NCCT Quiz: Patient care Technician Certification!
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This is an NCCT Patient Care Technician Certification exam practice test. A certified patient care technician is expected to have a good understanding of how to take care of a patient until they get better. Some of their duties involve ensuring a patient's room is sanitized and taking samples when needed and correctly. This quiz will help you see how ready you are for the certification exam and get that job. Give it a shot!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Medical ethics and medical etiquette are
- A.
Different
- B.
Almost the same
- C.
The same
- D.
Opposite
Correct Answer
A. DifferentExplanation
Medical ethics and medical etiquette are different because while medical ethics refers to the moral principles and values that guide medical practice and decision-making, medical etiquette refers to the professional and social behaviors and norms expected of healthcare professionals. While both are important in the medical field, ethics focuses on the principles and values that guide actions, while etiquette focuses on professional conduct and interpersonal interactions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
"Ghost Surgery" is a
- A.
Term that is no longer used
- B.
Nurse performing most of the work for physician
- C.
Two surgeons performing as a team
- D.
Situation where the patient has consented to surgery by one physician, but without the patients knowledge or approval, another surgeon perform the surgery
Correct Answer
D. Situation where the patient has consented to surgery by one pHysician, but without the patients knowledge or approval, another surgeon perform the surgeryExplanation
"Ghost Surgery" refers to a situation where a patient has agreed to undergo surgery performed by one physician, but without their knowledge or approval, another surgeon ends up performing the surgery instead. This can occur when the patient is unaware that a different surgeon will be involved in their procedure, which goes against their consent and understanding of the surgery.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The most commonly known code of ethics for medical profession, written about 400 BC, is the
- A.
Hippocratic Oath
- B.
Code of Hammurabi
- C.
Ten Commandments
- D.
Pervical's Code
Correct Answer
A. Hippocratic OathExplanation
The correct answer is the Hippocratic Oath. The Hippocratic Oath is a code of ethics that originated in ancient Greece around 400 BC. It is one of the most well-known and influential codes of ethics for the medical profession. The oath outlines principles and guidelines for physicians, emphasizing the importance of patient care, confidentiality, and professional conduct. It has been a cornerstone of medical ethics and continues to be relevant in modern healthcare practices.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Law requires that a physician's report.
- A.
Income tax evasion
- B.
Cigarette use
- C.
Unwise diet
- D.
Child abuse
Correct Answer
D. Child abuseExplanation
The given statement implies that the law requires a physician to report cases of child abuse. Child abuse is a serious offense and can have severe consequences for the child involved. Reporting cases of child abuse is crucial in order to protect the well-being and safety of the child.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Genetic counseling and organ transplant decisions require consideration of
- A.
Color of eyes
- B.
Religious preference
- C.
Quality of life for patient
- D.
Ethnic medical practices
Correct Answer
C. Quality of life for patientExplanation
Genetic counseling involves discussing and assessing the risk of inherited conditions or genetic disorders in individuals or families. Considering the quality of life for the patient is essential in this context as it helps determine the potential impact of the genetic condition on the individual's overall well-being and daily functioning. Similarly, in organ transplant decisions, the quality of life for the patient plays a crucial role in evaluating the potential benefits and risks associated with the procedure. It helps determine if the transplant will significantly improve the patient's quality of life and if they are likely to have a successful recovery post-transplant.Rate this question:
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- 6.
________________ laws allow physicians and Patient Care Technicians to render aid at the scene of an accident without fear of lawsuits.
- A.
Local
- B.
AMA
- C.
Statue
- D.
Good Samaritan
Correct Answer
D. Good SamaritanExplanation
Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect individuals who provide assistance in emergency situations from being sued for any harm caused during the course of their aid. These laws encourage medical professionals, such as physicians and Patient Care Technicians, to provide immediate care at the scene of an accident without fear of legal repercussions. By granting immunity, Good Samaritan laws aim to ensure that individuals receive timely and potentially life-saving medical attention in emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The abbreviation for eye, ear, nose, and throat is
- A.
Endo
- B.
ED
- C.
EENT
- D.
OOB
Correct Answer
C. EENTExplanation
The correct answer is EENT because it stands for eye, ear, nose, and throat. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to refer to the collective specialties that deal with these areas of the body.Rate this question:
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- 8.
"Heme" stands for
- A.
Hemisphere
- B.
History of
- C.
History and physical
- D.
Hematology
Correct Answer
D. HematologyExplanation
"Heme" is a shortened form of the word "hematology". Hematology is the branch of medicine that deals with the study of blood, blood-forming organs, and blood diseases. Therefore, "Heme" is an abbreviation commonly used to refer to the field of hematology.Rate this question:
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- 9.
CBC stand for
- A.
Chest, back and chest
- B.
Complete blood count
- C.
Blood sugar
- D.
Continuity of care
Correct Answer
B. Complete blood countExplanation
CBC stands for complete blood count, which is a common blood test that provides information about the cells in a person's blood. This test measures various components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, and provides valuable information about a person's overall health. It is often used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as anemia, infections, and blood disorders. Therefore, the correct answer is complete blood count.Rate this question:
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- 10.
"HGB" stands for
- A.
An elevated temperature
- B.
Hemoglobin
- C.
Elevated blood pressure
- D.
Hours of sleep
Correct Answer
B. HemoglobinExplanation
HGB stands for hemoglobin, which is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. It is responsible for binding to oxygen in the lungs and releasing it to the tissues. Hemoglobin levels are often measured in blood tests to assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and to diagnose conditions such as anemia or polycythemia.Rate this question:
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- 11.
AAS is the abbreviation for
- A.
Acute abdominal series
- B.
Acute respiratory failure
- C.
Anticonvulsant
- D.
Cardiac atria
Correct Answer
A. Acute abdominal seriesExplanation
AAS is the abbreviation for "acute abdominal series." This refers to a series of diagnostic imaging tests, such as X-rays or CT scans, that are used to evaluate and diagnose acute abdominal conditions. These tests help to identify any abnormalities or injuries in the abdominal region, such as bowel obstructions, perforations, or organ damage. By performing an acute abdominal series, healthcare professionals can gather important information to guide further treatment and management of the patient's condition.Rate this question:
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- 12.
"Meg" is the abbreviation for
- A.
Magnetic resonance imaging
- B.
Iron supplements
- C.
Microgram
- D.
Mastectomy
Correct Answer
C. MicrogramExplanation
"Meg" is the abbreviation for microgram. A microgram is a unit of measurement in the metric system, representing one millionth of a gram. It is commonly used to measure very small amounts of substances, such as medications or nutrients.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The cephalic vein is located in the
- A.
Ankle
- B.
Back
- C.
Arm
- D.
Neck
Correct Answer
C. ArmExplanation
The cephalic vein is located in the arm. This vein is one of the major superficial veins in the upper limb, running along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous network of the hand, ascends along the forearm, and then passes through the deltopectoral triangle to join the axillary vein. It is commonly used for venipuncture and for creating arteriovenous fistulas in patients undergoing hemodialysis.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The subclavian vein is located in the
- A.
Chest
- B.
Hand
- C.
Leg
- D.
Abdomen
Correct Answer
A. ChestExplanation
The subclavian vein is located in the chest. It is a large vein that runs beneath the collarbone and is responsible for draining blood from the upper extremities, including the arms and shoulders, back to the heart. The chest is the correct location for the subclavian vein as it is in close proximity to the heart and provides an efficient route for blood return from the upper body. The veins in the hand, leg, and abdomen are not typically referred to as subclavian veins.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is not a chest location?
- A.
Intercoastal space
- B.
Midaxillary line
- C.
Anterior axillary line
- D.
Duodenum
Correct Answer
D. DuodenumExplanation
The duodenum is not a chest location. The intercoastal space refers to the spaces between the ribs, the midaxillary line is an imaginary line that runs vertically down the side of the body, and the anterior axillary line is another imaginary line that runs vertically down the front of the body. However, the duodenum is a part of the small intestine and is located in the abdomen, not the chest.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is not a part of the heart?
- A.
Endocrine
- B.
Superior vena cova
- C.
Inferior vena cova
- D.
Myocardium
Correct Answer
A. EndocrineExplanation
The endocrine system is not a part of the heart. The heart is a muscular organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body, while the endocrine system is a collection of glands that produce and secrete hormones. The superior vena cava and inferior vena cava are large veins that carry deoxygenated blood from the body back to the heart. The myocardium is the muscular tissue of the heart that contracts to pump blood.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Oil glands are called __________ glands.
- A.
Perineum
- B.
Subaceous
- C.
Thyroid
- D.
Progesterone
Correct Answer
B. SubaceousExplanation
Oil glands are called sebaceous glands.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Inflammation of the stomach and intestines causing discomfort is called
- A.
Gastroenteritis
- B.
Upper GI
- C.
Barium flow
- D.
Transverse colon
Correct Answer
A. GastroenteritisExplanation
Gastroenteritis refers to the inflammation of the stomach and intestines, which leads to discomfort. This condition is commonly caused by viral or bacterial infections, and it typically presents with symptoms such as diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Gastroenteritis can be easily transmitted through contaminated food or water, and it is often referred to as the stomach flu or food poisoning. Treatment usually involves rest, hydration, and symptomatic relief, and most cases resolve within a few days.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Inflammation of the large intestine is termed
- A.
Mellitus
- B.
Diabetes
- C.
Colitis
- D.
Contracture
Correct Answer
C. ColitisExplanation
Colitis refers to the inflammation of the large intestine. It is a condition that can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. This inflammation can be caused by various factors including infections, autoimmune diseases, and inflammatory bowel diseases. Treatment for colitis depends on the underlying cause and can involve medication, dietary changes, and sometimes surgery.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Inflammation of the nerves that cause numbness and tingling in the extremities is called
- A.
Neuropathy
- B.
Tomogaphy
- C.
Cyanosis
- D.
Dorsiflexion
Correct Answer
A. NeuropathyExplanation
Neuropathy refers to the inflammation of the nerves that leads to numbness and tingling in the extremities. This condition can be caused by various factors such as diabetes, infections, autoimmune disorders, or exposure to toxins. The inflammation affects the normal functioning of the nerves, resulting in abnormal sensations in the affected areas. Therefore, neuropathy is the correct answer for the given question.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Protrusion of the eyes, typically seen in persons with hyperthyroidism, is termed
- A.
Opathalmia
- B.
Exophthalmos
- C.
Mellitus
- D.
Tetany
Correct Answer
B. ExopHthalmosExplanation
Exophthalmos is the correct answer because it refers to the protrusion of the eyes, which is commonly seen in individuals with hyperthyroidism. This condition is caused by an autoimmune disorder known as Graves' disease, where the immune system mistakenly attacks the tissues surrounding the eyes. As a result, the eye muscles and fatty tissues behind the eyes become inflamed and swollen, causing the eyes to bulge forward. Exophthalmos can lead to various symptoms such as dryness, irritation, double vision, and difficulty closing the eyes completely.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The jejunum is located in the
- A.
Trachea
- B.
Rectum
- C.
Intestines
- D.
Shoulder
Correct Answer
C. IntestinesExplanation
The jejunum is a part of the small intestine, which is responsible for the absorption of nutrients from the food we eat. It is located between the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine) and the ileum (the last part of the small intestine). The trachea is part of the respiratory system, the rectum is part of the digestive system but not where the jejunum is located, and the shoulder is a part of the musculoskeletal system. Therefore, the correct answer is intestines.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is not a part of the male renal system?
- A.
Testis
- B.
Cervix
- C.
Urethra
- D.
Adrenal gland
Correct Answer
B. CervixExplanation
The cervix is not a part of the male renal system. The male renal system includes the testis, urethra, and adrenal gland. The cervix is a part of the female reproductive system, not the male renal system.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following is not a part of the female renal system?
- A.
Seminal vesicle
- B.
Ureters
- C.
Fallopian tube
- D.
Kidney
Correct Answer
A. Seminal vesicleExplanation
The seminal vesicle is not a part of the female renal system. The female renal system includes the ureters, fallopian tubes, and kidneys. The seminal vesicle is a part of the male reproductive system and is responsible for producing and storing semen.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Absence of urine production for a 24-hour period is called
- A.
Glomeruli
- B.
Anuria
- C.
Hilus
- D.
Micturition
Correct Answer
B. AnuriaExplanation
Anuria is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of urine production for a 24-hour period. This condition can be caused by various factors such as kidney damage, urinary tract obstruction, or dehydration. It is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of anuria as it can indicate a serious medical condition and may require immediate medical attention.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Used needles should be placed in the
- A.
Trash can
- B.
Paper bag taped to the patient's bed
- C.
Sharps container
- D.
Dumpster
Correct Answer
C. Sharps containerExplanation
Sharps containers are specifically designed to safely dispose of used needles. They are puncture-resistant and have a secure lid to prevent accidental needle sticks. Placing used needles in a sharps container ensures proper containment and reduces the risk of injury or infection for healthcare workers, waste handlers, and the general public. Trash cans, paper bags, and dumpsters are not appropriate for disposing of used needles as they do not provide the necessary safety measures.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When contact with bodily fluid is possible, the Patient Care Technician should wear
- A.
A gown
- B.
Gloves
- C.
A mask
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The Patient Care Technician should wear a gown, gloves, and a mask when there is a possibility of contact with bodily fluids. Wearing a gown helps protect the technician's clothing from getting contaminated. Gloves create a barrier between the technician's hands and the bodily fluids, reducing the risk of infection. Wearing a mask helps prevent the inhalation of any airborne particles or droplets that may be present in the environment. Therefore, wearing all of these protective measures is necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the Patient Care Technician.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Inactive bacteria with hard shells are called
- A.
Carriers
- B.
Spores
- C.
Seeds
- D.
Burrs
Correct Answer
B. SporesExplanation
Inactive bacteria with hard shells are called spores. Spores are a dormant form of bacteria that have a protective outer covering, allowing them to survive in harsh conditions such as extreme temperatures or lack of nutrients. These spores can remain inactive for long periods until conditions become favorable for their growth and reproduction.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Any microbes that causes disease is a(an)
- A.
Antacid
- B.
Pathogen
- C.
Nonpathogenic
- D.
Dirge
Correct Answer
B. PathogenExplanation
A pathogen refers to any microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, or fungi, that can cause disease in a host organism. These pathogens have the ability to invade and multiply within the host, leading to various illnesses and infections. Therefore, the correct answer is "pathogen" because it accurately describes any microbes that can cause disease.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who is known as the pioneer of medical asepsis?
- A.
Albert Scweiter
- B.
Salk
- C.
Nightingale
- D.
Mother Teresa
Correct Answer
C. NightingaleExplanation
Florence Nightingale is known as the pioneer of medical asepsis. She revolutionized the field of nursing during the Crimean War by implementing strict hygiene practices and emphasizing the importance of cleanliness to prevent the spread of infections. Nightingale's work laid the foundation for modern infection control measures and established the concept of aseptic technique, which is crucial in preventing healthcare-associated infections. Her contributions to healthcare and nursing have made her a renowned figure in the field and earned her the title of the pioneer of medical asepsis.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Removing germs by physical or chemical means is termed
- A.
Heating
- B.
Sterilization
- C.
Disinfection
- D.
Housecleaning
Correct Answer
C. DisinfectionExplanation
Disinfection refers to the process of removing germs from surfaces or objects by using physical or chemical means. It is different from sterilization, which completely eliminates all forms of microbial life. Disinfection is commonly used in healthcare settings, as well as in households, to reduce the risk of infection and the spread of diseases. Heating and housecleaning may help in reducing the number of germs, but they do not necessarily eliminate all pathogens. Sterilization, on the other hand, goes beyond disinfection by achieving a complete eradication of all microorganisms.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the following is not a method of infection transmission?
- A.
Vector
- B.
Vehicle
- C.
Airborne
- D.
Universal
Correct Answer
D. UniversalExplanation
The term "universal" does not refer to a method of infection transmission. "Vector" refers to the transmission of infection through organisms like mosquitoes or ticks. "Vehicle" refers to the transmission through inanimate objects like food or water. "Airborne" refers to the transmission through droplets or particles in the air. However, "universal" does not describe a specific method of transmission.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Sterile liquids are used in which of the following?
- A.
Cleaning surgical wounds
- B.
Cleaning fingernails
- C.
Astringents
- D.
Facials
Correct Answer
A. Cleaning surgical woundsExplanation
Sterile liquids are used in cleaning surgical wounds to prevent infection and promote healing. Surgical wounds are prone to bacterial contamination, and using sterile liquids helps to minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. These sterile liquids are specifically designed to be free from any bacteria or other contaminants, ensuring a safe and clean environment for wound healing.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following would indicate an immediate report to the RN?
- A.
Healing skin
- B.
Dry skin
- C.
Bleeding
- D.
Gradual changes
Correct Answer
C. BleedingExplanation
Bleeding would indicate an immediate report to the RN because it is a sign of an active injury or trauma that requires immediate attention. Bleeding can be a serious medical issue that may require intervention to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications. It is important to report any instances of bleeding to the registered nurse so that appropriate action can be taken to address the situation promptly.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The temporal artery is located in the
- A.
Wrist
- B.
Head
- C.
Ankle
- D.
Leg
Correct Answer
B. HeadExplanation
The temporal artery is located in the head. This artery is a major blood vessel that is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the head and brain. It is located on the side of the head, just above the ear. The temporal artery is commonly used to measure a person's pulse and is also a common site for taking a person's temperature using a temporal artery thermometer.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The carotid artery is located in the
- A.
Back
- B.
Heart
- C.
Neck
- D.
Face
Correct Answer
C. NeckExplanation
The carotid artery is located in the neck. This artery is one of the major blood vessels in the body and is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the brain. It runs along the side of the neck, on either side, and can be felt pulsating when touched. The carotid artery is important for maintaining proper blood flow to the brain, and any blockage or damage to this artery can have serious consequences, such as stroke or brain damage.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The common lay for the clavicle is the
- A.
Collarbone
- B.
Shin bone
- C.
Achilles heel
- D.
Elbow
Correct Answer
A. CollarboneExplanation
The clavicle is commonly known as the collarbone. It is a long bone that connects the shoulder blade to the breastbone. It is easily visible and palpable on the front of the body, forming a prominent ridge. The clavicle is an important bone as it helps to support the shoulder and allows for the movement of the upper limb. Therefore, the correct answer is collarbone.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which term is not an aspect of the spine?
- A.
Flexor pollicis
- B.
Cervical curve
- C.
Thoracic curve
- D.
Lumbar curve
Correct Answer
A. Flexor pollicisExplanation
The term "flexor pollicis" is not an aspect of the spine. The other options, cervical curve, thoracic curve, and lumbar curve, all refer to different natural curves of the spine. The cervical curve is the curve in the neck region, the thoracic curve is the curve in the upper back region, and the lumbar curve is the curve in the lower back region. However, the flexor pollicis is a muscle in the hand that is responsible for flexing the thumb, and it is not directly related to the spine.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The zygomatic and sternocleidomastoid muscle are located at the
- A.
Lower back
- B.
Abdomen
- C.
Appendix
- D.
Head
Correct Answer
D. HeadExplanation
The zygomatic and sternocleidomastoid muscles are located in the head. The zygomatic muscle is responsible for controlling facial expressions, particularly the movement of the cheeks and lips. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is a large muscle in the neck that allows for rotation and flexion of the head. Both muscles play important roles in the movement and function of the head and face.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The deltoid muscle is at the
- A.
Shoulder
- B.
Base of the spine
- C.
Sternum
- D.
Elbow
Correct Answer
A. ShoulderExplanation
The deltoid muscle is located at the shoulder. It is a large, triangular muscle that covers the shoulder joint and is responsible for the abduction, flexion, and extension of the arm. It gives the shoulder its rounded appearance and is important for shoulder stability and movement.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The masseter muscle is located at the
- A.
Gluteus maximus
- B.
Cheek
- C.
Back of the leg
- D.
Underarm
Correct Answer
B. CheekExplanation
The masseter muscle is located at the cheek. This muscle is one of the main muscles responsible for chewing and is situated on each side of the face, connecting the lower jawbone to the cheekbone. It is the strongest muscle in the human body and plays a crucial role in the process of mastication.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The liver lies above the
- A.
Pulmonary artery
- B.
Renal vein
- C.
Femoral artery
- D.
Subclavian vein
Correct Answer
B. Renal veinExplanation
The liver lies above the renal vein. The renal vein is a blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the kidneys back to the heart. The liver is located in the upper right side of the abdomen and is positioned above the renal veins. This anatomical arrangement allows the liver to receive blood from the kidneys and process it before it is returned to the heart.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The epiglottis lies at the rear of the
- A.
Clavicle
- B.
Mouth
- C.
Thalamus
- D.
Deltoid
Correct Answer
B. MouthExplanation
The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that is located at the rear of the mouth. Its main function is to prevent food or liquid from entering the windpipe during swallowing. When we swallow, the epiglottis closes over the opening of the windpipe, directing the food or liquid down the esophagus and into the stomach. Therefore, the correct answer is "mouth" because the epiglottis is found in this anatomical structure.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Sensors and electrodes are
- A.
Identical
- B.
Similar
- C.
Different
- D.
Dissimiliar
Correct Answer
A. IdenticalExplanation
The correct answer is "identical" because sensors and electrodes refer to the same thing. They are both used to detect and measure electrical signals or physical phenomena. Therefore, they are not similar, different, or dissimilar, but rather the same or identical.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Lead placement includes
- A.
Ankle placement
- B.
Shin placement
- C.
Limbs and chest leads
- D.
Head leads
Correct Answer
C. Limbs and chest leadsExplanation
Lead placement refers to the positioning of electrodes or sensors on the body to record electrical activity. In this case, the correct answer is limbs and chest leads. Limbs leads are placed on the arms and legs to measure the electrical signals of the heart from different angles. Chest leads, on the other hand, are placed on the chest to provide a more comprehensive view of the heart's electrical activity. By using both limbs and chest leads, healthcare professionals can obtain a more accurate and complete picture of the heart's functioning.Rate this question:
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- 46.
When working with color-coded vacuum tubes, ____________ is important.
- A.
Temperature
- B.
Mixing
- C.
Sequence
- D.
Manner
Correct Answer
C. SequenceExplanation
When working with color-coded vacuum tubes, sequence is important. This means that the order in which the tubes are used or arranged is significant. The color coding of the tubes may indicate specific functions or characteristics, and following a specific sequence ensures that the tubes are used correctly and in the desired order. This helps to ensure proper functioning and accuracy in whatever process or system the vacuum tubes are being used for.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following is not a type of venipuncture?
- A.
Vacuum tube method
- B.
Butterfly needle method
- C.
Needle-syringe method
- D.
Sheild method
Correct Answer
D. Sheild methodExplanation
The shield method is not a type of venipuncture. Venipuncture refers to the process of puncturing a vein to draw blood or administer medication. The vacuum tube method, butterfly needle method, and needle-syringe method are all commonly used techniques in venipuncture. However, the shield method is not a recognized or commonly used method in venipuncture procedures.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following is usually the first choice for a blood draw?
- A.
Median cubital and cephalic vein
- B.
Dorsal metacarpal veins
- C.
Dorsal plexus
- D.
Subclavian vein
Correct Answer
A. Median cubital and cepHalic veinExplanation
The median cubital and cephalic veins are usually the first choice for a blood draw because they are large, easily accessible, and located close to the surface of the skin. These veins are commonly used for venipuncture procedures as they provide a good flow of blood and minimize the risk of complications such as nerve damage or hematoma formation. The dorsal metacarpal veins, dorsal plexus, and subclavian vein are not typically preferred for blood draws due to their smaller size, deeper location, or increased risk of complications.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Another term for venipuncture is
- A.
Hematology
- B.
Phlebotomy
- C.
Labotomy
- D.
Blood glucose monitoring
Correct Answer
B. pHlebotomyExplanation
Phlebotomy is the correct answer because it refers to the procedure of puncturing a vein to draw blood for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. It is commonly known as venipuncture in medical terminology. Hematology is the study of blood and its disorders, not the procedure of drawing blood. Labotomy is not a medical term and blood glucose monitoring specifically refers to the measurement of blood sugar levels, not the procedure of drawing blood.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A tourniquet is applied to the arm during a blood draw to
- A.
Mollify the patient
- B.
Make the vein recede
- C.
Mark the correct place
- D.
Slow the blood flow
Correct Answer
D. Slow the blood flowExplanation
A tourniquet is applied to the arm during a blood draw to slow the blood flow. This is done to make it easier to locate and access the vein for the blood draw. By applying pressure to the arm with a tourniquet, it restricts the blood flow, causing the veins to become more prominent and easier to find. Slowing the blood flow also helps to prevent excessive bleeding during the procedure.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 09, 2009Quiz Created by
Kkrystll2006