Pathology Exam 1 Review.

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Ajsellner

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 2,632

Questions: 117 | Attempts: 1,494 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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Most questions taken from Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th ed.

Questions and Answers

1.

Which watershed area is most sensitive to infarction?
- A.
  
  Between Anterior and Middle cerebral arteries
- B.
  
  Between Middle and Posterior cerebral arteries
- C.
  
  Between left and right Anterior cerebral arteries
- D.
  
  Between Medial and Lateral cerebreal arteries
Correct Answer
A. Between Anterior and Middle cerebral arteries

Explanation
The watershed area between the anterior and middle cerebral arteries is most sensitive to infarction. This is because this region is located at the boundary between two major arteries, making it more susceptible to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply. Infarction refers to the death of tissue due to lack of blood flow, and the watershed area is particularly vulnerable to this because it receives blood supply from two different sources, making it more prone to ischemia when blood flow is compromised.

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1
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2.

What is the 11th cranial nerve?

Correct Answer
Accessory, Accessory nerve

Explanation
The 11th cranial nerve is called the Accessory nerve. This nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of the neck and shoulders. It helps in movements such as turning the head, shrugging the shoulders, and tilting the head to the side. The Accessory nerve also plays a role in swallowing and speaking.

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4
3.

What cells are most sensitive to hypoxia?
- A.
  
  Astrocytes
- B.
  
  Neurons
- C.
  
  Ependymal
- D.
  
  Oligodendroglial
Correct Answer
B. Neurons

Explanation
Neurons are the most sensitive cells to hypoxia because they have a high demand for oxygen and are extremely sensitive to oxygen deprivation. Unlike other cells, neurons cannot store energy in the form of glycogen, making them reliant on a continuous supply of oxygen for energy production. Without sufficient oxygen, neurons are unable to generate ATP, leading to cellular dysfunction and ultimately cell death.

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4.

Which cells/areas are most sensitive to hypoxia? (select all that apply)
- A.
  
  Sommer's sector of Hippocampus
- B.
  
  Purkinje cells of cerebellum
- C.
  
  Pyramidal neurons in the neocortex
- D.
  
  Basal ganglia neurons of the claustrum
Correct Answer(s)
A. Sommer's sector of Hippocampus
B. Purkinje cells of cerebellum
C. Pyramidal neurons in the neocortex

Explanation
p. 1362 morphology box.

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5.

What regions are examined for herniation when there is an increased cranial pressure? (select all that apply)
- A.
  
  Cingulate gyrus
- B.
  
  Uncus
- C.
  
  Cerebellar Tonsils
- D.
  
  Pons
- E.
  
  Medulla
Correct Answer(s)
A. Cingulate gyrus
B. Uncus
C. Cerebellar Tonsils

Explanation
When there is increased cranial pressure, the regions that are examined for herniation include the cingulate gyrus, uncus, and cerebellar tonsils. These regions are particularly vulnerable to herniation due to their location and proximity to other structures in the brain. Herniation can occur when there is a buildup of pressure in the skull, causing these brain regions to shift or compress. Examining these regions is important in diagnosing and managing conditions that can lead to increased cranial pressure.

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2
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6.

Psammoma Bodies are seen in which neoplasm?
- A.
  
  Astrocytoma
- B.
  
  Chordoma
- C.
  
  Meningioma
- D.
  
  Craniopharyngioma
- E.
  
  Glioblastoma Multiforme
Correct Answer
C. Meningioma

Explanation
Psammoma bodies are concentrically laminated calcifications that are commonly seen in meningiomas. Meningiomas are slow-growing tumors that arise from the meninges, the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. Psammoma bodies are a characteristic histological feature of meningiomas and can be identified under a microscope. These bodies are formed by the deposition of calcium salts around cellular debris or collagenous material. Therefore, the correct answer is meningioma.

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7.

If a skull is fractured, what artery is potentially severed?
- A.
  
  External Carotid
- B.
  
  Lingual
- C.
  
  Facial
- D.
  
  Occipital
- E.
  
  Middle Meningeal
Correct Answer
E. Middle Meningeal

Explanation
If a skull is fractured, the artery that is potentially severed is the Middle Meningeal artery. Fractures to the skull can cause damage to the blood vessels running through it, including the Middle Meningeal artery. This artery is located between the dura mater and the skull, and a fracture can result in the artery being severed or damaged, leading to bleeding and potentially serious complications.

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8.

If the Middle Meningeal Artery is lacerated with a skull fracture, what kind of hematoma will occur?
- A.
  
  Epidural
- B.
  
  Subdural
- C.
  
  Subarachnoid
Correct Answer
A. Epidural

Explanation
p. 1359

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9.

What is the usual source for a Subdural Hematoma?
- A.
  
  Bridging veins
- B.
  
  Berry Aneurysms
- C.
  
  Superior Sagittal sinus
Correct Answer
A. Bridging veins

Explanation
A subdural hematoma is usually caused by the rupture of bridging veins. These veins connect the surface of the brain to the dural sinuses, which are blood vessels located between the layers of the meninges. When these bridging veins tear or rupture, blood accumulates in the potential space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, resulting in a subdural hematoma. This condition can be caused by trauma or sometimes occur spontaneously in elderly individuals due to age-related brain atrophy. Berry aneurysms and the superior sagittal sinus are not typically associated with subdural hematomas.

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10.

What congenital anomaly is: The defective development of both lungs resulting in decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age?
- A.
  
  Agenesis
- B.
  
  Pulmonary Sequestration
- C.
  
  Pulmonary Hypoplasia
- D.
  
  Congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)
- E.
  
  Atresia
Correct Answer
C. Pulmonary Hypoplasia

Explanation
Pulmonary hypoplasia is the correct answer because it refers to the defective development of both lungs, leading to decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age. This condition is characterized by underdeveloped lungs, which can result in respiratory difficulties and other complications.

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11.

Pulmonary sequestration is:
- A.
  
  A hamartomatous lesion of the lung
- B.
  
  Presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system
- C.
  
  Abnormal detachment of primitive foregut and most often located in the hilum or middle mediastinum.
Correct Answer
B. Presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system

Explanation
Pulmonary sequestration refers to the presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue that is not connected to the normal airway system. This means that the mass of lung tissue is not receiving oxygen or participating in the normal respiratory function of the lungs. It is a separate entity that can be supplied by abnormal blood vessels, leading to potential complications. This condition is different from a hamartomatous lesion of the lung, which is a benign tumor-like growth composed of normal lung tissue. Pulmonary sequestration is most commonly found in the hilum or middle mediastinum.

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12.

What is the most common pleural tumor?
- A.
  
  Metastatic from lung, breast, or ovary
- B.
  
  Mesothelioma
- C.
  
  Squamous Cell CA
Correct Answer
A. Metastatic from lung, breast, or ovary

Explanation
The most common pleural tumor is metastatic from lung, breast, or ovary. This means that tumors originating from these organs can spread to the pleura, the thin membrane that lines the lungs and chest cavity. Metastatic tumors occur when cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and travel through the bloodstream or lymphatic system to other parts of the body. In this case, the primary tumor is located in the lung, breast, or ovary, and it has spread to the pleura. Mesothelioma and squamous cell CA are also types of pleural tumors, but they are not as common as metastatic tumors from lung, breast, or ovary.

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13.

Which type of Atelectasis is irreversible?
- A.
  
  Resorption(aka obstruction)
- B.
  
  Compression
- C.
  
  Contraction
Correct Answer
C. Contraction

Explanation
p. 714

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1
14.

What is the most common cause of hemodynamic (aka cardiogenic) pulmonary edema?
- A.
  
  Right Sided CHF
- B.
  
  Left Sided CHF
- C.
  
  Cor Bovinum
- D.
  
  Pulmonary valve insufficiency
- E.
  
  Tricuspid valve stenosis
Correct Answer
B. Left Sided CHF

Explanation
Left sided congestive heart failure (CHF) is the most common cause of hemodynamic (cardiogenic) pulmonary edema. In left sided CHF, the left ventricle of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the rest of the body, causing fluid to back up into the lungs. This leads to an increase in pressure in the pulmonary vasculature, resulting in fluid leaking into the alveoli and causing pulmonary edema. Symptoms of left sided CHF include shortness of breath, coughing, and fluid retention. Treatment typically involves managing the underlying cause of the CHF and addressing fluid overload through diuretics and other medications.

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15.

What is the most common cause of pneumothorax?
- A.
  
  Ruptured blebs
- B.
  
  Trauma
- C.
  
  Infection
- D.
  
  Smoking
Correct Answer
B. Trauma

Explanation
Trauma is the most common cause of pneumothorax. Pneumothorax occurs when air accumulates in the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. Trauma, such as a car accident or a fall, can cause a rib fracture or a puncture in the lung, leading to pneumothorax. Other causes, such as ruptured blebs (small air-filled sacs on the lung), infection, or smoking, can also contribute to pneumothorax, but trauma is the most common cause.

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16.

Viral infection typically causes _____ pneumonia.
- A.
  
  Golden
- B.
  
  Hemorrhagic
- C.
  
  Abscess
- D.
  
  Interstitial
- E.
  
  Lobar
Correct Answer
D. Interstitial

Explanation
Viral infections typically cause interstitial pneumonia. Interstitial pneumonia is a type of lung infection that primarily affects the areas between the alveoli, the tiny air sacs in the lungs. It is characterized by inflammation and swelling in the interstitial spaces, which can lead to difficulty in breathing and a dry cough. Unlike lobar pneumonia, which affects one or more lobes of the lungs, interstitial pneumonia is more diffuse and affects a larger area of the lungs. Viral infections such as influenza, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and COVID-19 are commonly associated with interstitial pneumonia.

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17.

Golden pneumonia occurs due to?
- A.
  
  Lipofuschin inclusions
- B.
  
  Staphylococcus
- C.
  
  Obstruction
- D.
  
  Viral
Correct Answer
C. Obstruction

Explanation
Golden pneumonia occurs due to obstruction. This suggests that the condition is caused by a blockage in the respiratory system, such as in the airways or lungs. This obstruction can lead to the accumulation of fluid and pus in the affected area, resulting in the characteristic golden color seen in the pneumonia. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of the obstruction in order to effectively treat and manage the condition.

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18.

Which one does not work to fill in the blanks: _______ pneumonia is caused by ______.
- A.
  
  Golden; Obstruction
- B.
  
  Abscess; Staph
- C.
  
  Hemorrhagic; pseudomonas
- D.
  
  Community acquired; viral
- E.
  
  Broncho; Staph
Correct Answer
D. Community acquired; viral

Explanation
community acquired is mostly from strep pneumonia. according to leo.

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19.

Which disease presents radiographically as "White-out"?
- A.
  
  TB
- B.
  
  Lobar Pneumonia
- C.
  
  ARDS
- D.
  
  Pancoast tumors
- E.
  
  Pleuritis
Correct Answer
C. ARDS

Explanation
ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome) is a condition characterized by the rapid onset of severe respiratory failure. In radiographic imaging, ARDS presents as "white-out" due to the extensive infiltration of fluid in the lungs, leading to a loss of air space. This is caused by inflammation and damage to the alveoli, leading to impaired oxygen exchange. The "white-out" appearance is due to the increased density of the lungs on the X-ray image, indicating the presence of fluid rather than air.

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20.

What is the commonest infection?
- A.
  
  Cold
- B.
  
  UTI
Correct Answer
A. Cold

Explanation
The commonest infection refers to the most frequently occurring or widespread infection. In this case, the correct answer is "Cold" because the common cold is a highly prevalent viral infection that affects a large number of people worldwide. It is characterized by symptoms such as a runny or stuffy nose, sore throat, cough, and sneezing. UTI (urinary tract infection) is also a common infection, but it is not as widespread or prevalent as the common cold.

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21.

Nasal polyps are?
- A.
  
  Neoplastic
- B.
  
  Inflammatory response to allergy
Correct Answer
B. Inflammatory response to allergy

Explanation
Nasal polyps are growths that occur in the lining of the nasal passages and sinuses. They are not neoplastic, meaning they are not cancerous or tumors. Instead, they are typically caused by chronic inflammation of the nasal passages, which can be a result of allergies. This inflammatory response to allergies can cause the lining of the nasal passages to become swollen and form polyps. Therefore, the correct answer is "Inflammatory response to allergy."

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22.

What type of epithelium does the false cord have in adults?
- A.
  
  Pseudostratified columnar
- B.
  
  Simple squamous
- C.
  
  Stratified squamous non-keratinized
- D.
  
  Stratified squamous keratinized
Correct Answer
C. Stratified squamous non-keratinized

Explanation
The false cord, also known as the ventricular fold, is a structure in the larynx that helps produce sound. In adults, it is lined with stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium. This type of epithelium is well-suited for protecting underlying tissues from mechanical stress and abrasion. It consists of multiple layers of cells, with the superficial layer being squamous in shape and non-keratinized, meaning it does not contain a tough layer of keratin. This type of epithelium is also found in other areas of the body that require protection, such as the oral cavity and esophagus.

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23.

What type of epithelium do the ventricles (of glottis) have?
- A.
  
  Psuedostratified columnar
- B.
  
  Stratified squamous
Correct Answer
A. Psuedostratified columnar

Explanation
The ventricles of the glottis have pseudostratified columnar epithelium. This type of epithelium is characterized by cells that appear layered or stratified, but all cells are in contact with the basement membrane. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is commonly found in the respiratory system, where it helps to trap and move mucus and particles out of the airways. In the ventricles of the glottis, this type of epithelium is important for maintaining the structure and function of the vocal cords.

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24.

Histologically, at what level glands (goblet cells) no longer present?
- A.
  
  Trachea
- B.
  
  Bronchi
- C.
  
  Large Bronchioles
- D.
  
  Terminal Bronchioles
- E.
  
  Alveoli
Correct Answer(s)
D. Terminal Bronchioles
E. Alveoli

Explanation
Goblet cells, which are responsible for producing mucus, are present in the respiratory tract to help trap and remove foreign particles. However, as we move deeper into the respiratory system, specifically at the level of the terminal bronchioles and alveoli, goblet cells are no longer present. This is because these structures are involved in gas exchange and do not require the production of mucus.

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25.

At what level do Clara Cells first appear?
- A.
  
  Trachea
- B.
  
  Bronchi
- C.
  
  Bronchioles
- D.
  
  Alveoli
Correct Answer
C. Bronchioles

Explanation
Clara cells first appear at the level of bronchioles. Clara cells are specialized cells found in the lining of the bronchioles in the respiratory system. They secrete a substance called Clara cell secretory protein, which helps protect and maintain the airways. These cells are important in the defense against respiratory infections and play a role in the regulation of lung inflammation.

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26.

The ____ cord has glands, while the ____ has muscle.
- A.
  
  True; false
- B.
  
  False; true
Correct Answer
B. False; true

Explanation
The statement "false; true" means that the first part of the statement is false, which is "The ____ cord has glands," and the second part is true, which is "while the ____ has muscle." This suggests that there is a cord in question, but it does not have glands. On the other hand, there is another entity mentioned that does have muscle.

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27.

Alveolar macrophages are also known as?
- A.
  
  Langerhan's cells
- B.
  
  Kultchitsky cells
- C.
  
  Dust cells
- D.
  
  Kupfer cells
Correct Answer
C. Dust cells

Explanation
Alveolar macrophages are commonly referred to as "dust cells" because they are responsible for engulfing and removing inhaled particles, including dust, from the lungs. These cells play a crucial role in maintaining respiratory health by preventing the buildup of harmful substances in the alveoli. The term "dust cells" accurately describes their function and location within the alveolar spaces.

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28.

The most common primary lung cancer is?
- A.
  
  Adenocarcinoma
- B.
  
  Squamous cell carcinoma
- C.
  
  Small cell undifferentiated
- D.
  
  Large cell undifferentiated
- E.
  
  Metastatic, usually from GI
Correct Answer
A. Adenocarcinoma

Explanation
Adenocarcinoma is the most common primary lung cancer because it originates in the cells that line the glands in the lungs. These glands produce mucus, and adenocarcinoma typically develops in areas where mucus is produced, such as the outer parts of the lungs. It is more common in non-smokers and women, and it tends to grow slower than other types of lung cancer. Adenocarcinoma can also spread to other parts of the body, making it important to detect and treat it early.

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29.

What causes restrictive pulmonary disease?
- A.
  
  Bronchiectasis
- B.
  
  Chronic Bronchitis
- C.
  
  Emphysema
- D.
  
  Asthma
- E.
  
  IPF
Correct Answer
E. IPF

Explanation
IPF = idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

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30.

Which primary bronchus is most prone to aspiration?
- A.
  
  Right
- B.
  
  Left
Correct Answer
A. Right

Explanation
The right primary bronchus is more prone to aspiration because it is wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left primary bronchus. This anatomical difference makes it easier for foreign objects or substances to enter and get lodged in the right bronchus, leading to aspiration.

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31.

Which type of atelectasis is characterized by a loss of surfactant? Is also often seen in ARDS.
- A.
  
  Obstructive
- B.
  
  Compression
- C.
  
  Patchy
Correct Answer
C. Patchy

Explanation
Patchy atelectasis is characterized by a loss of surfactant, which is a substance that helps to reduce surface tension in the alveoli of the lungs. Without sufficient surfactant, the alveoli collapse and result in atelectasis. Patchy atelectasis is often seen in Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a condition characterized by severe inflammation and fluid accumulation in the lungs. In ARDS, the loss of surfactant leads to widespread collapse of alveoli, causing patchy areas of atelectasis throughout the lungs.

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32.

What type of Emphysema is: The acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli?
- A.
  
  Centrilobular
- B.
  
  Panacinar
- C.
  
  Distal acinar
Correct Answer
B. Panacinar

Explanation
Panacinar emphysema is characterized by uniform enlargement of the acini from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli. This means that the entire acinus is affected, resulting in destruction of the alveolar walls and loss of lung elasticity. It is commonly associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic disorder that leads to a deficiency of the enzyme needed to protect the lungs from damage. Panacinar emphysema is typically seen in the lower lobes of the lungs and can cause symptoms such as shortness of breath and coughing.

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33.

Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as " a persistant cough with sputum production for at least _____ months in at least ___ consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause"
- A.
  
  2;2
- B.
  
  2;3
- C.
  
  3;2
- D.
  
  3;3
- E.
  
  1;2
Correct Answer
C. 3;2

Explanation
Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as "a persistent cough with sputum production for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause." This means that for a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis, the individual must have a cough with sputum production for a minimum of 3 months in a row, and this must occur for at least 2 years. The other options provided do not meet this criteria, therefore the correct answer is 3;2.

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34.

Which diagnosis is aided by the demonstration of an elevated eosinophil count in the blood, Curschmann spirals, and Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum?
- A.
  
  Bacterial Pneumonia
- B.
  
  Tuberculosis
- C.
  
  Asthma
- D.
  
  Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
Correct Answer
C. Asthma

Explanation
An elevated eosinophil count in the blood, Curschmann spirals, and Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum are all indicative of asthma. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cells that are typically elevated in asthma due to inflammation. Curschmann spirals are twisted mucus plugs that can be found in the sputum of individuals with asthma. Charcot-Leyden crystals are formed from the breakdown of eosinophils and are often present in the sputum of asthmatic patients. Therefore, the presence of these findings suggests a diagnosis of asthma.

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35.

Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension is occasionally associated with a mutation of the bone morphogenetic protein receptor type 2 (BMPR2), however, it is most commonly sporadic in __?
- A.
  
  Children
- B.
  
  Prebubescent females
- C.
  
  Post-menopausal females
- D.
  
  20-40 yr old females
Correct Answer
D. 20-40 yr old females

Explanation
Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension is most commonly sporadic in 20-40 year old females. This means that the condition often occurs without any known cause or family history, and it is more prevalent in females within the age range of 20 to 40 years. While there can be an association between idiopathic pulmonary hypertension and a mutation of the bone morphogenetic protein receptor type 2 (BMPR2), this is only occasionally seen.

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36.

Panacinar emphysema is associated with?
- A.
  
  Smoking
- B.
  
  Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
- C.
  
  Scarring due to inflammation or infection
- D.
  
  Trauma
Correct Answer
B. AlpHa 1 antitrypsin deficiency

Explanation
Panacinar emphysema is a type of emphysema characterized by the destruction of the alveoli throughout the entire respiratory zone. It is most commonly associated with alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic disorder that leads to a deficiency of the enzyme alpha 1 antitrypsin. This enzyme normally protects the lungs from damage caused by neutrophil elastase, an enzyme involved in the breakdown of connective tissue in the lungs. Without sufficient alpha 1 antitrypsin, neutrophil elastase is unchecked and causes destruction of the alveoli, leading to panacinar emphysema. Smoking, scarring due to inflammation or infection, and trauma are not typically associated with panacinar emphysema.

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37.

Select all that apply. The lesion(s) associated with bronchitis are:
- A.
  
  Glandular hypertrophy
- B.
  
  Goblet cell hyperplasia
- C.
  
  Mucous production
- D.
  
  Muscular hypertrophy
- E.
  
  Fibrosis
Correct Answer(s)
A. Glandular hypertropHy
B. Goblet cell hyperplasia
C. Mucous production
D. Muscular hypertropHy

Explanation
The correct answer is glandular hypertrophy, goblet cell hyperplasia, mucous production, and muscular hypertrophy. These lesions are commonly associated with bronchitis. Glandular hypertrophy refers to the enlargement of the glands in the bronchial walls. Goblet cell hyperplasia is the increase in the number of goblet cells, which produce mucus. Mucous production is increased in bronchitis, leading to excessive mucus secretion. Muscular hypertrophy refers to the thickening of the smooth muscle in the bronchial walls. These changes contribute to the characteristic symptoms of bronchitis, such as cough and mucus production.

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38.

What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?
- A.
  
  Necrotizing (via pneumonia)
- B.
  
  Obstruction (tumor, foreign bodies, mucous plugs)
- C.
  
  Congenital (cystic fibrosis)
- D.
  
  Idiopathic
Correct Answer
A. Necrotizing (via pneumonia)

Explanation
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the irreversible dilation of the bronchi, which can lead to recurrent infections and chronic inflammation. The most common cause of bronchiectasis is necrotizing pneumonia. This occurs when there is tissue death in the lung due to a severe infection, leading to the destruction of the bronchial walls and subsequent dilation. Other causes such as obstruction (tumor, foreign bodies, mucous plugs), congenital factors (cystic fibrosis), and idiopathic reasons can also contribute to the development of bronchiectasis, but necrotizing pneumonia is the most frequently observed cause.

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39.

Which bacteria causes a green-blue purulent exudate?
- A.
  
  Pseudomonas
- B.
  
  Streptococcus
- C.
  
  Klebsiella
- D.
  
  Staphylococcus
- E.
  
  Haemopholis
Correct Answer
A. Pseudomonas

Explanation
Pseudomonas is the correct answer because it is a common bacteria that can cause infections in various parts of the body, including the skin and wounds. It is known to produce a green-blue pus or exudate, which is a sign of infection. Streptococcus, Klebsiella, Staphylococcus, and Haemophilus are also bacteria that can cause infections, but they are not typically associated with a green-blue purulent exudate.

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40.

Almost 60% of Lobar pneumonias are caused by:
- A.
  
  Streptococcus pn. and Haemopholis inf.
- B.
  
  Strep and Staph
- C.
  
  Pneumococcus and Pseudomonas
- D.
  
  Klebsiella and E. coli
Correct Answer
A. Streptococcus pn. and HaemopHolis inf.

Explanation
The correct answer is Streptococcus pn. and Haemopholis inf. This is because lobar pneumonia is commonly caused by bacterial infections, and Streptococcus pneumoniae (also known as pneumococcus) and Haemophilus influenzae are two of the most common bacterial pathogens associated with this type of pneumonia. These bacteria can infect the lobes (sections) of the lungs, leading to inflammation and consolidation of the affected lung tissue. Other pathogens listed in the options, such as Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Escherichia coli, can also cause pneumonia but are less commonly associated with lobar pneumonia.

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41.

Malformation of urethral groove on the dorsal aspect of the penis is:
- A.
  
  Epispadias
- B.
  
  Hypospadias
- C.
  
  Phimosis
- D.
  
  Paraphimosis
Correct Answer
A. Epispadias

Explanation
Epispadias is a condition characterized by the malformation of the urethral groove on the dorsal aspect of the penis. This means that the urethral opening is located on the upper side of the penis, rather than at the tip. This condition can cause difficulties with urination and may require surgical intervention to correct. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis. Phimosis refers to a condition where the foreskin cannot be fully retracted from the head of the penis, while paraphimosis is a condition where the foreskin becomes trapped behind the head of the penis.

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42.

Which of the following is not carcinoma in Situ
- A.
  
  Bown disease
- B.
  
  Bowen disease
- C.
  
  Bowenoid papulosis
- D.
  
  Condyloma acuminatum
Correct Answer
D. Condyloma acuminatum

Explanation
Condyloma acuminatum is not carcinoma in situ because it is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). It is a benign condition characterized by the presence of warts on the genital area. Carcinoma in situ, on the other hand, refers to the early stage of cancer where abnormal cells are present but have not invaded surrounding tissues. Bown disease, Bowen disease, and Bowenoid papulosis are all examples of carcinoma in situ.

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43.

A nonspecific infection on the glans penis and prepuce:
- A.
  
  Cryptorchidism
- B.
  
  Balanoposthitis
- C.
  
  Epispadias
- D.
  
  Chylocele
Correct Answer
B. Balanoposthitis

Explanation
Balanoposthitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and infection of the glans penis and prepuce. It can be caused by poor hygiene, irritation, or certain infections. Symptoms may include redness, swelling, discharge, and discomfort in the affected area. Treatment typically involves proper hygiene, topical medications, and in some cases, oral antibiotics. Cryptorchidism refers to undescended testicles, epispadias is a congenital condition where the urethra opens on the upper side of the penis, and chylocele is an accumulation of lymphatic fluid in the scrotum.

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44.

Benign epithelial porliferation caused by HPV?
- A.
  
  Erythroplasia of queyrat
- B.
  
  Bowenoid papulosis
- C.
  
  Condyloma acuminatum
- D.
  
  Bowen disease
Correct Answer
C. Condyloma acuminatum

Explanation
Condyloma acuminatum is a correct answer because it is a benign epithelial proliferation caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). It is a sexually transmitted infection that commonly affects the anogenital region. Condyloma acuminatum presents as raised, cauliflower-like lesions and is typically asymptomatic. It can be diagnosed through visual inspection and confirmed with histopathological examination. Treatment options include topical medications, cryotherapy, or surgical excision.

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45.

Carcinoma in Situ presented as a single or multiple, shity red, sometimes velvety plaque on the glans and prepuce.
- A.
  
  Bowen disease
- B.
  
  Erythroplasia of queyrat
- C.
  
  Bowenoid papulosis
- D.
  
  Condyloma acuminatum
Correct Answer
B. Erythroplasia of queyrat

Explanation
Erythroplasia of Queyrat is a type of carcinoma in situ that commonly affects the glans and prepuce. It is characterized by the presence of single or multiple red plaques, which may have a velvety appearance. This condition is considered a precancerous lesion and has the potential to progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. Bowen's disease, bowenoid papulosis, and condyloma acuminatum are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, but erythroplasia of Queyrat specifically refers to carcinoma in situ on the glans and prepuce.

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46.

Malformation of urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis
- A.
  
  Epispadias
- B.
  
  Hypospadias
- C.
  
  Phimosis
- D.
  
  Paraphimosis
Correct Answer
B. Hypospadias

Explanation
Hypospadias is a condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis instead of at the tip. This malformation of the urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis is the characteristic feature of hypospadias. In this condition, the urethra does not extend to the tip of the penis, causing difficulties in urination and sexual function. Surgical correction is often required to reposition the urethral opening to the tip of the penis.

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47.

Abnormally small orifice in the prupuce (frequently secondary to inflammation):
- A.
  
  Epispadias
- B.
  
  Hypospadias
- C.
  
  Phimosis
- D.
  
  Paraphimosis
Correct Answer
C. pHimosis

Explanation
Phimosis refers to the condition where the foreskin of the penis is too tight and cannot be fully retracted over the glans. This can be caused by inflammation, scarring, or congenital factors. The abnormally small orifice in the prepuce is a characteristic feature of phimosis. Epispadias is a condition where the urethral opening is on the upper surface of the penis, hypospadias is a condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the penis, and paraphimosis is a condition where the retracted foreskin cannot be returned to its normal position.

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48.

Carcinoma in Situ presenting as a thickened, gray white plaque over the shaft of the penis:
- A.
  
  Bowen disease
- B.
  
  Erythroplasia of queyrat
- C.
  
  Bowenoid papulosis
- D.
  
  Condyloma acuminatum
Correct Answer
A. Bowen disease

Explanation
Bowen disease is a type of carcinoma in situ, which means that the abnormal cells are present only in the outermost layer of the skin and have not invaded deeper tissues. It typically presents as a thickened, gray-white plaque on the skin. In this case, the plaque is located on the shaft of the penis. Erythroplasia of Queyrat is a similar condition but typically presents as a red plaque. Bowenoid papulosis is characterized by multiple reddish-brown papules. Condyloma acuminatum refers to genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). None of these conditions match the description given in the question, making Bowen disease the correct answer.

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49.

Abnormal, painful swelling of the glans penis after forceful retraction of a phimotic prepuce:
- A.
  
  Epispadias
- B.
  
  Hypospadias
- C.
  
  Balanoposthitis
- D.
  
  Paraphimosis
Correct Answer
D. ParapHimosis

Explanation
Paraphimosis refers to the condition where the foreskin of the penis becomes trapped behind the glans and cannot be pulled back to its original position. This can lead to swelling and pain in the glans penis. In this case, the symptoms described are consistent with paraphimosis, making it the correct answer. Epispadias and hypospadias are structural abnormalities of the penis, while balanoposthitis refers to inflammation of the glans penis and foreskin.

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50.

Cryptorchidism, failure of testes descent, usually occurs_____?
- A.
  
  Unilaterally
- B.
  
  Bilaterally
Correct Answer
A. Unilaterally

Explanation
Cryptorchidism refers to the condition where the testes do not descend properly into the scrotum. The given answer "unilaterally" suggests that cryptorchidism typically occurs on one side of the body. This means that only one testicle fails to descend, while the other one may have descended normally. Bilateral cryptorchidism, on the other hand, would mean that both testes have failed to descend.

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Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Mar 20, 2009

Quiz Created by
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Pathology Exam 1 Review.

Which watershed area is most sensitive to infarction?

What is the 11th cranial nerve?

What cells are most sensitive to hypoxia?

Which cells/areas are most sensitive to hypoxia? (select all that apply)

What regions are examined for herniation when there is an increased cranial pressure? (select all that apply)

Psammoma Bodies are seen in which neoplasm?

If a skull is fractured, what artery is potentially severed?

If the Middle Meningeal Artery is lacerated with a skull fracture, what kind of hematoma will occur?

What is the usual source for a Subdural Hematoma?

What congenital anomaly is: The defective development of both lungs resulting in decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age?

Pulmonary sequestration is:

What is the most common pleural tumor?

Which type of Atelectasis is irreversible?

What is the most common cause of hemodynamic (aka cardiogenic) pulmonary edema?

What is the most common cause of pneumothorax?

Viral infection typically causes _____ pneumonia.

Golden pneumonia occurs due to?

Which one does not work to fill in the blanks: _______ pneumonia is caused by ______.

Which disease presents radiographically as "White-out"?

What is the commonest infection?

Nasal polyps are?

What type of epithelium does the false cord have in adults?

What type of epithelium do the ventricles (of glottis) have?

Histologically, at what level glands (goblet cells) no longer present?

At what level do Clara Cells first appear?

The ____ cord has glands, while the ____ has muscle.

Alveolar macrophages are also known as?

The most common primary lung cancer is?

What causes restrictive pulmonary disease?

Which primary bronchus is most prone to aspiration?

Which type of atelectasis is characterized by a loss of surfactant? Is also often seen in ARDS.

What type of Emphysema is: The acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli?

Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as " a persistant cough with sputum production for at least _____ months in at least ___ consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause"

Which diagnosis is aided by the demonstration of an elevated eosinophil count in the blood, Curschmann spirals, and Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum?

Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension is occasionally associated with a mutation of the bone morphogenetic protein receptor type 2 (BMPR2), however, it is most commonly sporadic in __?

Panacinar emphysema is associated with?

Select all that apply. The lesion(s) associated with bronchitis are:

What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?

Which bacteria causes a green-blue purulent exudate?

Almost 60% of Lobar pneumonias are caused by:

Malformation of urethral groove on the dorsal aspect of the penis is:

Which of the following is not carcinoma in Situ

A nonspecific infection on the glans penis and prepuce:

Benign epithelial porliferation caused by HPV?

Carcinoma in Situ presented as a single or multiple, shity red, sometimes velvety plaque on the glans and prepuce.

Malformation of urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis

Abnormally small orifice in the prupuce (frequently secondary to inflammation):

Carcinoma in Situ presenting as a thickened, gray white plaque over the shaft of the penis:

Abnormal, painful swelling of the glans penis after forceful retraction of a phimotic prepuce:

Cryptorchidism, failure of testes descent, usually occurs_____?

Which one does not work to fill in the blanks: _ pneumonia is caused by .

The cord has glands, while the has muscle.

Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as " a persistant cough with sputum production for at least ___ months in at least _ consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause"