1.
A network administrator is summarizing the following IP address ranges into a single route for redistribution into the network core:
192.168.0.0 /24
192.168.1.0 /24
192.168.2.0 /24
192.168.3.0 /24
Which of the following IP summary addresses will represent the listed network ranges without including any ranges not listed?
Correct Answer
D. 192.168.0.0 /22
Explanation
The correct answer is 192.168.0.0 /22 because it includes all the listed network ranges (192.168.0.0, 192.168.1.0, 192.168.2.0, and 192.168.3.0) without including any ranges not listed. The /22 subnet mask allows for a larger range of IP addresses compared to the other options, making it the most suitable choice for summarizing the given IP address ranges.
2.
A network technician has been asked to retrieve device statistics, information, and errors. Which of the following tools would the technician likely use?
Correct Answer
C. SNMP
Explanation
The network technician would likely use SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) to retrieve device statistics, information, and errors. SNMP is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices. It allows the technician to gather information from devices such as routers, switches, and servers, including performance data, error logs, and configuration details. By using SNMP, the technician can efficiently monitor and troubleshoot the network infrastructure.
3.
Which of the following is found in a layer two switch?
Correct Answer
D. VLAN settings
Explanation
A layer two switch is responsible for forwarding data packets based on the MAC addresses. VLAN settings are typically found in a layer two switch. VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allow for the segmentation and isolation of network traffic, improving network performance and security. By configuring VLAN settings on a layer two switch, network administrators can group devices into separate virtual networks, ensuring that traffic is only sent to intended recipients within the same VLAN. This helps to optimize network resources and enhance network management capabilities.
4.
Which of the following cable types transmits data over 100Mbps per direction?
Correct Answer
D. 10GBase-T
Explanation
10GBase-T is the correct answer because it is a cable type that can transmit data over 100Mbps per direction. The "10G" in 10GBase-T stands for 10 Gigabit, indicating that it is capable of transmitting data at a speed of 10 Gigabits per second. This is significantly faster than the other cable types listed, such as 100Base-TX and 100Base-T, which have a maximum speed of 100Mbps. 10Base-T, on the other hand, has a maximum speed of 10Mbps, making it even slower than the other options. Therefore, 10GBase-T is the only cable type listed that meets the requirement of transmitting data over 100Mbps per direction.
5.
A technician is dispatched to a remote office to install a new NIC in a client computer. After successfully installing and configuring the operating system to recognize the device, the computer still cannot access the network. Which of the following would MOST likely be the problem?
Correct Answer
A. The CAT5 cable is defective
Explanation
The most likely problem is that the CAT5 cable is defective. Even though the NIC has been successfully installed and configured, if the cable connecting the computer to the network is defective, it will prevent the computer from accessing the network. The other options - NIC disabled in BIOS, NIC disabled in Device Manager, and defective RJ-11 jack - would not prevent the computer from accessing the network if the cable is functioning properly.
6.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of a wireless connection dropoff in a wireless G network?
Correct Answer
C. Cordless pHones
Explanation
Cordless phones are the most likely cause of a wireless connection dropoff in a wireless G network. Cordless phones operate on similar frequencies as wireless networks, and their signals can interfere with the Wi-Fi signal, causing the connection to drop. This interference can disrupt the communication between the wireless router and the connected devices, resulting in a dropoff in the wireless connection.
7.
Which of the following tools will identify if a CAT5e cable is operating at optimal performance?
Correct Answer
C. Certifier
Explanation
A certifier is a tool specifically designed to test and certify the performance of network cables, including CAT5e cables. It can measure various parameters such as signal quality, attenuation, crosstalk, and impedance to ensure that the cable is operating at optimal performance. By using a certifier, network technicians can accurately determine if the CAT5e cable meets the required industry standards and specifications for optimal data transmission.
8.
Which of the following is the default port for POP3?
Correct Answer
C. 110
Explanation
The correct answer is 110. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is a protocol used for retrieving emails from a mail server. The default port for POP3 is 110. It is important to know the default port number when configuring email clients or troubleshooting email connectivity issues.
9.
A user contacts a technician and states that they are unable to access the network. The technician discovers that the IP address of the workstation is 169.123.142.34. Which of the following has occurred?
Correct Answer
C. The workstation has obtained a private address.
Explanation
The IP address 169.123.142.34 falls within the range of private IP addresses typically used within local networks. Private IP addresses are not routable over the public internet, and they are commonly assigned by local routers within a network. In this case, it suggests that the workstation is part of a local network and has been assigned a private IP address, which is not accessible from outside the network. Further troubleshooting may be needed to determine why the workstation is unable to access the network despite having an IP address.
10.
A technician needs to trace a wire that is in the wall. Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to identify the wires location?
Correct Answer
C. Tone Generator
Explanation
A tone generator is the best way for a technician to identify the location of a wire in the wall. A tone generator is a device that can send a signal through the wire, producing an audible tone that can be detected using a tone probe. This allows the technician to follow the tone and trace the wire's path, even if it is hidden inside the wall. A media tester, continuity tester, and multimeter may have other uses in troubleshooting electrical systems, but they are not specifically designed for locating wires in walls.
11.
Users are reporting that they can access Internet web pages but cannot access the internal company website. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of the problem?
Correct Answer
A. The intranet server is down.
Explanation
Based on the information provided, the most likely source of the problem is that the intranet server is down. This is because users are able to access Internet web pages, which suggests that their internet connection is working fine. However, they are unable to access the internal company website, indicating that the issue lies with the internal server.
12.
When connecting two devices for voice on a vertical connect, which of the following cables would be used to connect the two devices?
Correct Answer
B. 25 pair cable
Explanation
A 25 pair cable would be used to connect two devices for voice on a vertical connect. This type of cable consists of multiple pairs of wires, typically 25 pairs, which allows for multiple connections to be made between devices. Each pair of wires can be used for a separate voice connection, making it suitable for connecting two devices for voice communication.
13.
Which of the following protocols allows email to be viewed while remaining on the email server?
Correct Answer
D. IMAP4
Explanation
IMAP4 is the correct answer because it is a protocol that allows email to be viewed while remaining on the email server. Unlike POP3, which downloads emails to the local device, IMAP4 keeps the emails on the server and allows the user to access and manage them remotely. This is useful for users who access their email from multiple devices or who want to keep their emails stored centrally. SMTP is a protocol used for sending emails, while SSL is a security protocol used to encrypt data transmission.
14.
A Network address of 220.100.100.100 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 can be rewritten in classlessinterdomain routing notation (CIDR) as which of the following?
Correct Answer
A. 220.100.100.100 /24
Explanation
The given network address 220.100.100.100 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 can be rewritten in CIDR notation as 220.100.100.100 /24. The subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 has 24 bits set to 1, indicating that the first 24 bits of the IP address are used for the network portion, and the remaining 8 bits are used for the host portion. Therefore, the CIDR notation for this network address would include the IP address followed by the slash and the number of bits used for the network portion, which is 24 in this case.
15.
A company is getting a new sales system that must remain secure and isolated. The network administrator needs to segregate network traffic for security reasons. Currently there is one addressing scheme 10.2.10.x, with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.Which of the following methods would BEST help in segregating the traffic?
Correct Answer
D. Creating a new subnet for this system
Explanation
Creating a new subnet for this system would be the best method to segregate the network traffic. By creating a new subnet, the network administrator can separate the traffic for the new sales system from the rest of the network. This provides a higher level of security and isolation for the sales system, ensuring that it remains secure and protected.
16.
A network administrator has been receiving work orders about poor voice quality crossing a branch T1.The cause is determined to be users running high bandwidth file sharing applications across the T1 sending large packets delaying the smaller voice streams. Which of the following would improve voice quality?
Correct Answer
B. Configure traffic shaping to reduce the bandwidth available to the file sharing application.
Explanation
Configuring traffic shaping to reduce the bandwidth available to the file sharing application would improve voice quality. By limiting the bandwidth allocated to the file sharing application, the network administrator can ensure that the voice streams are not delayed by the large packets generated by the file sharing application. This will prioritize the voice traffic and prevent it from being affected by the high bandwidth file sharing application, resulting in improved voice quality.
17.
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?
Correct Answer
C. DNS server
Explanation
A DNS server uses pointer records (PTR) and A records to map domain names to IP addresses and vice versa. A PTR record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, while an A record is used to map a domain name to an IP address. This allows the DNS server to translate human-readable domain names into machine-readable IP addresses, enabling communication between devices on a network.
18.
DNS services are in a failed state on a network. Some users require FQDN to access specific services. A temporary solution would be to:
Correct Answer
A. Create a local host file on the PC.
Explanation
When DNS services are in a failed state on a network, creating a local host file on the PC can provide a temporary solution. A host file contains mappings of IP addresses to domain names, allowing the PC to resolve domain names locally without relying on DNS. By adding the necessary mappings to the host file, users can access specific services using their FQDNs even when DNS services are not functioning properly. This bypasses the need for DNS resolution and allows the PC to directly resolve the domain names using the information in the host file.
19.
A user has a small network of four computers that they want to connect to a single cable modem. Which of the following devices would allow the user to do this?
Correct Answer
A. Four port wireless router
Explanation
A four port wireless router would allow the user to connect their small network of four computers to a single cable modem. A wireless router combines the functionality of a router, which directs network traffic, and a wireless access point, which allows wireless devices to connect to the network. The four ports on the router would allow the user to directly connect their four computers to the router, providing them with internet access through the cable modem.
20.
Which of the following devices allows segregation of collision domains but not broadcasting domains?
Correct Answer
B. SWITCH
Explanation
A switch allows segregation of collision domains but not broadcasting domains. A collision domain is a network segment where collisions can occur if multiple devices try to transmit data at the same time. A switch creates separate collision domains for each of its ports, reducing the likelihood of collisions. On the other hand, a broadcasting domain is a network segment where broadcast messages are sent to all connected devices. Switches do not limit the broadcasting domain, as they forward broadcast messages to all connected devices. Therefore, a switch allows for the separation of collision domains while still allowing broadcast messages to be sent to all devices.
21.
A user reports that when the phone rings in their house the wireless on their laptops becomes disconnected. Which of the following BEST describes the issue?
Correct Answer
A. The cordless pHones are 2.4Ghz which interferes with wireless
Explanation
The 2.4Ghz frequency used by the cordless phones is causing interference with the wireless connection on the laptops.
22.
Which of the following documentation would a network administrator need to update if they have just finished upgrading the firmware on all the switches within the LAN?
Correct Answer
D. Baseline and configuration documentation
Explanation
After upgrading the firmware on all the switches within the LAN, the network administrator would need to update the baseline and configuration documentation. This documentation contains the baseline configuration settings and any changes made to the network devices. By updating this documentation, the network administrator ensures that it accurately reflects the current state of the network after the firmware upgrade. This documentation is crucial for troubleshooting, future upgrades, and maintaining the network infrastructure.
23.
After deploying three large additional servers in a rack there are reports of network instability and other issues across all servers in the rack. It has been verified that there is sufficient power resources and network bandwidth. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?
Correct Answer
C. Temperature monitor
Explanation
The technician should check the temperature monitor next. The deployment of three large additional servers in the rack may have caused an increase in heat generation, leading to network instability and other issues. Monitoring the temperature will help identify if the servers are overheating, which can affect their performance and stability.
24.
A network engineer for a company has issued the 10.44.210.0/24 network for a branch office. The network administrator for the branch has three separate VLANs for voice, workstations, and servers. There are approximately 50 end user workstations, 50 IP phones that require addressing, and a dozen servers. How should the network administrator use the block allocated to the branch?
Correct Answer
A. Subnet the block into /26s and assign one to each VLAN
Explanation
The network administrator should subnet the block into /26s and assign one to each VLAN. This will provide enough IP addresses for each VLAN while efficiently utilizing the given block. Subnetting into /26s will create 4 subnets, which is sufficient for the three VLANs (voice, workstations, and servers) and allows for future expansion if needed.
25.
Which of the following is the standard data transmission rate for an OC3 line?
Correct Answer
D. 155.52Mbps
Explanation
The standard data transmission rate for an OC3 line is 155.52Mbps.
26.
A router receives a packet with a destination address 72.44.69.254?however, no entry in the routing table exists for the network. Which of the following actions will the router take?
Correct Answer
D. The packet will be forwarded to the next hop address of the default route.
Explanation
When a router receives a packet with a destination address for which no entry exists in the routing table, it will follow the default route. The default route is a preconfigured path that the router uses when it doesn't have a specific route for the destination. In this case, the router will forward the packet to the next hop address specified in the default route, allowing it to reach its destination.
27.
A technician is sent to troubleshoot a connectivity issue on A company's web server. Which of the following is the NEXT step after verifying that one of the NICs has no LEDs flashing?
Correct Answer
B. Check for hardware conflicts or disabled devices.
Explanation
After verifying that one of the NICs has no LEDs flashing, the next step would be to check for hardware conflicts or disabled devices. This is important because it could indicate a problem with the network interface card or other hardware components that are causing the connectivity issue. By checking for hardware conflicts or disabled devices, the technician can identify any potential issues and resolve them to restore connectivity to the web server.
28.
Which of the following WAN technologies uses thirty 64Kbps channels?
Correct Answer
C. E-1
Explanation
E-1 is the correct answer because it is a WAN technology that uses thirty 64Kbps channels. E-1 is a digital transmission format commonly used in Europe and other parts of the world. It provides a total bandwidth of 2.048 Mbps, which is divided into thirty 64Kbps channels. These channels can be used for voice, data, or video transmission over long distances.
29.
Which of the following is considered a connection-oriented protocol?
Correct Answer
C. TCP
Explanation
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is considered a connection-oriented protocol because it establishes a reliable and ordered connection between two devices before data transmission. It ensures that all packets are received in the correct order and without errors by using acknowledgments and retransmissions. TCP also provides flow control and congestion control mechanisms to optimize data transfer. In contrast, UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not establish a dedicated connection and does not guarantee reliable delivery of packets. SPX (Sequenced Packet Exchange) is a connection-oriented protocol used in Novell NetWare networks, but it is not as widely used as TCP. IP (Internet Protocol) is a connectionless protocol responsible for addressing and routing packets in the Internet Protocol Suite.
30.
A technician wants to remotely log into an office computer using remote desktop. The technician needs to do this in a secure manner. Which of the following would accomplish this?
Correct Answer
A. VPN
Explanation
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) would accomplish remote logging into an office computer in a secure manner. A VPN creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, such as the internet, allowing the technician to access the office computer securely from a remote location. This ensures that the data transmitted between the technician's device and the office computer is protected from unauthorized access or interception. Telnet, VLAN, and tagged packets do not provide the same level of security as a VPN.
31.
A user is trying to establish an FTP connection to a computer at home. The home computer is turned on and has Internet connectivity? however, they are unable to connect from the PC at work. The IP address that the user is trying to connect to is 192.168.1.125.Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
Correct Answer
D. The IP address of the home computer is not routable across the Internet.
Explanation
The IP address 192.168.1.125 is a private IP address, which means it is not routable across the Internet. Private IP addresses are meant for local networks and cannot be directly accessed from the Internet. Therefore, the user is unable to establish an FTP connection to the home computer because the IP address is not routable.
32.
A company requires a hub and spoke WAN solution. Which of the following are BEST suited to meet this need? (Select THREE).
Correct Answer(s)
B. MPLS
C. Framerelay
D. ATM
Explanation
MPLS, Frame Relay, and ATM are the best options for a hub and spoke WAN solution. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a scalable and efficient solution that can prioritize traffic and provide secure connections. Frame Relay is a cost-effective option that allows for the creation of virtual circuits and supports multiple protocols. ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) is a high-speed solution that can handle large amounts of data and provide reliable connections. ISDN and DOCSIS are not as well-suited for a hub and spoke WAN solution as they are more commonly used for different purposes.
33.
Which of the following tools enables the technician to trace cables in multiple pair wiring?
Correct Answer
D. Toner probe
Explanation
A toner probe is a tool that enables a technician to trace cables in multiple pair wiring. It works by sending a tone through the cable, which can then be detected by a receiver. The technician can use the receiver to follow the tone and locate the specific cable they are looking for. This is especially useful in situations where there are many cables running together and it can be difficult to visually trace them. A toner probe is a common tool used in network and telecommunications installations and troubleshooting.
34.
Which of the following is a routable public class A address?
Correct Answer
D. 19.16.18.1
Explanation
The answer 19.16.18.1 is a routable public class A address because it falls within the range of 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0, which is reserved for class A network addresses. Class A addresses are used for large networks and can support a large number of devices. The other options, 10.0.0.255 and 10.0.0.10, are private IP addresses from the class A range reserved for internal networks. The address 19.16.18.255 is also not a routable public address as it falls outside the valid range for class A addresses.
35.
A technician wants to see how many server connections are open on a client machine. Which of the following is the command to see these connections?
Correct Answer
B. Netstat
Explanation
Netstat is the correct command to see the open server connections on a client machine. Netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that displays active network connections, listening ports, and routing tables. It provides information about the network connections established by the computer, including the protocol used, local and remote IP addresses, and the state of the connection. By using the netstat command, the technician can easily view the open server connections on the client machine.
36.
A technician is creating a patch cable to connect two PCs for file sharing. Which of the following cables should the technician uses ?
Correct Answer
C. Crossover
Explanation
A crossover cable should be used to connect two PCs for file sharing. Unlike a straight cable, which is used to connect a PC to a switch or router, a crossover cable allows the PCs to directly communicate with each other without the need for a network device. This is achieved by swapping the transmit and receive wires on one end of the cable, allowing the PCs to send and receive data effectively.
37.
Which of the following is the maximum number of wire pairs that can be used in an RJ-11 connector?
Correct Answer
B. 2
Explanation
An RJ-11 connector is commonly used for telephone connections and typically has 6 positions and 4 contacts. Each wire pair requires 2 contacts, so the maximum number of wire pairs that can be used in an RJ-11 connector is 2.
38.
Which of the following is correct when converting 192 to binary?
Correct Answer
C. 11000000
Explanation
The correct answer is 11000000. When converting 192 to binary, we start by dividing it by 2 repeatedly and noting the remainders. The remainders, from bottom to top, give us the binary representation of the number. In this case, 192 divided by 2 is 96 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 96 by 2 gives us 48 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 48 by 2 gives us 24 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 24 by 2 gives us 12 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 12 by 2 gives us 6 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 6 by 2 gives us 3 with a remainder of 0. Dividing 3 by 2 gives us 1 with a remainder of 1. Finally, dividing 1 by 2 gives us 0 with a remainder of 1. Putting all the remainders together, we get 11000000.
39.
Which of the following is the FIRST criterion used to select a nexthop from the routing table?
Correct Answer
C. Most precise matching prefix
Explanation
The first criterion used to select a nexthop from the routing table is the most precise matching prefix. This means that the router will look for the entry in the routing table that has the longest prefix match with the destination IP address. By selecting the most precise matching prefix, the router ensures that it chooses the most specific route to reach the destination, which helps in efficient and accurate routing.
40.
Which of the following is port 123 commonly used for?
Correct Answer
C. NTP
Explanation
Port 123 is commonly used for NTP (Network Time Protocol). NTP is a protocol used for synchronizing the time on network devices. It allows devices to accurately maintain the same time by synchronizing with a time server. Port 123 is used for NTP communication between the client and the server.
41.
A remote user cannot connect to the office via VPN. The user has established Internet connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely next step in troubleshooting?
Correct Answer(s)
C. Power cycle the VPN concentrator at the office.
D. Determine if the user has the correct VPN address and password.
42.
Which of the following would limit the availability of the types of sites that users on a LAN have access to?
Correct Answer
B. A proxy server
Explanation
A proxy server can limit the availability of the types of sites that users on a LAN have access to by acting as an intermediary between the users and the internet. It can be configured to block certain websites or categories of websites, effectively restricting the access of users to those sites. By filtering and controlling the traffic that passes through it, a proxy server can enforce access policies and prevent users from accessing specific websites or content.
43.
Which of the following utilities will produce the results printed below?
Tracing route to 172.30.0.78 over a maximum of 30 hops 1 <1 ms <1 ms172.30.0.78
Correct Answer
B. Tracert
Explanation
The correct answer is tracert because tracert is a utility that is used to trace the route that packets take to reach a destination. In the given results, it shows the route to the IP address 172.30.0.78 over a maximum of 30 hops. The output also includes the latency (ms) for each hop in the route.
44.
Which of the following would a network administrator MOST likely configure on a workstation to block certain websites and ports?
Correct Answer
C. Host-based firewall
Explanation
A network administrator would most likely configure a host-based firewall on a workstation to block certain websites and ports. A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on an individual computer and can be customized to control inbound and outbound network traffic. By configuring the host-based firewall, the network administrator can specify rules to block access to specific websites and ports, providing an additional layer of security for the workstation.
45.
A user is having intermittent problems connecting to their network shares. A network technician is able to determine that there is a problem within the network cabling in between the workstation and the switch. All other users are able to connect successfully to the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
Correct Answer
D. Crosstalk and interference are occurring.
Explanation
The most likely cause for the intermittent problems connecting to the network shares is crosstalk and interference. Crosstalk refers to the phenomenon where signals from one cable interfere with signals in another cable, leading to data corruption or loss. Interference can occur due to electromagnetic interference (EMI) from nearby electrical devices or radio frequency interference (RFI) from other wireless devices. These issues can disrupt the transmission of data between the workstation and the switch, resulting in intermittent connectivity problems.
46.
Which of the following protocols provides a secure method to remotely administer a server?
Correct Answer
C. SSH
Explanation
SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that provides a secure method to remotely administer a server. It encrypts the data transmitted over the network, ensuring confidentiality and integrity. Unlike Telnet, which transmits data in clear text, SSH encrypts the communication, making it resistant to eavesdropping and unauthorized access. Similarly, SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is a secure alternative to FTP, but it specifically deals with file transfers rather than remote administration. HTTP is a protocol used for web browsing and does not provide the necessary security measures for remote server administration.
47.
Which of the following is the maximum distance a 10GBase-EW connection can transmit with one repeater?
Correct Answer
B. 80,000 meters (262,467 feet)
Explanation
The correct answer is 80,000 meters (262,467 feet). 10GBase-EW is a type of Ethernet technology that can transmit data at a rate of 10 gigabits per second. With the use of one repeater, it can transmit data up to a maximum distance of 80,000 meters or 262,467 feet.
48.
On a Windows network, users are reporting that they cannot access any network resources. The userscan ping the IP address and connect to the network resource using the IP address. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
Correct Answer
B. The DNS server is not resolving correctly.
Explanation
The given answer is correct because the users are able to ping the IP address and connect to the network resource using the IP address, which indicates that the network connection is functioning properly. However, they are unable to access network resources by their hostname, suggesting a DNS resolution issue. DNS is responsible for resolving domain names to IP addresses, so if the DNS server is not resolving correctly, it would prevent users from accessing network resources by their hostname.
49.
A network technician is assigned the task of connecting two switches in two different wiring closets. Which of the following cable types is the appropriate choice?
Correct Answer
A. Crossover
Explanation
A crossover cable is the appropriate choice for connecting two switches in two different wiring closets. This type of cable allows for direct communication between the switches without the need for a separate network device, such as a hub or a router. It is designed to connect similar devices, such as two switches or two computers, by crossing over the transmit and receive wires. This enables the switches to send and receive data effectively, creating a direct link between them.
50.
Which of the following access methods is used for wireless medium access?
Correct Answer
C. CSMA / CA
Explanation
CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) is the correct answer. CSMA/CA is a medium access control protocol used in wireless networks to avoid collisions between multiple devices trying to access the same channel simultaneously. It works by requiring devices to first sense the channel and check if it is idle before transmitting data. If the channel is busy, the device waits for a random period of time before attempting to transmit again, reducing the chance of collisions. This method is commonly used in Wi-Fi networks to ensure efficient and reliable communication.