Neuro Exam Quiz Questions And Answers
Have you ever delved into the realm of neuroscience during school? Take this neuro exam quiz to enhance your readiness for any upcoming tests. This quiz serves not only as a platform for refining your skills but also as a gateway to gaining new insights into the complexities of the brain and its intricate operations.
Upon completing the quiz, your results will act as a beacon, illuminating your level of expertise in the field of neurology. As you strive to achieve an impeccable score, may your exploration of neurological comprehension be rewarding and enriching. Embrace this Read moreopportunity to delve into the captivating intricacies of the human brain and its multifaceted workings.
Neuroscience Questions and Answers
- 1.
Observing a patient's behavior and activities:
- A.
Attention
- B.
Function
- C.
Reasoning
- D.
Orientation
Correct Answer
B. FunctionExplanation
Observing a patient's behavior and activities can provide valuable insights into their cognitive and physical abilities. It allows healthcare professionals to assess their overall functioning, including their ability to perform daily tasks, follow instructions, and engage in social interactions. By observing their behavior and activities, healthcare professionals can gather information about the patient's level of independence, problem-solving skills, and ability to adapt to different situations. This information is crucial for developing an appropriate treatment plan and providing the necessary support and interventions to improve the patient's overall functioning.Rate this question:
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- 2.
An example(s) of abstract reasoning is?
- A.
If a stone quits, rolling moss will grow on it.
- B.
A rolling stone gathers no moss.
- C.
You can catch more flies with honey than vinegar.
- D.
Work hard, play hard.
- E.
People in glass houses shouldn't throw stones.
Correct Answer(s)
B. A rolling stone gathers no moss.
C. You can catch more flies with honey than vinegar.
E. People in glass houses shouldn't throw stones.Explanation
Abstract reasoning refers to the ability to think conceptually and analytically, without relying on concrete examples or specific situations. The examples provided in the question, "A rolling stone gathers no moss," "You can catch more flies with honey than vinegar," and "People in glass houses shouldn't throw stones," are all abstract statements that convey a deeper meaning or metaphorical message. These examples require the ability to understand underlying principles and make connections between different ideas, making them examples of abstract reasoning.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A patient with dementia usually:
- A.
Has abstract thoughts
- B.
Confabulates answers
- C.
Gives concrete answers
Correct Answer
C. Gives concrete answersExplanation
A patient with dementia typically gives concrete answers. Dementia is a cognitive disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. It causes a decline in cognitive abilities, including difficulty with abstract thinking and problem-solving. As a result, patients with dementia often struggle to understand or respond to abstract or complex questions. Instead, they tend to provide simple, literal, and concrete answers based on their immediate perception or understanding of the question. This is a common characteristic of dementia and can be helpful in identifying the condition during medical evaluations.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Getting a patient-oriented with self, place, and time is part of the exam for
- A.
Long-term memory
- B.
Orientation
- C.
Awareness
- D.
Function
- E.
Short-term Memory
Correct Answer
B. OrientationExplanation
Orientation refers to the ability of an individual to be aware of and accurately identify their self, place, and time. This is an important aspect of a medical examination as it helps to assess the cognitive function and awareness of the patient. By testing a patient's orientation, healthcare professionals can determine if the patient is able to understand and interact with their surroundings effectively. It helps in assessing the level of consciousness and cognitive impairment, if any, in the patient.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Asking a patient to remember and repeat back shortly, three objects like an apple, house, and umbrella is checking a patient's?
- A.
Short-term memory
- B.
Long-term memory
- C.
Intermediate memory
- D.
Immediate memory
Correct Answer
D. Immediate memoryExplanation
Immediate memory refers to the ability to hold and recall information in the short term, typically for a few seconds to a minute. Asking a patient to remember three objects, like an apple, house, and umbrella, is a test of their immediate memory. This type of memory is important for tasks such as remembering instructions, phone numbers, or directions. It is different from short-term memory, which typically refers to the ability to hold and recall information for a slightly longer period, such as a few minutes to an hour.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Checking a patient's memory of a word and what it means after a few minutes is an example of
- A.
Intermediate memory
- B.
Immediate memory
- C.
Long-term memory
- D.
Short-term memory
Correct Answer
A. Intermediate memoryExplanation
Checking a patient's memory after a few minutes is an example of intermediate memory because it involves assessing the ability to retain and recall information over a short period of time. This type of memory is also known as working memory, as it allows individuals to hold and manipulate information in their mind temporarily. By testing a patient's memory after a few minutes, healthcare professionals can gather insights into their immediate recall and retention abilities, which can provide valuable information for diagnosing and monitoring cognitive impairments or conditions.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Having a patient recall an event or where they were in the past (Kennedy's assassination, etc.) is an example of
- A.
Short-term memory
- B.
Long-term memory
- C.
Intermediate memory
- D.
Immediate memory
Correct Answer
B. Long-term memoryExplanation
Having a patient recall an event or where they were in the past is an example of long-term memory. Long-term memory refers to the storage and retrieval of information over an extended period of time. It allows individuals to remember events, facts, and experiences from the past. In this case, the patient's ability to recall specific details about an event that occurred in the past indicates the involvement of long-term memory.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Testing a patient's arithmetic or having a patient count backwards by 3s is testing a patient’s:
- A.
Cognitive reasoning
- B.
Short-term memory
- C.
Attention
- D.
Recall
Correct Answer
C. AttentionExplanation
Testing a patient's attention involves assessing their ability to focus and concentrate on a specific task or information. In this case, asking a patient to count backward by 3's requires sustained attention and mental effort. It requires the patient to pay attention to the numbers, remember the previous number, and perform mental calculations to generate the next number. Therefore, the correct answer is attention.Rate this question:
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- 9.
CN II encompasses the following.
- A.
Pupillary light reflexes
- B.
Lateral rectus muscle
- C.
Visual acuity with a fundus scope
- D.
Non-ciliary muscles of the eye
- E.
Cotton ball rubbing cornea
Correct Answer(s)
A. Pupillary light reflexes
C. Visual acuity with a fundus scopeExplanation
The correct answer is pupillary light reflexes and visual acuity with a fundus scope. CN II, also known as the optic nerve, is responsible for carrying visual information from the retina to the brain. Pupillary light reflexes involve the constriction of the pupil in response to light, which is controlled by CN II. Visual acuity is the sharpness of vision and can be assessed using a fundus scope, which allows examination of the structures at the back of the eye, including the optic nerve.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which CN's can usually be tested together
- A.
II, IV, VI
- B.
III, IV, VI
- C.
IV, VI, II
- D.
III, IV, V
- E.
III, IV, II
Correct Answer
B. III, IV, VIExplanation
CN III (oculomotor), CN IV (trochlear), and CN VI (abducens) are typically tested together. These cranial nerves are responsible for controlling eye movements. The feedback option "III, IV, VI" accurately represents the cranial nerves that are commonly assessed together during neurological examinations related to eye movements.Rate this question:
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- 11.
For CN's II, IV, and VI, you are testing the
- A.
Occult muscles
- B.
Stapedius muscles
- C.
Ciliary muscles
- D.
Extraocular muscles
Correct Answer
D. Extraocular musclesExplanation
The correct answer is extraocular muscles. The question is asking about the muscles that are being tested for cranial nerves II, IV, and VI. Cranial nerves II, IV, and VI are responsible for vision and eye movement. The extraocular muscles are a group of muscles that control the movement of the eyes. Therefore, testing these muscles would be relevant to assess the function of these cranial nerves.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Cotton tip to the cornea, facial sensation, muscles of mastication, and tongue sensation can test which CN.
- A.
V
- B.
VII
- C.
IX, V
- D.
VII
- E.
VII, V
Correct Answer
A. VExplanation
Testing cotton tip to the cornea, facial sensation, muscles of mastication, and tongue sensation can help determine the function of cranial nerve V, also known as the trigeminal nerve. This nerve is responsible for sensory information from the face, including the cornea and tongue, as well as controlling the muscles of mastication.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Weber and Rinne is tested for
- A.
IV
- B.
VIII
- C.
IX
- D.
VII
- E.
V
Correct Answer
B. VIIIExplanation
Weber and Rinne tests are used to assess hearing loss and determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural. The VIII cranial nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, is responsible for transmitting sound and balance information from the inner ear to the brain. Therefore, testing for Weber and Rinne is most relevant to assess the function of the VIII cranial nerve.Rate this question:
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- 14.
To test a patient’s taste in the posterior, 2/3 of the tongue, carotid and chemoreceptors, and gag reflex check the
- A.
IX, X
- B.
VII, IX
- C.
VII, X
- D.
X, VII, IX
Correct Answer
A. IX, XExplanation
The correct answer is IX, X. The taste buds on two-thirds of the tongue are innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), while the remaining taste buds are innervated by the facial nerve (VII). The carotid and chemoreceptors are also innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The gag reflex, which helps protect the airway, is mediated by both the glossopharyngeal nerve and the vagus nerve (X). Therefore, the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) and the vagus nerve (X) are responsible for checking taste, carotid and chemoreceptors, and the gag reflex.Rate this question:
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- 15.
To test this cranial nerve, have a patient shrug their shoulders or turn their head against resistance.
- A.
XI
- B.
XII
- C.
IX
- D.
X
Correct Answer
A. XIExplanation
The given answer "XI" refers to the spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI), which innervates the trapezius muscle. The trapezius muscle is responsible for shrugging the shoulders and turning the head. Therefore, when a patient is asked to shrug their shoulders or turn their head, it is a test to assess the function of the spinal accessory nerve.Rate this question:
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- 16.
If a patient comes in and you ask them to stick out their tongue, and it deviates to the right, which CN could be involved and what side
- A.
XI, left
- B.
XII, left
- C.
XI, right
- D.
XII, right
Correct Answer
D. XII, rightExplanation
If a patient's tongue deviates to the right when asked to stick it out, it suggests that the right side of the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) could be involved. The hypoglossal nerve controls the movement of the tongue, and if there is a lesion or damage to the right side of this nerve, it can result in the tongue deviating to the opposite side, which in this case is the right side.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In a strength exam, a full (no break) is associated with? (on the scale)
- A.
5
- B.
4
- C.
2
- D.
1
- E.
3
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
In a strength exam, full strength is associated with the highest value on the scale, which is 5. This score indicates that the muscle can contract normally against full resistance without any signs of fatigue or weakness. It reflects the maximum level of muscle strength, showing that the muscle's performance is optimal, and there are no impairments in its function. This measurement is crucial for assessing muscle health and identifying any potential deficits.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Full range of motion against gravity is associated with which score?
- A.
5
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
2
- E.
1
Correct Answer
B. 3Explanation
The number 3 corresponds with a full range of motion against gravity on the Oxford scale, also known as the Medical Research Council (MRC) scale. This score signifies that the muscle can move the joint through its complete range of motion against the force of gravity but without any additional resistance. It is a middle-range score that indicates moderate muscle strength, where the muscle is functional but not strong enough to handle added resistance effectively. This level is often used to gauge recovery progress or the severity of muscle weakness.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Flaccid corresponds with what Oxford scale number?
- A.
5
- B.
4
- C.
1
- D.
0
- E.
3
Correct Answer
D. 0Explanation
On the Oxford scale, flaccid corresponds with a score of 0. This means there is no visible or palpable contraction of the muscle, indicating a complete lack of muscle tone and strength. The muscle is entirely limp and unresponsive to stimuli. This condition is often seen in severe neurological or muscular disorders where nerve impulses do not reach the muscle, leading to complete paralysis in the affected area. Identifying a flaccid muscle is critical for diagnosing the extent and nature of neuromuscular impairments.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Contraction with no motion corresponds with what oxford scale number?
- A.
5
- B.
4
- C.
2
- D.
1
- E.
3
Correct Answer
D. 1Explanation
Contraction with no motion corresponds with a score of 1 on the Oxford scale. This score indicates that there is a slight muscle contraction, but it is not strong enough to produce any movement of the joint. The muscle can be seen or felt to contract, but the limb remains stationary. This level of muscle strength is often observed in cases of significant muscle weakness or partial nerve injury, where the muscle receives some neural input but not enough to generate functional movement. This score helps clinicians evaluate the degree of muscle impairment and plan appropriate rehabilitation strategies.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Full ROM against gravity with moderate resistance.
- A.
4
- B.
2
- C.
5
- D.
3
- E.
1
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
The correct answer is 4. A score of 4 on the Oxford scale indicates that the muscle can move the joint through its full range of motion against gravity and can withstand moderate resistance. This score reflects good muscle strength, though not maximal, and suggests that the muscle is capable of performing everyday tasks that require a reasonable amount of force. It shows that the muscle is functional and robust, but there may still be room for improvement in strength training or rehabilitation.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Full range of motion with gravity eliminated.
- A.
4
- B.
3
- C.
1
- D.
2
- E.
0
Correct Answer
D. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2. A score of 2 on the Oxford scale indicates that the muscle can move the joint through its full range of motion only when gravity is eliminated, such as when the limb is supported or in a horizontal plane. This level of muscle strength is often seen in cases of moderate to severe weakness, where the muscle can perform movements but cannot overcome the force of gravity. This score is crucial for assessing the muscle's ability to function under assisted conditions and helps in planning appropriate therapeutic interventions.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Please choose the applicable dermatome for checking Pain/temp, Vibration/propriation, and two-point discrimination for the following five areas: The nipple line:
- A.
T7
- B.
T4
- C.
T10
- D.
T12
Correct Answer
B. T4Explanation
The correct sensory level for checking pain/temp, vibration/propriation, and two-point discrimination for the first area, the nipple line, is T4. This is because the sensory level for these sensations in the chest area corresponds to the dermatome level of T4.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Xiphoid process
- A.
T7
- B.
T4
- C.
T10
- D.
T12
Correct Answer
A. T7Explanation
The xiphoid process is a small, cartilaginous extension at the lower end of the sternum. It is located at the level of the 7th thoracic vertebra (T7). This means that it is situated between the 6th and 8th thoracic vertebrae. The xiphoid process serves as an attachment point for several muscles and ligaments in the chest and abdomen. It is important to correctly identify the level of the xiphoid process for medical procedures and anatomical references.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Umbilicus
- A.
T7
- B.
T4
- C.
T10
- D.
T12
Correct Answer
C. T10Explanation
The given answer, T10, refers to the level of the spinal cord where the umbilicus (belly button) is innervated. This means that the nerves originating from the T10 spinal cord segment supply sensation to the area around the umbilicus.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Groin
- A.
T12
- B.
T7
- C.
T4
- D.
T10
Correct Answer
A. T12Explanation
The answer T12 is most likely referring to the T12 vertebra, which is the twelfth thoracic vertebra in the spine. The term "groin" is typically used to describe the area between the abdomen and thigh, and it is innervated by nerves that originate from the T12 spinal level. Therefore, T12 is the most relevant and accurate answer in this context.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A 50-year-old patient comes in with tremors; they cannot touch their finger to their nose, they have a hard time raking their heel to their shin, they have rapid alternating and decomposing movements and an abnormal gait what part of the brain could be affected
- A.
Cerebrum
- B.
Cerebellum
- C.
Frontal cortex
- D.
Hippocampus
Correct Answer
B. CerebellumExplanation
The symptoms described in the question, such as tremors, difficulty with coordination and movement, abnormal gait, and problems with specific motor tasks, are indicative of cerebellar dysfunction. The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, maintaining balance and posture, and fine-tuning motor skills. Therefore, if a patient is experiencing these symptoms, it suggests that the cerebellum may be affected. The other options, such as the cerebrum, frontal cortex, and hippocampus, are not primarily involved in motor coordination and would not explain the observed symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 28.
For the following five questions, please match them according to spinal segment and reflex: Biceps
- A.
C4
- B.
C5
- C.
C6
- D.
C7
Correct Answer
B. C5Explanation
The biceps reflex is associated with the C5 spinal segment. When the biceps tendon is tapped, it stretches the biceps muscle, leading to a reflex contraction of the muscle. This reflex is mediated by the C5 nerve root, which carries sensory information from the biceps muscle to the spinal cord and motor information back to the muscle.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Brachioradialis
- A.
C4
- B.
C5
- C.
C6
- D.
C7
Correct Answer
C. C6Explanation
The correct answer is C6. The brachioradialis muscle is innervated by the C6 nerve root. This muscle is located in the forearm and helps to flex the forearm at the elbow joint. The innervation of a muscle refers to the nerve that supplies it with signals for movement. In this case, the C6 nerve root supplies the brachioradialis muscle, indicating that it is responsible for its contraction and movement.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Triceps
- A.
C4
- B.
C5
- C.
C6
- D.
C7
Correct Answer
D. C7Explanation
The triceps muscle is primarily innervated by the radial nerve, which arises from the C7 spinal nerve. Therefore, damage or injury to the C7 spinal nerve may result in weakness or paralysis of the triceps muscle.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Patellar reflex
- A.
L1
- B.
L2
- C.
L3
- D.
L4
- E.
L5
Correct Answer
D. L4Explanation
The Patellar reflex, also known as the knee-jerk reflex, is a reflex action that occurs when the patellar tendon is tapped, causing a contraction of the quadriceps muscle and a brief extension of the lower leg. The reflex arc for the Patellar reflex involves the sensory neurons carrying the stimulus from the patellar tendon to the spinal cord, where it synapses with motor neurons in the L4 segment. These motor neurons then send signals to the quadriceps muscle, causing it to contract and produce the knee-jerk response. Therefore, the correct answer is L4, as it represents the spinal segment involved in this reflex.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Achilles tendon
- A.
L5
- B.
S1
- C.
S2, S3, S4
- D.
S2, S3
- E.
L5, S1
Correct Answer
B. S1Explanation
The correct answer is S1. The Achilles tendon is primarily innervated by the S1 nerve root. The S1 nerve root originates from the sacral plexus and supplies motor and sensory innervation to the posterior thigh, leg, and foot. Damage or compression of the S1 nerve root can result in weakness or numbness in the calf, foot, and toes, as well as difficulty with ankle movements and reflexes. Therefore, S1 is the most appropriate answer for the innervation of the Achilles tendon.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A patient comes in the ER, and you scratch the bottom of their foot, and their toes reflect backward this is a
- A.
Pos hoffman/tromner
- B.
Neg babinski
- C.
Pos babinski
- D.
Neg hoffman/tromner
Correct Answer
C. Pos babinskiExplanation
When a patient's toes reflex backward after scratching the bottom of their foot, it indicates a positive Babinski sign. The Babinski sign is a neurological test that helps evaluate the integrity of the corticospinal tract. In a normal response, the toes curl downwards (negative Babinski). However, in a positive Babinski sign, the big toe extends upward and the other toes fan out, suggesting damage or dysfunction in the corticospinal tract. This abnormal response can be indicative of various neurological conditions, such as spinal cord injury, brain tumor, or stroke.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Same patient you snap his skin between fingers and their fingers comes together is a
- A.
Neg Hoffman/ trommer
- B.
Pos Babinski
- C.
Neg hoffman's trommer
- D.
Neg Babinski
Correct Answer
A. Neg Hoffman/ trommerExplanation
The correct answer is "neg Hoffman/ trommer". This indicates that when the patient's skin is snapped between their fingers, their fingers do not come together. This suggests a negative response for both the Hoffman and Trommer tests. The Hoffman test is used to assess the presence of abnormal reflexes, particularly in the fingers and thumb. The Trommer test is used to evaluate muscle tone and reflexes in the upper limbs. Therefore, a negative result for both tests indicates that there are no abnormal reflexes or muscle tone issues in the fingers.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A pos Babinski with flaccid paralysis is an indication
- A.
Patient is healing from an ipsilateral spinal cord lesion
- B.
Patient is healing from a contralateral spinal cord lesion
- C.
Patient is healing from an upper motor neuron lesion
- D.
The lower motor neuron is not involved, and the patient is healing from an ipsilateral spinal cord lesion
- E.
Upper motor neuron lesion with ipsilateral spinal cord healing
Correct Answer
A. Patient is healing from an ipsilateral spinal cord lesionExplanation
The presence of a positive Babinski sign with flaccid paralysis suggests that the patient is healing from an ipsilateral spinal cord lesion. This indicates that the injury has affected the upper motor neurons in the spinal cord on the same side as the Babinski sign. The flaccid paralysis suggests involvement of the lower motor neurons, but since the Babinski sign is positive, it indicates that the upper motor neurons are recovering and causing an abnormal response in the lower motor neurons.Rate this question:
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