NCCT Official Practice Test
This test comes from the NCCT Offical Practice Test, for National Certified Medical Assistants. This will help you practice and study for your upcoming big NCCT test! Good Luck.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) _________.
- A.
Reorder point
- B.
Inventory control log
- C.
Order quanity
- D.
All answers are correct
Correct Answer
D. All answers are correctExplanation
The correct answer is "All answers are correct" because to ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a reorder point to know when to order more supplies, maintain an inventory control log to track the current stock levels, and determine the order quantity to ensure an adequate supply is maintained. All of these actions are necessary for effective supply management in a medical office.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A(n)_________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre- assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.
- A.
Inventory Control Log
- B.
Packing slip
- C.
Purchase order
- D.
Invoice
Correct Answer
C. Purchase orderExplanation
A purchase order is created to contain the necessary information such as the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It also includes a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date of purchase. This document serves as a formal request to the vendor for the purchase of specific items and acts as a record of the transaction.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Periodically the medical assistant should check all equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) _________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.
- A.
Inventory control log
- B.
Maintenance log
- C.
Quality control log
- D.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance logExplanation
A maintenance log is a record that helps track routine inspections of equipment in an office. By using a maintenance log, the medical assistant can ensure that all equipment is regularly checked for frayed cords, hazards, and overall working condition. This log allows for easy documentation and tracking of any maintenance or repairs needed, ensuring the safety and proper functioning of the equipment in the office.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a ________.
- A.
Transcriptionist
- B.
Stenographer
- C.
Decoder
- D.
Receptionist
Correct Answer
A. TranscriptionistExplanation
When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist. A transcriptionist is responsible for transcribing spoken or recorded information into written form. In this scenario, the medical assistant is tasked with listening to the physician's dictation and accurately typing it up to create a written operative report.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as _______ review.
- A.
Procedure
- B.
Admissions
- C.
Cost
- D.
Transfer
Correct Answer
B. AdmissionsExplanation
Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as admissions review. This process involves evaluating the patient's condition and determining if hospitalization is necessary and appropriate. Admissions review helps ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of care and that hospital resources are used effectively.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?
- A.
Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse
- B.
Treating a 16-year-old girl who is pregnant without parental consent
- C.
The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
- D.
Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient
Correct Answer
C. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for researchExplanation
The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a decision based upon bioethics because it involves ethical considerations regarding the use of human fetal tissue for scientific purposes. Bioethics involves the ethical implications of biomedical research and healthcare practices, and the use of fetal tissue raises questions about the rights and dignity of the unborn fetus, as well as the potential benefits and risks of using such tissue for research purposes.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the following?
- A.
Gunshot wound
- B.
Anorexia
- C.
Drug addiction
- D.
Pregnancy
Correct Answer
A. Gunshot woundExplanation
A physician does not need the patient's permission in writing to reveal information about a gunshot wound. This is because gunshot wounds are considered to be a public health concern and reporting them is mandatory in order to ensure public safety. However, the physician still needs to obtain permission for revealing confidential information about anorexia, drug addiction, and pregnancy, as these are personal and sensitive matters.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information?
- A.
OSHA
- B.
CLIA
- C.
CMS
- D.
HIPAA
Correct Answer
D. HIPAAExplanation
HIPAA, or the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It sets standards for the security and privacy of health information and establishes penalties for violations. HIPAA ensures that patients have control over their health information and that it is only accessed by authorized individuals for legitimate purposes. OSHA, CLIA, and CMS are not directly related to patient privacy and confidentiality.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A business letter written in full block style will have all lines _______.
- A.
Right justified
- B.
Indented 5 spaces
- C.
Equally spaced vertically
- D.
At the left hand margin
Correct Answer
D. At the left hand marginExplanation
A business letter written in full block style will have all lines aligned at the left-hand margin. In full block style, the entire letter, including the sender's address, date, recipient's address, salutation, body paragraphs, closing, and signature, is aligned to the left. This creates a clean and professional look, with all lines starting from the same point on the left side of the page. This format is commonly used in business correspondence as it provides a neat and organized appearance to the letter.Rate this question:
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- 10.
When writing a buisness letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?
- A.
Comma
- B.
Semicolon
- C.
Asterisk
- D.
Colon
Correct Answer
D. ColonExplanation
When writing a business letter, the salutation is followed by a colon. This is the standard punctuation mark used to indicate that the salutation is finished and the body of the letter will begin. A colon is commonly used in formal writing to introduce a list, explanation, or further information, so it is appropriate to use it after the salutation in a business letter.Rate this question:
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- 11.
When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?
- A.
If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level, and she/he will calm down
- B.
Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes
- C.
Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining
- D.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
B. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notesExplanation
When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This approach shows empathy and respect towards the patient, acknowledging their concerns and ensuring that their complaint is properly documented. By actively listening and taking detailed notes, healthcare professionals can address the issue effectively, provide appropriate solutions, and prevent similar complaints in the future. Refusing to talk to complaining patients or matching their anger levels would only escalate the situation and hinder the resolution process.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Body language, body posture, space and distance are all examples of _______.
- A.
Non-Verbal communication
- B.
Verbal communication
- C.
Written communcation
- D.
All answers are correct
Correct Answer
A. Non-Verbal communicationExplanation
Body language, body posture, space and distance are all forms of communication that do not involve the use of words or verbal language. Instead, they rely on non-verbal cues to convey messages and meaning. Non-verbal communication plays a crucial role in human interaction and can often convey emotions, attitudes, and intentions more effectively than verbal communication alone. Therefore, the correct answer is Non-Verbal communication.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?
- A.
Erase the entry and write in the new appointment
- B.
Put "white-out" over the entry and write on top
- C.
Scribble out the entry and indicate your initals
- D.
Mark through the entry with a single red line
Correct Answer
D. Mark through the entry with a single red lineExplanation
The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This method is commonly used to indicate that the appointment has been canceled or is no longer valid. It is a clear and visible way to signify the cancellation without completely erasing or covering up the original entry.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the _________.
- A.
Covered amount
- B.
Deductible
- C.
Explanation of benefits
- D.
Co-pay
Correct Answer
B. DeductibleExplanation
The correct answer is deductible. A deductible is the amount that an insured patient must pay out of pocket before the insurance company starts covering the cost of medical treatment. It is a predetermined amount set by the insurance policy, and once the deductible is met, the insurance company will begin to pay for a portion or all of the medical expenses.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Instructions to an insurance company about where and to whom to make payment are called _________.
- A.
Payment agreements
- B.
Assignment of benefits
- C.
Benefit accommodations
- D.
Assignment of payments
Correct Answer
B. Assignment of benefitsExplanation
Assignment of benefits refers to the instructions given by an insurance company regarding the recipient and location of payment. This term is commonly used in the insurance industry to specify who should receive the benefits and where the payment should be made. It is a legal and contractual arrangement that allows the insured individual or healthcare provider to assign their rights to receive the insurance benefits to a third party, such as a medical provider or hospital. This ensures that the payment is made to the correct party and at the designated location as per the insurance company's instructions.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The Internal Revenure Service issues a(n) ____________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.
- A.
Social Security number
- B.
Federal tax identification number
- C.
State tax number
- D.
Insurance ID number
Correct Answer
B. Federal tax identification numberExplanation
The Internal Revenue Service issues a federal tax identification number to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. This number is used to identify the business entity for tax reporting and filing purposes with the IRS. It is different from a Social Security number, which is used to identify individuals, and other numbers such as a state tax number or insurance ID number, which serve different purposes and are not specifically related to income tax.Rate this question:
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- 17.
An office appointment calender or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but also indicate the __________.
- A.
Duration of the appointment
- B.
Relationship to the patient
- C.
Social Security number of the patient
- D.
Insurance provider's contact information
Correct Answer
A. Duration of the appointmentExplanation
An office appointment calendar or book must record the duration of the appointment as it is important for scheduling and managing appointments efficiently. Knowing the duration helps in allocating appropriate time slots and avoiding overlapping appointments. It enables the office staff to plan the day effectively and ensure that each patient gets the necessary amount of time with the healthcare provider. Additionally, recording the duration allows for accurate tracking of time spent with each patient, which is crucial for billing and documentation purposes.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) ______ year.
- A.
Fiscal
- B.
Financial
- C.
Fiduciary
- D.
Accounting
Correct Answer
A. FiscalExplanation
A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a "fiscal" year. This term is commonly used in the context of government and business accounting to refer to the annual period used for budgeting, financial reporting, and tax calculations. The fiscal year does not necessarily align with the calendar year and can start at any point during the year.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a(n) ________ registration number.
- A.
DEA
- B.
EPA
- C.
FDA
- D.
CDC
Correct Answer
A. DEAExplanation
Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing controlled substance laws and regulations in the United States. The registration number ensures that the physician is authorized to prescribe controlled substances and helps track the distribution of these substances to prevent misuse or illegal activities.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient's insurance policy contract involves a process known as ________.
- A.
Pre-certification
- B.
Pre-authorization
- C.
Pre-determination
- D.
Pre-existing
Correct Answer
A. Pre-certificationExplanation
Pre-certification is the process of obtaining approval from an insurance company before a medical treatment or procedure is performed. It involves verifying whether the treatment is medically necessary and covered under the patient's insurance policy contract. This process helps ensure that the patient's insurance will cover the costs of the treatment and prevents any unexpected financial burden on the patient.Rate this question:
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- 21.
In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never be ___________.
- A.
Facing the filing cabinets
- B.
Able to be viewed by patients
- C.
Turned on
- D.
Viewed by medical personnel
Correct Answer
B. Able to be viewed by patientsExplanation
The computer screen in the reception area of a medical practice must never be able to be viewed by patients. This is because the information displayed on the screen may contain sensitive and confidential patient data, which should only be accessed by authorized medical personnel. Allowing patients to view the screen could compromise patient privacy and confidentiality.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The temperature taken at the armpit is the ___________.
- A.
Lymphatic
- B.
Axillary
- C.
Deltoid
- D.
Delta
Correct Answer
B. AxillaryExplanation
The temperature taken at the armpit is called axillary. The axillary temperature is measured by placing a thermometer in the armpit, which is a common and convenient method for obtaining a quick and non-invasive measurement of body temperature. This method is often used for infants, young children, and individuals who are unable to have their temperature taken orally.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?
- A.
Open
- B.
Spiral
- C.
Greenstick
- D.
Closed
Correct Answer
D. ClosedExplanation
A break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site is called a closed fracture. In this type of fracture, the bone is broken but the skin remains intact. This means that the broken bone does not protrude through the skin. Closed fractures are typically less severe than open fractures, where the bone breaks through the skin.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The abbreviation for as needed is _________.
- A.
Prn
- B.
Ppn
- C.
An
- D.
Add
Correct Answer
A. PrnExplanation
The correct abbreviation for "as needed" is "prn". This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a medication should be administered as necessary or when required by the patient's condition.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is ________.
- A.
NPO
- B.
NBM
- C.
NM
- D.
Nom
Correct Answer
A. NPOExplanation
The correct answer is NPO, which stands for "nothing by mouth." This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not be given any food or drink orally, typically before a medical procedure or surgery. It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with this abbreviation in order to ensure patient safety and follow proper medical protocols.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?
- A.
Insulin syringe
- B.
Tuberculin syringe
- C.
Hypodermic syringe
- D.
A closed injection system
Correct Answer
B. Tuberculin syringeExplanation
A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection because it is specifically designed for this purpose. It has a small, fine needle and a low capacity, allowing for precise and accurate administration of medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Insulin syringes are used for subcutaneous injections, hypodermic syringes are used for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections, and a closed injection system is not typically used for intradermal injections.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When you have finished using a reagent, you should ________.
- A.
Refrigerate it for furture use
- B.
Pour it back in the bottle
- C.
Discard it
- D.
Incubte it
Correct Answer
C. Discard itExplanation
When you have finished using a reagent, it is important to discard it. This is because reagents can become contaminated or degraded after use, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of future experiments. Additionally, some reagents may have specific disposal requirements due to their hazardous nature. Therefore, it is best practice to properly dispose of used reagents to ensure the integrity of future experiments and to comply with safety regulations.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When you make a solution, be sure you label and _________.
- A.
Date it
- B.
Store it
- C.
Freeze it
- D.
Color it
Correct Answer
A. Date itExplanation
The correct answer is "Date it". When making a solution, it is important to label it with the date so that it can be easily identified and tracked. This helps in ensuring that the solution is used in a timely manner and prevents any confusion or misuse.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration on hand is 100mg/ml. How many cc's of Demerol will be injected?
- A.
0.5 cc
- B.
1.0 cc
- C.
1.5 cc
- D.
0.25 cc
Correct Answer
A. 0.5 ccExplanation
The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to the patient. The concentration of Demerol on hand is 100mg/ml. To determine the volume to be injected, we can use the formula: Volume (cc) = Amount (mg) / Concentration (mg/ml). Plugging in the values, we get Volume (cc) = 50 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.5 cc. Therefore, 0.5 cc of Demerol will be injected.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A drug that causes urination is called a _______.
- A.
Diuretic
- B.
Hypertensive
- C.
Gestational Drug
- D.
Narcotic
Correct Answer
A. DiureticExplanation
A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics work by increasing the production of urine, which helps to remove excess fluid and salt from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, edema, and kidney disorders. By promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, diuretics can help to reduce fluid buildup and lower blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A drug used to control temperature is called an _______.
- A.
Antipyretic
- B.
Antidote
- C.
Antiemetic
- D.
Analgesic
Correct Answer
A. AntipyreticExplanation
An antipyretic is a drug that is used to control or reduce fever. It works by lowering the body's temperature and providing relief from fever-related symptoms. This type of medication is commonly used to treat conditions such as the flu, common cold, and other infections that cause fever. Antipyretics are often available over-the-counter and can be taken orally or administered through other routes such as rectal suppositories. They are an important tool in managing fevers and promoting comfort and well-being in patients.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.
- A.
Suppressant
- B.
Decongestant
- C.
Antihistamine
- D.
Bronchodilator
Correct Answer
B. DecongestantExplanation
A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by narrowing the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve symptoms such as a stuffy or runny nose. Unlike antihistamines, which primarily target allergic reactions, decongestants directly target nasal congestion. Suppressants, on the other hand, are drugs that suppress or inhibit certain bodily functions, but they are not specifically designed to reduce mucus in the nasal passages. Bronchodilators are medications that relax and widen the airways in the lungs, primarily used to treat conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).Rate this question:
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- 33.
A drug that increases cough output is called a(n)__________.
- A.
Miotic
- B.
Diuretic
- C.
Cytotoxin
- D.
Expectorant
Correct Answer
D. ExpectorantExplanation
An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output. It helps to thin and loosen mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up and clear the lungs. This can be helpful in relieving congestion and promoting the removal of phlegm or mucus from the respiratory tract.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n)________.
- A.
Solution
- B.
Emulsion
- C.
Elixir
- D.
Tincture
Correct Answer
B. EmulsionExplanation
An emulsion is a liquid preparation that contains fine droplets of one immiscible liquid (in this case, oil) dispersed in another liquid (in this case, water). This allows the oil and water to mix together and form a stable solution. Therefore, an emulsion is the correct term to describe a liquid preparation that mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?
- A.
Narcotic overdose
- B.
Inflammation
- C.
Angina Pectoris
- D.
Anxiety
Correct Answer
C. Angina PectorisExplanation
Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of Angina Pectoris. Angina Pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Nitroglycerine works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood to flow to the heart and relieving the symptoms of angina. It is commonly used as a medication to provide immediate relief during angina attacks.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress_________.
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Appetite
- C.
Swelling
- D.
Excretion of urine
Correct Answer
A. InflammationExplanation
Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the immune system's response to inflammation, thereby reducing redness, swelling, and pain associated with inflammatory conditions. By inhibiting the production of certain chemicals that cause inflammation, hydrocortisone helps to alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Therefore, it is commonly used to treat various inflammatory conditions such as arthritis, allergies, asthma, and skin disorders.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Schedule I drugs include __________.
- A.
Micellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs
- B.
Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
- C.
Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
- D.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
B. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuseExplanation
The correct answer is substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Schedule I drugs are considered to be the most dangerous drugs with a high potential for abuse and dependence. They are classified as such because they have no accepted medical use and are not safe to use even under medical supervision. These substances are highly regulated and illegal to possess or distribute.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called _________.
- A.
Cystitis
- B.
Urethral Stricture
- C.
Chronic Renal Failure
- D.
Pyelonephritis
Correct Answer
B. Urethral StrictureExplanation
Urethral stricture is the narrowing of the urethra due to the formation of scar tissue. This condition can occur as a result of various factors such as urinary tract infections, trauma, or inflammation. It can lead to difficulties in urination, including a weak urine stream, frequent urination, or urinary retention. Treatment options for urethral stricture include medication, dilation, or surgery, depending on the severity of the condition. Cystitis is inflammation of the bladder, chronic renal failure is the progressive loss of kidney function, and pyelonephritis is a kidney infection.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called ________.
- A.
High Blood Pressure
- B.
Type 1 diabetes
- C.
Pancreatitis
- D.
Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer
B. Type 1 diabetesExplanation
Type 1 diabetes is a chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. In type 1 diabetes, the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. This results in a lack of insulin production, causing high blood sugar levels. Type 1 diabetes typically develops in childhood or adolescence and requires lifelong insulin therapy for proper management.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called _________.
- A.
Enema
- B.
Colostomy
- C.
Constipation
- D.
Peristalsis
Correct Answer
D. PeristalsisExplanation
Peristalsis refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the intestines that helps to propel food and waste materials through the digestive system. This coordinated movement ensures that the contents of the intestines are pushed forward in a wave-like motion, allowing for proper digestion and absorption of nutrients. Enema, colostomy, and constipation are not accurate terms to describe this process.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Where is the Temporal part of the body?
- A.
Hips
- B.
Head
- C.
Arm
- D.
Back
Correct Answer
B. HeadExplanation
The temporal part of the body refers to the region of the head where the temples are located. The temples are the flat, tender areas on the sides of the forehead, just above the ears. They are located in the temporal bone, which is one of the skull bones. The temporal part of the body is important as it houses various structures such as the temporal muscle, blood vessels, and nerves.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Where is the Scapula part of the body?
- A.
Wrist
- B.
Shoulder Blade
- C.
Knee
- D.
Hips
Correct Answer
B. Shoulder BladeExplanation
The scapula is a large triangular bone located on the back of the body, specifically in the upper back region. It is commonly known as the shoulder blade and plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. The scapula connects the upper arm bone (humerus) to the collarbone (clavicle) and provides attachment points for various muscles involved in arm and shoulder movement. Therefore, the correct answer is "Shoulder Blade."Rate this question:
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- 43.
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ________.
- A.
R wave
- B.
T wave
- C.
Q wave
- D.
S wave
Correct Answer
C. Q waveExplanation
The Q wave is a downward or negative wave that follows the P wave in an electrocardiogram. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a ________.
- A.
Non-pathogen
- B.
Spore
- C.
Flora
- D.
Pathogen
Correct Answer
A. Non-pathogenExplanation
A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a non-pathogen. This term refers to a microorganism that does not typically cause harm or illness in humans or other organisms. Non-pathogens can be found in various environments, including the human body, and they play important roles in maintaining overall health and balance. Unlike pathogens, which are capable of causing diseases, non-pathogens do not pose a significant risk to the host and are generally harmless.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing?
- A.
Both venipuncture and microsampling invovle skill
- B.
It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger
- C.
Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect
- D.
"Getting Blood" is not the only goal of good blood drawing
Correct Answer
B. It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a fingerExplanation
The statement "It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger" is false. The direction in which a finger is lanced does matter during blood drawing. It is important to lance the finger perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprint to avoid causing unnecessary pain and to obtain a proper blood sample.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A centrifuge works by _________.
- A.
Freezing blood specimens
- B.
Heating blood specimens
- C.
Incubating blood at body temp
- D.
Separating cells and serum
Correct Answer
D. Separating cells and serumExplanation
A centrifuge works by separating cells and serum. When blood specimens are placed in a centrifuge and spun at high speeds, the centrifugal force causes the heavier components, such as cells, to settle at the bottom of the tube, while the lighter components, such as serum, rise to the top. This separation allows for further analysis of the different components of the blood, such as testing for specific cells or measuring levels of certain substances in the serum.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called _______.
- A.
Uniform
- B.
Malignant
- C.
Fused
- D.
Bigeminy
Correct Answer
A. UniformExplanation
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) refers to an irregular heartbeat that occurs earlier than expected. In this case, a PVC is considered "uniform" when the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity of the ventricles, has the same configuration each time it appears. This means that the abnormal heartbeat has a consistent pattern, making it easier to identify and diagnose.Rate this question:
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- 48.
On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the ________.
- A.
Start
- B.
Amplitude
- C.
Gain
- D.
B or C
Correct Answer
D. B or CExplanation
The sensitivity switch on an ECG machine controls either the amplitude or the gain. Amplitude refers to the measurement of the height of the ECG waveforms, while gain refers to the amplification or magnification of the ECG signal. By adjusting the sensitivity switch, the user can either change the amplitude of the waveforms or increase/decrease the gain to get a clearer or more detailed ECG reading.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is ____________.
- A.
Defibrillation
- B.
Shock Treatment
- C.
V Tach
- D.
Scintillation
Correct Answer
A. DefibrillationExplanation
The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is defibrillation. Defibrillation is a medical procedure that uses an electrical shock to restore the heart's normal rhythm. It is used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, the given answer is correct as it accurately describes the second component of the electrical force produced by ventricular depolarization.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____ the first drop.
- A.
Collect
- B.
Use
- C.
Wipe away
- D.
Wash off
Correct Answer
C. Wipe awayExplanation
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is recommended to wipe away the first drop. This is because the first drop of blood may contain tissue fluid or contaminants from the skin surface, which can interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample. Wiping away the first drop ensures that the subsequent drops collected for the blood smear are free from any potential contaminants, allowing for a more accurate analysis of the blood sample.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 27, 2011Quiz Created by
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