1.
QUESTION NO: 401
Ensuring that data is transmitted securely over an IP network is the main purpose of:
Correct Answer
B. TLS
Explanation
TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol that ensures secure communication over an IP network. It provides encryption and authentication mechanisms to protect data transmitted between devices. By using TLS, data is encrypted and decrypted at the endpoints, preventing unauthorized access and ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted information. This makes TLS the main purpose for securely transmitting data over an IP network.
2.
QUESTION NO: 402
Which of the following ipconfig switches will display when the lease was obtained?
Correct Answer
C. /all
Explanation
The correct answer is /all. The /all switch in ipconfig displays all the configuration information for all network connections, including the lease obtained time.
3.
QUESTION NO: 403
Which of the following is a topology used in networks for its scalability?
Correct Answer
A. Star
Explanation
The star topology is commonly used in networks for its scalability. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, allowing for easy expansion by simply adding more devices to the network. This topology also provides a high level of fault tolerance, as the failure of one device does not affect the rest of the network. Additionally, the star topology allows for efficient data transmission, as each device has its own dedicated connection to the central hub.
4.
QUESTION NO: 404
Which of the following logs would let the network administrator know that there are performance and network issues within the LAN?
Correct Answer
D. System logs
Explanation
System logs would let the network administrator know about performance and network issues within the LAN. System logs record information about the operating system, network hardware, and software on the network. They provide details about errors, warnings, and other events that can help identify performance and network issues. Application logs, proxy logs, and configuration logs may provide information about specific applications, proxy servers, or network configurations, but they may not provide a comprehensive view of overall performance and network issues within the LAN.
5.
QUESTION NO: 405
Which of the following is a benefit of using dynamic routing as opposed to static routing?
Correct Answer
B. Scales to large networks
Explanation
Dynamic routing is a benefit over static routing because it can scale to large networks. In static routing, routes are manually configured and do not adapt to changes in the network. This can become cumbersome and inefficient in large networks where there are frequent changes in network topology. Dynamic routing protocols, on the other hand, automatically update and adapt to changes in the network, making them more suitable for large networks. They can dynamically learn and exchange routing information, making it easier to scale and manage the network effectively.
6.
QUESTION NO: 406
Which of the following tools would be used to verify the wiring installation for the network?
Correct Answer
B. Cable tester
Explanation
A cable tester is used to verify the wiring installation for a network. It helps to identify any faults or issues in the network cables, such as continuity problems, shorts, or open circuits. By using a cable tester, technicians can ensure that the wiring is properly installed and functioning correctly, which is essential for a reliable network connection. A multimeter is used to measure voltage, resistance, and current, but it is not specifically designed for testing network cables. A voltage event recorder and protocol analyzer are also not used for verifying wiring installation.
7.
QUESTION NO: 407
A network administrator needs to ensure that users are authenticated before they are given access to the network. Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?
Correct Answer
C. 802. lx
Explanation
The correct answer is 802.1x. 802.1x is a protocol that provides port-based authentication for network access. It ensures that users are authenticated before they are granted access to the network. This protocol is commonly used in wired and wireless networks to enforce security measures and prevent unauthorized access.
8.
QUESTION NO: 408
Which of the following is the MOST secure wireless encryption?
Correct Answer
C. WPA2
Explanation
WPA2 is the most secure wireless encryption because it uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm, which is considered to be highly secure. It provides stronger encryption and better security features compared to WPA and WEP. ESSID is not an encryption method, but rather the name of a wireless network.
9.
QUESTION NO: 409
A network technician is installing a small wireless network. A requirement is that individual users must authenticate using usemames and passwords. Which of the following technologies would support users authenticating with encrypted usenames and passwords?
Correct Answer
D. WPA PEAP
Explanation
WPA PEAP (Wi-Fi Protected Access Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) would support users authenticating with encrypted usernames and passwords. PEAP is an authentication protocol that provides an additional layer of security by encrypting the authentication process between the user and the authentication server. This ensures that usernames and passwords are transmitted securely over the wireless network, protecting them from potential eavesdropping or unauthorized access.
10.
QUESTION NO: 410
A 66 block is typically connected to the telecommunication company through which of the following types of cable?
Correct Answer
C. 25 pair
Explanation
A 66 block is typically connected to the telecommunication company through a 25 pair cable. This type of cable is commonly used in telecommunication systems to connect phone lines and other communication devices. It consists of 25 pairs of wires, allowing for multiple connections to be made on a single cable. This makes it a suitable choice for connecting the 66 block, which is a type of punch-down block used for organizing and terminating telephone and data connections.
11.
QUESTION NO: 411
A network administrator wants to ensure that connections between two servers are split according to usage. Which of the following devices can be used to BEST accomplish this?
Correct Answer
B. Load balancer
Explanation
A load balancer is the best device to accomplish splitting connections between two servers according to usage. Load balancers distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers, ensuring that the workload is evenly distributed and preventing any single server from being overwhelmed. This helps to optimize performance, improve availability, and prevent server downtime. By intelligently distributing traffic, load balancers can ensure that connections are split based on usage, allowing for efficient resource utilization and improved overall network performance.
12.
QUESTION NO: 412
Which of the following protocols should be used to securely copy a file? (Select TWO).
Correct Answer(s)
A. SFTP
B. SCP
Explanation
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) and SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) should be used to securely copy a file. Both protocols provide secure file transfer over a network, ensuring that the file is transmitted and received securely without any unauthorized access or tampering. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) do not provide the same level of security as SFTP and SCP, making them less suitable for securely copying files. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network management, not file transfer.
13.
QUESTION NO: 413
Which of the following will have problems functioning if a firewall has been set up to block all UDP traffic?
Correct Answer
B. A VoIP device
Explanation
A VoIP device will have problems functioning if a firewall has been set up to block all UDP traffic because UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is commonly used for voice and video communication in VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) systems. Blocking UDP traffic would prevent the VoIP device from sending and receiving voice data, resulting in the inability to make or receive calls.
14.
QUESTION NO: 414
A technician is dispatched to a house where the user reports intermittent problems with their wireless network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of drop-offs?
Correct Answer
C. Cordless pHones
Explanation
Cordless phones are the most likely cause of drop-offs in a wireless network. Cordless phones operate on the same frequency range as Wi-Fi networks, which can cause interference and result in intermittent problems. When a cordless phone is used near a Wi-Fi router, it can disrupt the wireless signal and cause drop-offs in the network connection. Therefore, the presence of cordless phones in the vicinity is the most probable explanation for the reported intermittent issues with the wireless network.
15.
QUESTION NO: 415
Which of the following is resistant to crosstalk?
Correct Answer
A. 1 OOBase-FX
Explanation
OOBase-FX is resistant to crosstalk because it uses fiber optic cables for data transmission. Fiber optic cables are immune to electromagnetic interference and do not experience crosstalk, which is the interference caused by signals from adjacent cables. This makes OOBase-FX a reliable choice for environments where crosstalk is a concern. 10GBase-CX, STP, and 1000Base-T, on the other hand, use copper cables which are more susceptible to crosstalk.
16.
QUESTION NO: 416
The difference between lOBase-T and 100Base-T is:
Correct Answer
B. Shorter timing between Ethernet frames.
Explanation
The correct answer is "shorter timing between Ethernet frames." This means that in 100Base-T, the time interval between sending Ethernet frames is shorter compared to lOBase-T. This allows for faster data transmission and improved network performance. The other options mentioned in the question are not relevant to the difference between lOBase-T and 100Base-T.
17.
QUESTION NO: 417
Which of the following tools could an administrator use to determine if a machine was using the correct DNS server? (Select TWO).
Correct Answer(s)
A. Ipconfig
D. Ifconfig
Explanation
An administrator could use the "ipconfig" command on a Windows machine or the "ifconfig" command on a Linux machine to determine if a machine is using the correct DNS server. These commands provide information about the network configuration of the machine, including the DNS server IP address that is being used. By comparing the displayed DNS server IP address with the expected correct DNS server IP address, the administrator can determine if the machine is using the correct DNS server.
18.
QUESTION NO: 418
Which of the following would occur at the application layer of the OSI model?
Correct Answer
B. FTP
Explanation
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol that operates at the application layer of the OSI model. It is used for transferring files between a client and a server on a network. FTP provides a set of commands that allow users to upload, download, and manage files on a remote server. It uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) as its transport protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data. FTP is commonly used for website maintenance, software updates, and file sharing.
19.
QUESTION NO: 419
Given the following routing table entries, which of the following will the next-hop address be for a packet destined for the address 192.168.1.203?
Network Address Subnet Mask Next Hop Address
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 77.0.5.5
192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 66.40.90.121 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 72.40.91.1 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.127 40.40.0.254
Correct Answer
D. 72.40.91.1
Explanation
The next-hop address for a packet destined for the address 192.168.1.203 would be 72.40.91.1. This is because the given routing table entries show that the destination address falls within the subnet 192.168.1.0/24, and the corresponding next-hop address for this subnet is 72.40.91.1.
20.
QUESTION NO: 420
SMTP resides at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
Correct Answer
B. Application
Explanation
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used for sending email messages. It operates at the Application layer of the OSI model. The Application layer is responsible for providing network services to user applications, and SMTP is specifically designed for email communication, making it the correct answer. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication and does not directly involve SMTP. The Network and Presentation layers also do not directly relate to SMTP.
21.
QUESTION NO: 421
A host is unable to communicate across a network. From the information below, which of the following is the cause of the issue?Host Name ...............- Test20
Primary Dns Suffix ........... - abc.com
Node Type ...............Unknown
IP Routing Enabled .................- No
WINS Proxy Enabled .................- No
DNS Suffix Search List .............- abc.com
Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Description ........
Physical Address ......
- Broadcom NetXtreme Gigabit Ethernet • 00-00-00-15-Al-DO
Dhcp Enabled ...........
- No
IP Address .................
:
10.0.37.144
Subnet Mask .......
- 255.255.254.0
Default Gateway
- 10.0.38.1
DNS Servers ............
.:
10.0.36.5
Correct Answer
C. Gateway IP is incorrect.
Explanation
The given information shows that the host's IP address is 10.0.37.144 and the subnet mask is 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is 10.0.38.1. Since the subnet mask is correct and the IP address is within the same subnet, the issue is not related to the subnet mask or IP address. However, the default gateway IP address is incorrect. The host is unable to communicate across the network because the default gateway is not set correctly.
22.
QUESTION NO: 422
Which of the following is the maximum cable length in a 1000Base-T network?
Correct Answer
D. 100 meters (328 feet)
Explanation
In a 1000Base-T network, the maximum cable length is 100 meters (328 feet). This is because 1000Base-T is a type of Ethernet network that uses twisted pair cables, and the maximum length for this type of cable is 100 meters. Beyond this distance, the signal strength and quality may degrade, leading to data transmission issues.
23.
QUESTION NO: 423
After a power outage several switches lose their current configurations, but the core router is still working properly. The switches affected are not able to connect to the network. After further investigation the network administrator is able to identify the affected areas, establish the cause, and escalated the problem. Which of the following would be the NEXT step that the network administrator should do?
Correct Answer
C. Create an action plan and solution.
Explanation
After identifying the affected areas and establishing the cause of the problem, the network administrator should create an action plan and solution. This step is necessary to address the power outage issue and restore connectivity for the switches. It involves developing a plan of action to rectify the problem and implementing a solution that will enable the affected switches to connect to the network again. This could include reconfiguring the switches, restoring their previous configurations, or implementing any necessary changes to prevent similar issues in the future.
24.
QUESTION NO: 424
100Base-TF uses which of the following types of cabled medium?
Correct Answer
D. Ethernet implementation over fiber
Explanation
100Base-TF uses Ethernet implementation over fiber as its cabled medium. This means that it utilizes fiber optic cables to transmit data at a speed of 100 Mbps. Fiber optic cables offer high bandwidth, low latency, and are immune to electromagnetic interference, making them suitable for long-distance and high-speed data transmission.
25.
QUESTION NO: 425
Which of the following protocols are used for email traffic? (Select THREE).
Correct Answer(s)
C. POP3
E. IMAP4
G. SMTP
Explanation
POP3, IMAP4, and SMTP are the protocols used for email traffic. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is used to receive emails from a mail server to a client device. IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol version 4) is used to access and manage emails on a mail server from multiple devices. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used to send emails from a client device to a mail server for delivery to the recipient's mailbox. Therefore, these three protocols are essential for the functioning of email communication.
26.
QUESTION NO: 426
Which of the following is required to pass traffic from one VLAN to another?
Correct Answer
A. A layer three switch
Explanation
A layer three switch is required to pass traffic from one VLAN to another because it operates at the network layer (layer 3) of the OSI model and can perform routing functions. Layer two switches operate at the data link layer and can only forward traffic within the same VLAN. A server with NICs on both VLANs can also pass traffic between VLANs, but it is not the most efficient solution. A layer one switch is not capable of routing or forwarding traffic between VLANs.
27.
QUESTION NO: 427
A user is having connectivity issues at multiple locations when using the RJ-45 port on the laptop. A technician wants to know if the CAT5e cable is the source of the problem. Which of the following should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?
Correct Answer
D. Cable tester
Explanation
A cable tester is the most appropriate tool to troubleshoot connectivity issues with a CAT5e cable. It can verify the continuity of the cable and identify any faults or breaks in the wiring. By using a cable tester, the technician can determine if the cable is the source of the problem and take appropriate action to resolve the issue.
28.
QUESTION NO: 428
Which of the following address ranges should a network administrator deny in the ACL to prevent multicast packets from crossing the WAN interface?
Correct Answer
A. 224.0.0.0-239.255.255.255
Explanation
The address range 224.0.0.0-239.255.255.255 should be denied in the ACL to prevent multicast packets from crossing the WAN interface. Multicast addresses are used for one-to-many communication, where a single packet is sent to multiple recipients. By denying this range, the network administrator ensures that multicast traffic is not allowed to cross the WAN interface, limiting it to the local network only. The other address ranges mentioned (127.0.0.0-127.255.255.255, 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255, and 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255) are not relevant to preventing multicast traffic.
29.
QUESTION NO: 429
After installing a new switch and connecting redundant uplinks to other switches, a LAN experiences a broadcast storm causing severe throughput problems. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the broadcast storm?
Correct Answer
B. Spanning-tree protocol was not operational on the LAN.
Explanation
The most likely cause of the broadcast storm is that the spanning-tree protocol was not operational on the LAN. The spanning-tree protocol is used to prevent loops in a network by blocking redundant paths. Without the spanning-tree protocol, multiple paths can be active simultaneously, causing a broadcast storm. This can lead to severe throughput problems as the network becomes flooded with broadcast traffic.
30.
QUESTION NO: 430
Which of the following routing protocols has a limitation of 15 hops?
Correct Answer
B. RIP
Explanation
RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is the correct answer because it has a limitation of 15 hops. RIP uses hop count as the metric to determine the best path for routing. A hop refers to each network device that a packet must pass through to reach its destination. Therefore, RIP is not suitable for large networks with more than 15 hops as it may result in routing loops and inefficient routing decisions. OSPF, IGRP, and BGP do not have this limitation.
31.
QUESTION NO: 431
Which of the following is the default port for HTTPS?
Correct Answer
B. 443
Explanation
The default port for HTTPS is 443. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the secure version of HTTP, which is used to transmit data securely over the internet. By default, HTTPS uses port 443 for communication between the server and the client. This port is specifically designated for secure web communication and is widely used for secure online transactions, sensitive data transfers, and secure browsing.
32.
QUESTION NO: 432
An administrator is going to be performing maintenance on a network router and wants to temporarily re-route traffic through another office. Which of the following would allow the administrator to accomplish this?
Correct Answer
A. Configure a static route.
Explanation
Configuring a static route allows the administrator to manually specify the path that network traffic should take. By configuring a static route, the administrator can redirect traffic through another office temporarily during maintenance on a network router. This ensures that the traffic is routed correctly and reaches its intended destination. EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol) is used for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems, not for temporarily re-routing traffic. Implementing NAT (Network Address Translation) on the server is used for translating IP addresses between different networks, not for re-routing traffic. Implementing steady state convergence is a term that does not relate to re-routing traffic.
33.
QUESTION NO: 433
A technician pings 127.0.0.1 and gets the following result: Unable to contact IP driver, en-or code 2.Which of the following would resolve this?
Correct Answer
D. Install the TCP/IP protocol.
Explanation
The ping result "Unable to contact IP driver, error code 2" indicates that the computer is missing the TCP/IP protocol, which is necessary for communication over the internet. To resolve this issue, the technician should install the TCP/IP protocol. This will enable the computer to establish an IP connection and successfully ping the specified IP address (127.0.0.1). Flushing the DNS cache, installing NetBEUI, or releasing the IP address would not address the underlying problem of the missing TCP/IP protocol.
34.
QUESTION NO: 434
A corporate office network has 40 computers all in the same private IP subnet. The corporate office has purchased an Internet connection from their local ISP. They were assigned one static public IP address, and all 40 computers will require access to the Internet. How can this be accomplished?
Correct Answer
C. PAT will allow access to the Internet.
Explanation
PAT (Port Address Translation) will allow access to the Internet for all 40 computers in the corporate office network. PAT is a type of Network Address Translation (NAT) that allows multiple private IP addresses to be translated to a single public IP address, using different port numbers to distinguish between the different connections. This allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address, enabling them to access the Internet. Therefore, by implementing PAT, all 40 computers in the corporate office network can access the Internet using the single static public IP address assigned by the ISP.
35.
QUESTION NO: 435
A user is experiencing slow connections. Which of the following commands would be used to determine the delay time between the hops?
Correct Answer
A. Tracert
Explanation
The correct answer is "tracert" because the tracert command is used to trace the route that packets take from the source to the destination. It shows the delay time (also known as latency) between each hop along the route, allowing the user to identify any potential bottlenecks or slow connections. This can help in troubleshooting network connectivity issues and determining the cause of slow connections.
36.
QUESTION NO: 436
A technician is troubleshooting a network data transmission issue. Which of the following commands would the technician be able to use to identify the location of the packet loss?
Correct Answer
B. Traceroute
Explanation
The technician would be able to use the "traceroute" command to identify the location of the packet loss. Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool that helps identify the path taken by packets from the source to the destination. It shows the IP addresses of the routers or switches that the packets pass through, allowing the technician to identify any potential points of failure or packet loss along the route. This command is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and locate the source of problems.
37.
QUESTION NO: 437
Which of the following punch down blocks is BEST suited for high-speed data transmission?
Correct Answer
C. 110 block
Explanation
The 110 block is the best suited for high-speed data transmission because it provides a reliable and efficient connection. It uses a spring-loaded mechanism to ensure proper contact with the wires, reducing the risk of signal interference and maintaining a consistent and stable connection. Additionally, the 110 block is designed to handle higher frequencies and data rates, making it ideal for high-speed data transmission. The other options, such as the 66 block, cross-connect block, and 25 pair cable block, may not provide the same level of performance and reliability for high-speed data transmission.
38.
QUESTION NO: 438
Which of the following protocols is used by several different operating systems to authenticate resources such as computers, users and printers?
Correct Answer
A. LDAP
Explanation
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a protocol used by various operating systems to authenticate resources such as computers, users, and printers. LDAP is commonly used in network directories, such as Active Directory, to manage and access information about network resources. It allows for centralized authentication and authorization, making it easier to manage user access to resources across different operating systems. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for email communication, TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) are transport layer protocols used for data transmission.
39.
QUESTION NO: 439
Which of the following will prevent unauthorized access to the server room?
Correct Answer
A. Biometric lock
Explanation
A biometric lock will prevent unauthorized access to the server room because it uses unique physical characteristics, such as fingerprints or iris scans, to grant access. This ensures that only authorized individuals with registered biometric data can enter the server room, making it highly secure and difficult for unauthorized personnel to gain entry.
40.
QUESTION NO: 440
QoS is used to accomplish which of the following objectives?
Correct Answer
C. Provide priority of one or more types of traffic over others.
Explanation
QoS, or Quality of Service, is a network management technique that is used to prioritize certain types of traffic over others. This allows for the efficient allocation of network resources and ensures that critical or high-priority traffic, such as voice or video data, receives preferential treatment and is not affected by congestion or delays caused by lower-priority traffic. QoS does not involve blocking traffic from certain websites or users, nor does it involve caching traffic to make use of the current bandwidth. Its primary objective is to provide priority to specific types of traffic.
41.
QUESTION NO: 441
Which of the following network components operates on Layer 2 of the OSI model?
Correct Answer
C. Switch
Explanation
A switch operates on Layer 2 of the OSI model. Layer 2, also known as the Data Link Layer, is responsible for transferring data between adjacent network nodes. A switch is a networking device that receives data packets and forwards them to their intended destination based on the MAC address. It creates a network by connecting multiple devices together and allows them to communicate with each other. Unlike routers or gateways, switches do not make decisions based on IP addresses, making them a Layer 2 device.
42.
QUESTION NO: 442
Which of the following authentication methods uses public and private keys to secure communication and ensure the senders identity?
Correct Answer
C. PKI
Explanation
PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is an authentication method that uses public and private keys to secure communication and ensure the sender's identity. In PKI, each user has a pair of keys - a public key that is shared with others and a private key that is kept confidential. When a sender wants to communicate securely, they use their private key to encrypt the message, and the recipient uses the sender's public key to decrypt it. This ensures that only the intended recipient can read the message and verifies the sender's identity.
43.
QUESTION NO: 443
In a Class A subnet, a Host ID may occupy a maximum of:
Correct Answer
C. 24bits.
Explanation
In a Class A subnet, the IP address is divided into three parts: the network ID, the subnet ID, and the host ID. The network ID is represented by the first 8 bits, leaving 24 bits for the host ID. This means that the host ID can occupy a maximum of 24 bits in a Class A subnet.
44.
QUESTION NO: 444
Which of the following network hardware allows the MOST network traffic collisions?
Correct Answer
A. Hub
Explanation
A hub allows the most network traffic collisions because it operates in a shared environment where all devices connected to it share the same bandwidth. When multiple devices try to transmit data simultaneously, collisions occur, resulting in slower network performance. Unlike switches or routers, hubs do not have the ability to direct traffic to specific devices, leading to a higher likelihood of collisions.
45.
QUESTION NO: 445
Which of the following is the maximum range of 10GBase-SR?
Correct Answer
C. 990 feet (302 meters)
Explanation
The maximum range of 10GBase-SR is 990 feet (302 meters). This means that the 10GBase-SR Ethernet standard can transmit data up to a distance of 990 feet or 302 meters.
46.
QUESTION NO: 446
Which of the following BEST explains the purpose of a DMZ?
Correct Answer
D. To create a security zone that allows public traffic but is isolated from the private network.
Explanation
A DMZ, or Demilitarized Zone, is a network segment that acts as a buffer zone between the public internet and a private network. It is designed to provide a secure area where public-facing servers and services can be placed, allowing public traffic to access them while isolating them from the private network. This helps protect the internal network from potential attacks or compromises that may originate from the public network.
47.
QUESTION NO: 447
Which of the following network protocols allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices?
Correct Answer
B. SNMP
Explanation
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a network protocol that allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices. SNMP enables network administrators to monitor and manage network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers, by collecting and organizing information about these devices. It allows for the generation of automated alerts and reports based on the collected data, providing valuable insights into the health and performance of the network. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is primarily used for sending and receiving emails, while IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is used for managing multicast group memberships. TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a protocol used for secure communication over a network.
48.
QUESTION NO: 448
Which of the following security mitigation techniques is the MOST effective against zero-day attacks?
Correct Answer
B. User awareness training
Explanation
User awareness training is the most effective security mitigation technique against zero-day attacks. Zero-day attacks exploit vulnerabilities that are unknown to the software vendor, making them difficult to detect and defend against using traditional security measures. User awareness training educates users about the risks and best practices for online security, helping them to recognize and avoid suspicious emails, links, and downloads. By empowering users to make informed decisions and be cautious of potential threats, user awareness training can significantly reduce the likelihood of falling victim to zero-day attacks.
49.
QUESTION NO: 449
A power outage occurred over the weekend and on Monday morning the helpdesk was receiving calls about network issues from only one section of the LAN. A network administrator has implemented the solution and identified all the results. After all the network issues were resolved, what would be the NEXT step for that network administrator?
Correct Answer
B. Document the entire process.
Explanation
After resolving all the network issues, the next step for the network administrator would be to document the entire process. This is important for future reference and troubleshooting purposes. By documenting the process, the network administrator can create a record of the steps taken to resolve the issues, which can be helpful in case similar problems occur in the future. Additionally, documenting the process can also aid in knowledge sharing and training of other IT staff members.
50.
QUESTION NO: 450
Which of the following network devices is required to translate a synchronous serial connection to time division multiplexed connection?
Correct Answer
B. A CSU/DSU
Explanation
A CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) is required to translate a synchronous serial connection to a time division multiplexed connection. A CSU/DSU is a network device that connects a router to a digital circuit, such as a T1 or T3 line. It provides the necessary conversion between the synchronous serial signal used by the router and the time division multiplexed signal used by the digital circuit. This allows for the transmission of data over the digital circuit in a format that is compatible with the router.