasion of privacy
    Explanation
    Unauthorized disclosure of information regarding any patient to a third party may result in invasion of privacy. This is because invasion of privacy refers to the violation of an individual's right to keep their personal information private. By disclosing patient information without authorization, a healthcare professional breaches the patient's privacy rights, which can lead to legal consequences. Civil law liability and medical liability may also apply in certain situations, but invasion of privacy specifically pertains to the unauthorized disclosure of personal information. Defamation of character, on the other hand, involves making false statements about someone that harm their reputation, which is not directly related to the unauthorized disclosure of patient information.

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  • 50. 

    Medical research is often published in medical journals that are evaluated by members of the medical community through a process known as _______.

    • A.

      Professional review

    • B.

      Hospital review

    • C.

      Peer review

    • D.

      Promethium review

    Correct Answer
    C. Peer review
    Explanation
    Medical research is often published in medical journals that are evaluated by members of the medical community through a process known as peer review. This means that experts in the field review the research article before it is published, ensuring its quality, accuracy, and adherence to scientific standards. Peer review helps to maintain the integrity and credibility of scientific research by allowing experts to assess and provide feedback on the study's methodology, results, and conclusions.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 07, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Amanda1982
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