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Helps students understand and get ready for the end of the schooling big test given by NCCT. So have fun while taking this test while also learning tips.
Questions and Answers
1.
The word itis means what?
A.
Swelling
B.
Darkening of the vessels
C.
Inflammation of
D.
Rupture of
Correct Answer
C. Inflammation of
Explanation The word "itis" is commonly used as a suffix in medical terminology to denote inflammation of a certain body part or organ. For example, appendicitis refers to the inflammation of the appendix. Therefore, the correct answer is "inflammation of," as "itis" is typically associated with inflammatory conditions.
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2.
The normal hemocrit for a female is in between what percentile?
A.
37% to 47%
B.
10% to 20%
C.
90% to 100%
D.
40% to 52%
Correct Answer
A. 37% to 47%
Explanation The normal hematocrit for a female is in between the range of 37% to 47%. Hematocrit is a measure of the volume of red blood cells in relation to the total blood volume. This range is considered normal for females and is used as a reference to assess their blood health.
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3.
When doing documetation for the S.O.A.P method which order is correct?
A.
Assessment, subjective, plan,and objective
B.
Objective, subjective, plan, and Assessment
C.
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and plan
D.
Subjective, Objective, Plan, and Assessment
Correct Answer
C. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and plan
Explanation The correct order for documentation in the SOAP method is subjective, objective, assessment, and plan. This order allows healthcare professionals to gather subjective information from the patient, such as their symptoms and concerns, followed by objective information such as vital signs and test results. The assessment is then made based on the subjective and objective data, and a plan is formulated to address the patient's needs. This order ensures a systematic and comprehensive approach to documenting patient information.
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4.
When ordering test a CBC usually means what?
A.
Complete breast count
B.
Complete body count
C.
Complete blood cavitys
D.
Complete blood count
Correct Answer
D. Complete blood count
Explanation A CBC stands for complete blood count. This test is used to measure various components of the blood, including red and white blood cells, hemoglobin, and platelets. It provides important information about a person's overall health and can help diagnose and monitor a wide range of medical conditions, such as anemia, infections, and blood disorders. Therefore, when ordering a CBC, it means requesting a comprehensive analysis of the blood to assess its composition and identify any abnormalities.
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5.
Which term below stand for slow heart rate of less than 60 bpm?
A.
Tachycardia
B.
Abnormal heart rhythm
C.
Bradycardia
D.
Fibrillation
Correct Answer
C. Bradycardia
Explanation Bradycardia is the correct answer because it refers to a slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute (bpm). Tachycardia, on the other hand, refers to a fast heart rate, while abnormal heart rhythm and fibrillation are broader terms that do not specifically indicate a slow heart rate.
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6.
The ................ is located in the lymphatic system?
a.)Brain
b.)lung
c.)spleen
d.)Blood
Correct Answer spleen
Explanation The spleen is located in the lymphatic system. It is an organ that helps filter the blood and removes old or damaged red blood cells. It also plays a role in the immune system by producing and storing white blood cells, which help fight off infections. Additionally, the spleen stores platelets, which are important for blood clotting. Overall, the spleen is an important part of the lymphatic system and helps maintain a healthy immune system.
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7.
White blood cells do what? WBC
A.
Prevent blood loss
B.
Make up48% of the total blood
C.
Destroy pathogens
D.
Carry oxygen
Correct Answer
C. Destroy pathogens
Explanation White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, are responsible for protecting the body against infections and diseases. They play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and destroying pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and other harmful microorganisms. This process helps to prevent the spread of infections and maintain overall health and well-being.
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8.
Which suffix means "Cutting Into" or incision
A.
Tome
B.
Tomie
C.
Tomy
D.
Trophy
Correct Answer
C. Tomy
Explanation The suffix "tomy" means "cutting into" or incision. It is commonly used in medical terms to indicate a surgical procedure that involves making an incision or cutting into a specific area of the body. For example, a tonsillectomy refers to the surgical removal of the tonsils, where the suffix "tomy" indicates the cutting or incision involved in the procedure. Therefore, "tomy" is the correct suffix that means "cutting into" or incision.
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9.
Which of the following organizations mandates standard precautions?
A.
CDC
B.
WPM
C.
OSHA
D.
HIV
Correct Answer
C. OSHA
Explanation OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) mandates standard precautions. OSHA is a federal agency in the United States that sets and enforces workplace safety and health standards. They require employers to implement standard precautions to protect employees from potential hazards in the workplace, such as exposure to infectious diseases, chemicals, and physical hazards. Standard precautions include practices like hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, safe handling and disposal of hazardous materials, and proper training and education for employees.
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10.
The stage in the human life span denotes that children become skilled in language and motor abilties?
A.
Infancy 1 o 2 years
B.
Early childhood 3 to 6 years of age
C.
Toddlerhood: 18 months to 3 years of age
D.
Middle childhood: 6 to 12 years
Correct Answer
C. Toddlerhood: 18 months to 3 years of age
Explanation During the stage of toddlerhood, which typically occurs between 18 months and 3 years of age, children start to develop and refine their language and motor skills. This is a crucial period in their life span where they begin to learn and use words, form sentences, and improve their coordination and physical abilities. It is a time of rapid growth and development, where children become increasingly skilled in both language and motor abilities.
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11.
OSHA organization stands for what?
A.
Occupational Safety and Health Aides
B.
Oxyes squirrels and happy rabbits
C.
Occupational Stages and Health Aides
D.
Ocupational Safety and Health Administration
Correct Answer
D. Ocupational Safety and Health Administration
Explanation OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. This organization is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. They develop and enforce regulations, provide training and education, and conduct inspections to prevent workplace hazards and promote worker safety.
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12.
What is the abbreviation for 2x a day?
A.
QID
B.
BIG
C.
BID
D.
HID
Correct Answer
C. BID
Explanation The abbreviation "BID" stands for "bis in die" in Latin, which translates to "twice a day" in English. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical prescriptions to indicate the frequency at which a medication should be taken.
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13.
STAT in the medical field means what?
A.
Now
B.
Immediately
C.
In a few
D.
In a hour
Correct Answer
B. Immediately
Explanation In the medical field, STAT is an abbreviation for the Latin word "statim," which means immediately. This term is commonly used in healthcare settings to indicate that a medical task or procedure needs to be done urgently and without delay. It is often used in emergency situations when prompt action is required to prevent further harm or save a patient's life.
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14.
The database in the patient medical record history includes?
A.
Family history
B.
Social history
C.
Initial laboratory findings
D.
Review of systems
Correct Answer
C. Initial laboratory findings
Explanation The database in the patient medical record history includes initial laboratory findings. This refers to the results of the first set of tests conducted on the patient, which can provide important information about their overall health and any potential medical conditions. These findings are typically used as a baseline for comparison in future tests and can aid in diagnosis and treatment decisions.
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15.
Which element in the patient history is relevant to heredity?
A.
ROS
B.
Family history
C.
Chief complaint
D.
Social history
Correct Answer
A. ROS
Explanation The relevant element in the patient history that is related to heredity is the family history. The family history provides information about any genetic conditions or diseases that may run in the patient's family, which can help in assessing the patient's risk factors and potential hereditary conditions. The ROS (Review of Systems) is a comprehensive checklist of symptoms, but it does not specifically address heredity. The chief complaint refers to the main reason for the patient's visit, and the social history focuses on lifestyle factors, both of which may not directly relate to heredity.
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16.
When using a capillary puncture device, the puncture must not penetrate more than?
A.
4.0 mm in an adult
B.
2.0 mm on an infant or child
C.
1.0 mm on an inant or child
D.
5.0 mm on an adult
Correct Answer
B. 2.0 mm on an infant or child
Explanation When using a capillary puncture device, it is important to be cautious about the depth of the puncture. Puncturing too deep can cause unnecessary pain and potential injury to the patient. The correct answer states that the puncture must not penetrate more than 2.0 mm on an infant or child. This is because infants and children have thinner skin and a shallower capillary bed compared to adults. Therefore, a shallower puncture depth is sufficient to obtain an adequate blood sample without causing harm to the patient.
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17.
Documenting control sample results when performing certain laboratory test on a log is referred to as?
A.
Quality assurance
B.
CLIA testing
C.
Quality control
D.
Proficiency testing
Correct Answer
C. Quality control
Explanation Documenting control sample results when performing certain laboratory tests on a log is referred to as quality control. Quality control involves the process of monitoring and documenting the accuracy and precision of laboratory test results. By documenting control sample results, laboratories can ensure that their testing processes are reliable and consistent, and identify any potential issues or errors. This helps to maintain the overall quality and accuracy of the laboratory's testing procedures.
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18.
Which collection method should be used for patients with delicate veins
A.
Winged infusion set
B.
Microhematocrit
C.
Syringe method
D.
Evacuation method
Correct Answer
C. Syringe method
Explanation The syringe method should be used for patients with delicate veins because it allows for more control and precision during the collection process. Delicate veins can easily be damaged or collapsed, so using a syringe allows the healthcare provider to apply gentle pressure and adjust the angle as needed to ensure a successful blood draw. Additionally, the syringe method allows for smaller gauge needles to be used, which can be less painful for the patient and reduce the risk of complications.
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19.
Red and WBC and platelets ca be counted using a?
A.
Refractometer
B.
Hemocytometer
C.
Chemistry analyzer
D.
Reagent meter
Correct Answer
B. Hemocytometer
Explanation A hemocytometer is a specialized laboratory tool used to count and measure the concentration of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets. It consists of a glass slide with a grid pattern etched on its surface and a cover slip. By placing a diluted blood sample on the hemocytometer and using a microscope, the cells can be counted and their concentration can be determined. Therefore, a hemocytometer is the appropriate tool for counting red and WBCs and platelets.
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20.
What is the recommended temperature setting when sterilizing items in the autoclave?
A.
220f to 240f
B.
250f to 270f
C.
270f to 290f
D.
200f to 220f
Correct Answer
B. 250f to 270f
Explanation The recommended temperature setting when sterilizing items in the autoclave is 250f to 270f. This temperature range ensures that the items are properly sterilized and any microorganisms or bacteria present are effectively killed. Higher temperatures may cause damage to the items being sterilized, while lower temperatures may not be sufficient to achieve sterilization. Therefore, maintaining a temperature between 250f to 270f is necessary for effective sterilization in the autoclave.
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21.
Which piece of equipment is used first when removing a cast?
A.
Cast saw
B.
Cast cutter
C.
Cast spreader
D.
Casting scissors
Correct Answer
B. Cast cutter
Explanation A cast cutter is used first when removing a cast. This is because a cast cutter is specifically designed to safely cut through the cast material without causing harm to the patient's skin or underlying tissues. It is a powerful and precise tool that allows healthcare professionals to carefully and efficiently remove the cast. The other options, such as a cast saw, cast spreader, and casting scissors, may be used during the cast removal process, but the cast cutter is typically the first tool used.
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22.
A capillary tube should be disposed in what kind of instrument?
A.
A sharps container
B.
A sharp resistance biohazard container
C.
A puncture resistant sharps container
D.
Trash bin
Correct Answer
C. A puncture resistant sharps container
Explanation A capillary tube is a small, thin tube used in medical procedures to collect or transfer small amounts of liquid. Due to its size and fragility, it is important to dispose of it properly in order to prevent any potential injuries or contamination. A puncture resistant sharps container is specifically designed to safely dispose of sharp objects such as needles, syringes, and capillary tubes. This type of container is made of strong and durable materials that can withstand punctures, reducing the risk of accidental injuries to healthcare workers or waste handlers.
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23.
The position Lithotomy is usually used for what?
A.
Pap smears and pelvic exams in women
B.
Breast exams on woman
C.
Gastric bypass on a man
D.
Gstric bypass on a woman
Correct Answer
A. Pap smears and pelvic exams in women
Explanation The position Lithotomy is usually used for pap smears and pelvic exams in women. This position involves lying on the back with the legs raised and supported in stirrups, allowing for better access to the pelvic area. It is commonly used during gynecological exams to ensure a clear view of the cervix and vagina, and to perform procedures like pap smears and pelvic examinations.
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24.
Multidraw needle for veni puncture would be what kind of gauges?
A.
20 to 30
B.
19 to 23
C.
21 to 23
D.
16 to 24
Correct Answer
C. 21 to 23
Explanation The correct answer is 21 to 23. This means that the multidraw needle for veni puncture would typically have a gauge size ranging from 21 to 23. Gauge size refers to the diameter of the needle, and a smaller gauge number indicates a larger diameter. Therefore, a needle with a gauge size of 21 to 23 would have a relatively larger diameter compared to needles with higher gauge numbers. This larger diameter is suitable for veni puncture procedures, which involve drawing blood samples or inserting IV lines into veins.
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25.
If you are working in a womens clinic or ob gyn and the doctor orders a intramuscular shot on an sexually active teen what might the shot contain?
A.
Glucose
B.
Anti psycotic
C.
Depo provera
D.
Iron
Correct Answer
C. Depo provera
Explanation Depo Provera is a contraceptive injection that contains the hormone progestin. It is commonly used as a birth control method for sexually active women. In this scenario, the doctor might order a Depo Provera shot for the sexually active teen to prevent pregnancy.
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26.
Intepret the dictation please:
pt c/o cp pc q.i.d
A.
The patient has a severe headace 2x a day
B.
Patient complains of abdominal pain
C.
Patient complains of chest pain after meals about 4 times a day
D.
Patient complains of chest pain 2 times a day
Correct Answer
C. Patient complains of chest pain after meals about 4 times a day
Explanation The given dictation suggests that the patient is experiencing chest pain after meals, and this occurs approximately four times a day. This information is derived from the statement "patient complains of chest pain after meals about 4 times a day." The other statements provide additional information about the patient's symptoms, including severe headaches occurring twice a day and abdominal pain.
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27.
Choose the law that would assist an employee who believes there are unfavorable working coditions in the workplace and unacceptable minimum wages being paid?
A.
Family and medical leave act of 1993
B.
Fair Labor standards Act of 1939
C.
Cival rights act of 1964, Title VII
D.
Ameican with disablities act of 1990
Correct Answer
B. Fair Labor standards Act of 1939
Explanation The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1939 would assist an employee who believes there are unfavorable working conditions in the workplace and unacceptable minimum wages being paid. This act establishes standards for minimum wage, overtime pay, and child labor. It ensures that employees are paid fairly for their work and protects them from exploitative working conditions.
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28.
Litigation is another word for?
A.
Tort
B.
Assault in the medical office
C.
Defamation
D.
Lawsuit
Correct Answer
D. Lawsuit
Explanation Litigation refers to the process of taking legal action or engaging in a lawsuit. It involves bringing a legal dispute before a court of law to be resolved. Therefore, the correct answer is "lawsuit" as it is synonymous with litigation.
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29.
A locum tenens is a
A.
Court ordered physician
B.
A skilled physician
C.
A popular physician
D.
Substitute physician
Correct Answer
D. Substitute pHysician
Explanation A locum tenens is a substitute physician. This means that they are a temporary replacement for a regular physician who is unable to work due to various reasons such as illness, vacation, or other commitments. The locum tenens steps in to provide medical care and perform the duties of the absent physician, ensuring continuity of care for patients. They are skilled physicians who are able to provide the necessary medical expertise and services in the absence of the regular physician.
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30.
Which of the following is a common condition of the ear seen in children?
A.
Otitis externa
B.
Otitis media
C.
Tinnitus
D.
Otitis interna
Correct Answer
B. Otitis media
Explanation Otitis media is a common condition of the ear seen in children. It refers to the inflammation and infection of the middle ear, which is located behind the eardrum. This condition often occurs as a result of a bacterial or viral infection, causing symptoms such as ear pain, fluid buildup, hearing loss, and sometimes fever. Otitis media is more prevalent in children due to their immature immune systems and smaller Eustachian tubes, which can make it easier for bacteria or viruses to enter the middle ear. Treatment usually involves antibiotics and pain relievers, and in some cases, a surgical procedure may be necessary to drain the fluid.
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31.
What part of the eye refracts or bends in light rays?
A.
Pupil
B.
Eyelid
C.
Retina
D.
Cornea
Correct Answer
D. Cornea
Explanation The cornea is the transparent front part of the eye that refracts or bends light rays as they enter the eye. It is responsible for most of the eye's focusing power and helps to focus the light onto the retina, which is located at the back of the eye. The cornea plays a crucial role in the eye's ability to form clear images and is an important component in the overall process of vision.
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32.
Which hormone is secreted by the adrenal gland?
A.
Triodothyronine
B.
Epinephrine
C.
Thyroxine
D.
Parathormone
Correct Answer
B. EpinepHrine
Explanation Epinephrine is the correct answer because it is a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland. Also known as adrenaline, epinephrine is released in response to stress or danger, and it helps to increase heart rate, blood pressure, and energy levels. It is an important hormone in the body's fight-or-flight response, preparing the body for physical exertion or emergency situations.
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33.
The patient underwent an excision of an ovary
A.
Vaginapexy
B.
Oophorectomy
C.
Perineoplasty
D.
Salpingocele
Correct Answer
B. OopHorectomy
Explanation The correct answer is Oophorectomy. Oophorectomy is the surgical removal of one or both ovaries. In this case, the patient underwent the excision of an ovary, which aligns with the procedure of oophorectomy. Vaginapexy is a procedure to tighten the vaginal muscles, perineoplasty is a surgery to repair the perineum, and salpingocele is a herniation of the fallopian tube.
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34.
Use your ndex finger when you .................. a vein?
A.
See
B.
Inject
C.
Palpate
D.
Tounch
Correct Answer
C. Palpate
Explanation The correct answer is "palpate" because when you palpate a vein, you use your index finger to feel or examine it by gently applying pressure. Palpating a vein is often done to locate the best site for injections or to assess the condition of the vein before any medical procedure involving it.
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35.
Which locations is usually used for taking a pulse?
A.
Aplical pulse
B.
Brachial pulse
C.
Radial pulse
D.
Carotid Pulse
Correct Answer
C. Radial pulse
Explanation The radial pulse is usually used for taking a pulse because it is easily accessible and located on the wrist. The radial artery runs along the thumb side of the wrist, making it convenient for healthcare professionals to locate and measure the pulse rate. By placing two fingers on the radial artery, the pulse can be felt and counted, providing an accurate measurement of the heart rate.
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36.
Which measurement is the least reliable?
A.
Axillary
B.
Rectal
C.
Oral
D.
Sublingual
Correct Answer
C. Oral
Explanation The oral measurement is considered the least reliable because it can be affected by various factors such as eating or drinking before taking the measurement, breathing through the mouth, or improper placement of the thermometer. Axillary, rectal, and sublingual measurements are generally more accurate as they involve closer contact with the body's core temperature.
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37.
The major artery that supples the foot is called?
A.
Iliac
B.
Cephalic
C.
Popliteal
D.
Dorsalis pedis
Correct Answer
C. Popliteal
Explanation The correct answer is popliteal. The popliteal artery is the major artery that supplies blood to the foot. It is located behind the knee and branches into smaller arteries that provide blood flow to the lower leg and foot. The popliteal artery is essential for delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues of the foot, ensuring proper functioning and health.
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38.
Usually anything outside the body for example skin, hair, and nails make up what system?
A.
Sensory
B.
Nervous
C.
Central nervous
D.
Intgumentary
Correct Answer
D. Intgumentary
Explanation The correct answer is integumentary. The question asks about the system that includes skin, hair, and nails. These are all components of the integumentary system, which is responsible for protection, regulation of body temperature, and sensory perception. The integumentary system is not the same as the sensory, nervous, or central nervous systems, which have different functions and structures.
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39.
N incoming call in an busy chiropractic office or any medical office should be answered by the......... ring?
A.
Second
B.
Third
C.
Fourth
D.
Answering machine
Correct Answer
B. Third
Explanation In a busy chiropractic office or any medical office, it is important to prioritize incoming calls based on urgency. Answering the call on the third ring allows the staff to attend to other tasks and ensure that the patient is not left waiting for too long. This ensures efficient workflow and provides prompt attention to the caller's needs.
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40.
When applying triage in the hospital emergency room what woud be the correct order
Gunshot victim
women in labor w/ history of stillborns
A kid with a severe head injury
chest pain
an open fracture on leg
A.
35142
B.
31254
C.
31542
D.
31524
Correct Answer
D. 31524
Explanation The correct order for triage in the hospital emergency room is based on the severity and urgency of the condition. In this case, the most critical patients should be prioritized first. A gunshot victim (3) and a kid with a severe head injury (1) require immediate attention due to life-threatening conditions. Next, a patient with chest pain (5) should be attended to as it may indicate a heart attack. A woman in labor with a history of stillborns (2) should be seen next as she may require special care. Lastly, an open fracture on the leg (4) is a serious injury but can wait a little longer for treatment compared to the other cases.
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41.
The intercostal is an major artery that supplies the thorax?
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation The intercostal artery is indeed a major artery that supplies the thorax. It runs along the lower border of each rib, between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. It provides blood supply to the muscles, bones, and other structures in the thoracic region.
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42.
What is the common site for a pulse in an infant?
A.
Brachial
B.
Radial
C.
Carotid
D.
Femoral
Correct Answer
A. Brachial
Explanation The common site for a pulse in an infant is the brachial artery. This artery is located in the upper arm, and it is commonly used to measure the pulse rate in infants because it is easily accessible and can be palpated easily. The radial artery, located in the wrist, is commonly used to measure the pulse in adults. The carotid artery, located in the neck, is also commonly used to measure the pulse in adults, but it is not the common site for infants. The femoral artery, located in the groin area, is another site commonly used to measure the pulse in infants, but it is not as common as the brachial artery.
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43.
Drug that causes urination
A.
Diuretic
B.
Emetic
C.
Antacid
D.
Narcotics
Correct Answer
A. Diuretic
Explanation A diuretic is a drug that causes increased urine production and promotes urination. It helps in removing excess fluid from the body, which can be beneficial in conditions such as edema, high blood pressure, and certain kidney disorders. Diuretics work by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys, thus reducing the volume of fluid in the body. This can lead to a decrease in blood volume and a subsequent decrease in blood pressure. Overall, diuretics help in regulating fluid balance and promoting urine formation.
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44.
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