2T271 Volume 1 CDC: Air Force Trivia Quiz
(287).jpg "2T271 Volume 1 CDC: Air Force Trivia Quiz - Quiz")
Do you know what does CDC mean in the Air Force? CDC stands for career development course. Check out our online quiz and enhance your knowledge and learn interesting facts.
- 1.
When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?
- A.
Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
- B.
Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed.
- C.
Check your e-mail and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule.
- D.
Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in.
Correct Answer
A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.Explanation
When you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission, you should find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command. This is important because it allows for proper communication and coordination with superiors and ensures that necessary actions are taken to address the issue and minimize disruption to the mission.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?
- A.
Verify all personnel have all required safety equipment and documentation to perform their duties.
- B.
Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.
- C.
Give a safety briefing, stressing anything that may apply to the day’s activities.
- D.
Take roll, verify all appointments, and identify the daily or weekly goals.
Correct Answer
B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.Explanation
The activity of sending a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned is not a part of giving a shift briefing. A shift briefing typically involves verifying personnel's safety equipment and documentation, giving a safety briefing, taking roll, verifying appointments, and identifying goals. Sending a runner to request augmentation support is more related to staffing and resource management, which is not directly related to the shift briefing process.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?
- A.
Knowing your people and the work center’s current and future needs.
- B.
Communicating your expectations to the work crews.
- C.
Assigning them to the same duties every day.
- D.
Considering their safety and security.
Correct Answer
C. Assigning them to the same duties every day.Explanation
Assigning subordinates to the same duties every day is not a consideration when seeking to develop them. Developing subordinates involves providing them with opportunities to learn and grow, which can be achieved by assigning them a variety of tasks and responsibilities. This helps them develop new skills, gain experience in different areas, and expand their knowledge. Assigning them to the same duties every day can limit their growth and hinder their development.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Within how many days from the last day of the month must the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?
- A.
10.
- B.
20.
- C.
30.
- D.
45.
Correct Answer
B. 20.Explanation
The correct answer is 20. This means that the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, must reach AMC within 20 days from the last day of the month. This report is likely important for tracking and analyzing the traffic handling activities of the stations, and it is necessary for it to be submitted in a timely manner to ensure accurate and up-to-date information.Rate this question:
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- 5.
It is important for you and your subordinates to accurately complete the workload documents for your work center, such as the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, because
- A.
They are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.
- B.
The work center superintendent reviews them daily and asks questions about the missions, which has a direct impact on your performance report.
- C.
Capturing aircraft delays is critical to streamlining work center processes, which has a direct impact on which type of shift you work.
- D.
They are inspected during unit compliance and operational readiness inspections, which has a direct impact on your pass or failure.
Correct Answer
A. They are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.Explanation
Completing workload documents accurately is important because they serve as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report. This report directly affects the manpower and equipment levels of the work center.Rate this question:
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- 6.
If your unit moved 20,000 pounds of cargo in July, what number would you enter in the appropriate block of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
- A.
20,000.
- B.
20K.
- C.
10.
- D.
2.
Correct Answer
C. 10.Explanation
The correct answer is 10. This is because the question is asking for the number that should be entered in the appropriate block of the AMC Form 82 for the amount of cargo moved. The options 20,000 and 20K are both incorrect because they do not match the format specified by the form. The options 10 and 2 are also incorrect as they do not accurately represent the amount of cargo moved, which was stated as 20,000 pounds. Therefore, the correct answer is 10.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which type of manpower authorizations do you use for preparing the work center data on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, and from which document do you take that data?
- A.
Funded; Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
- B.
Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- C.
Unfunded; UPMR.
- D.
Unfunded; UMD.
Correct Answer
B. Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Explanation
The correct answer is Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This means that for preparing the work center data on the AMC Form 82, the manpower authorizations used are funded, and the data is taken from the Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Rate this question:
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- 8.
If it takes your work center personnel over 30 minutes to drive to the C–130 parking area for each K-loader load, which section would you enter this information on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
- A.
Section XII, Remarks.
- B.
Section III, General Information.
- C.
Section IV, Aircraft Handled by Type.
- D.
You would not enter this information on the report.
Correct Answer
A. Section XII, Remarks.Explanation
This information would be entered in Section XII, Remarks, because it is not directly related to the general information or the specific aircraft handled by type. It is additional information that may be relevant for record-keeping purposes or to provide context for the report.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When commanders receive results from self-inspections, they will use those results to
- A.
Assess mission readiness for use on enlisted performance reports.
- B.
Assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.
- C.
Stratify key personnel within each unit to professionally develop lower-ranking individuals.
- D.
Stratify key personnel within each unit for whom to submit annual and quarterly awards packages.
Correct Answer
B. Assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.Explanation
When commanders receive results from self-inspections, they will use those results to assess mission readiness, which means evaluating the overall preparedness of their unit to carry out their assigned tasks. Additionally, they will also use the results to identify any deficiencies or areas that need improvement. Based on this assessment, commanders can then direct resources and energies towards correcting these deficiencies and ensuring that their unit is fully prepared and capable of fulfilling their mission effectively.Rate this question:
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- 10.
If a commander directs a self-inspection, when may he or she do so?
- A.
Every six months.
- B.
Every quarter.
- C.
At any time.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
C. At any time.Explanation
A commander may direct a self-inspection at any time. This means that the commander has the authority to initiate a self-inspection whenever they feel it is necessary, regardless of a specific time frame or schedule. This allows the commander to address any potential issues or concerns as they arise, ensuring that the unit or organization remains in compliance with regulations and standards.Rate this question:
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- 11.
If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period, after direction from Headquarters Air Mobility Command, the unit will
- A.
Conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation.
- B.
Notify the major command (MAJCOM) commander of the oversight and reschedule the inspection for a later date.
- C.
Conduct a self-inspection on all programs and return the results through the numbered Air Force.
- D.
Notify the Wing commander of the oversight and request an inspection through the MAJCOM.
Correct Answer
A. Conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation.Explanation
If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period, the correct action is to conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation. This means that the unit should assess its own compliance and performance on the specific SII and report the findings to the Wing Inspector General office, where they will be compiled and reviewed. This ensures that even if an inspection was not conducted externally, the unit takes responsibility for evaluating its own adherence to the SII requirements.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How often will you accomplish self-inspection checklists if assigned to an active duty and an Air National Guard (ANG) unit, respectively?
- A.
Every quarter/annually.
- B.
Every six months/annually.
- C.
Annually, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
- D.
Every six months, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
Correct Answer
B. Every six months/annually.Explanation
The correct answer states that self-inspection checklists should be accomplished every six months for active duty units and annually for Air National Guard units. This means that regardless of the type of unit a person is assigned to, they should complete the self-inspection checklists at least once a year. However, for active duty units, the checklists should be completed every six months, indicating a higher frequency of inspections compared to Air National Guard units.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which is not a level of war?
- A.
Tactical.
- B.
Strategic.
- C.
Offensive.
- D.
Operational.
Correct Answer
C. Offensive.Explanation
The question asks for a level of war that is not included in the options. The options provided are Tactical, Strategic, Operational, and Offensive. Offensive is not a level of war, as it is a type of military action that can be conducted at any level of war, whether tactical, operational, or strategic. Offensive refers to an aggressive action taken by a military force to gain an advantage over the enemy. Therefore, offensive is not a level of war.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?
- A.
Tactical only.
- B.
Tactical and strategic only.
- C.
Strategic, offensive, and tactical.
- D.
Strategic, operational, and tactical.
Correct Answer
D. Strategic, operational, and tactical.Explanation
The joint logistics environment exists within all three levels of war: strategic, operational, and tactical. This means that logistics operations are required at each level to support military operations. At the strategic level, logistics involves long-term planning and coordination of resources to support overall military objectives. At the operational level, logistics focuses on supporting specific campaigns or major operations. At the tactical level, logistics supports individual units and their immediate needs on the battlefield.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?
- A.
Supply.
- B.
Health Service Support.
- C.
Deployment and distribution.
- D.
Operational contract support.
Correct Answer
C. Deployment and distribution.Explanation
Deployment and distribution is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports the movement of forces and equipment during deployment. This core capability involves the planning, coordination, and execution of the movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies to the designated operational area. It ensures that the right resources are in the right place at the right time to support military operations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental US (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?
- A.
Tactical.
- B.
Theater.
- C.
Strategic.
- D.
Civil Support.
Correct Answer
C. Strategic.Explanation
Strategic airlift refers to the category of airlift that involves continuous air movement between different overseas locations, major operations or campaigns, and the continental US (CONUS). This type of airlift is characterized by its ability to transport large quantities of personnel, equipment, and supplies over long distances, often using large aircraft such as cargo planes. It is typically used in military operations and is essential for supporting global deployments and maintaining logistical support for ongoing missions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How far in advance are long-range cargo requirements submitted to Air Mobility Command (AMC)?
- A.
11 months before the calendar year being reported.
- B.
23 months before the calendar year being reported.
- C.
11 months before the fiscal year being reported.
- D.
23 months before the fiscal year being reported.
Correct Answer
D. 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.Explanation
Long-range cargo requirements are submitted to Air Mobility Command (AMC) 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.Rate this question:
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- 18.
If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?
- A.
Operation order (OPORD).
- B.
Operational Plan (OPLAN).
- C.
Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
- D.
Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
Correct Answer
B. Operational Plan (OPLAN).Explanation
When a combatant commander perceives a threat, they create an Operational Plan (OPLAN) to counter that perceived threat. An OPLAN is a detailed plan that outlines the commander's intentions and provides guidance for the execution of military operations. It includes specific objectives, tasks, and resources required to achieve those objectives. OPLANs are created based on the commander's assessment of the threat and the available resources and capabilities. They provide a comprehensive and coordinated approach to address the perceived threat effectively.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which type of plan’s extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?
- A.
Operational Plan (OPLAN).
- B.
Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
- C.
Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
- D.
Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).
Correct Answer
A. Operational Plan (OPLAN).Explanation
An Operational Plan (OPLAN) is a type of plan that contains extensive information and details about how to execute a specific operation. This plan provides the necessary guidance and instructions for the execution of the operation. When there is a need to quickly develop an operation order (OPORD) to execute the operation, the extensive information provided in the OPLAN can be used as a basis for developing the OPORD. Therefore, an OPLAN is the type of plan that can be quickly developed into an OPORD when necessary.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the objective of concept planning?
- A.
Identify specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation.
- B.
Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).
- C.
Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.
- D.
Provide strategic guidance that can be used to direct and maintain force data for both major command and base-level purposes.
Correct Answer
C. Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.Explanation
The objective of concept planning is to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary. This means that concept planning involves creating a detailed plan for how a specific operation will be executed, including the operational and support strategies that will be used. This plan can then be quickly expanded into an OPORD if the need arises, allowing for efficient and effective execution of the operation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it’s necessary for an operation?
- A.
Operation order (OPORD).
- B.
Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
- C.
Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
- D.
Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).
Correct Answer
B. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).Explanation
A Concept Plan (CONPLAN) is an abbreviated format that requires extensive development before being converted into an Operation Plan (OPLAN) when it is necessary for an operation. This means that a CONPLAN is a preliminary plan that provides an outline or concept for a future operation, but it still needs further development and details before it can be fully executed as an OPLAN.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?
- A.
Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks.
- B.
They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.
- C.
Headquarters Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC) prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution.
- D.
Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC.
Correct Answer
B. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.Explanation
Base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning by extracting them from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans. This process ensures that the necessary logistics requirements are included in the overall planning and execution of contingency operations.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is the Air Force’s war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?
- A.
Geographic Location File (GEOFILE).
- B.
Time-phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).
- C.
Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS).
- D.
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
Correct Answer
D. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).Explanation
DCAPES is the Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP). It is responsible for both deliberate and crisis action planning and execution. DCAPES helps in developing and coordinating operational plans, as well as managing resources and forces. It provides real-time situational awareness and supports decision-making processes during both peacetime and wartime operations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The relationship between a plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) is that a PID corresponds directly to either
- A.
Unit type code and contains all of the OPLANs and CONPLANs associated with the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).
- B.
Cargo category code contained within the type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file and contains detailed OPLAN and CONPLAN data.
- C.
An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.
- D.
National Air Mobility System (NAMS) and contains all of the data used to aggregate cargo category codes with the OPLAN or CONPLAN.
Correct Answer
C. An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.Explanation
A plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) corresponds directly to an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with the movement of forces in that plan.Rate this question:
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- 25.
If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), you are responsible for
- A.
Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
- B.
Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
- C.
Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
- D.
Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
Correct Answer
D. Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.Explanation
The correct answer is inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews. This is the responsibility of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF). They are in charge of inspecting equipment and cargo to ensure that everything is safe and secure before the passengers, cargo, and flight crews are transported. This is important to ensure the safety of everyone involved in the transportation process.Rate this question:
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- 26.
If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), you are responsible for
- A.
Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
- B.
Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
- C.
Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
- D.
Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
Correct Answer
B. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.Explanation
The correct answer is "manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers." This is because the responsibilities listed in the answer align with the tasks mentioned in the given information about the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF). The PDF is responsible for controlling deployment vehicle needs, manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.Rate this question:
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- 27.
If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?
- A.
Initial.
- B.
Refresher.
- C.
Weak area.
- D.
New procedure.
Correct Answer
A. Initial.Explanation
If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, you should receive initial training. Initial training is necessary to provide you with the basic knowledge and skills required for the new role. It will help you understand the fundamentals and get familiar with the processes and procedures involved in the deployment function. This training will lay the foundation for your future learning and development in the assigned role.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
Provide data critical to crisis planning.
- B.
Provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes.
- C.
Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.
- D.
Used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war.
Correct Answer
C. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.Explanation
The purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is to provide data critical to crisis planning, provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes, and to be used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war. The answer "Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data" is not a purpose of SORTS.Rate this question:
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- 29.
If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every
- A.
30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation.
- B.
30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level).
- C.
90 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall C-level.
- D.
90 days or before every AEF tempo band rotation.
Correct Answer
B. 30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level).Explanation
The correct answer states that if you are accomplishing SORTS reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every 30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level). This means that regardless of whether there are changes affecting the unit's C-level or not, the report must be submitted every 30 days.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit’s Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?
- A.
AF Form 632.
- B.
AF Form 623.
- C.
AF Form 732.
- D.
AF Form 723.
Correct Answer
D. AF Form 723.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 723. The question asks for the Air Force form that should be used to accomplish the unit's SORTS designed operational capability (DOC) statement report. Out of the given options, AF Form 723 is the most appropriate form for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 31.
If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
- A.
C–1.
- B.
C–2.
- C.
C–3.
- D.
C–4.
Correct Answer
B. C–2.Explanation
If a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C-2 during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting. This indicates that the unit is capable of performing its mission with some limitations or deficiencies in resources or training.Rate this question:
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- 32.
If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
- A.
C–1.
- B.
C–2.
- C.
C–3.
- D.
C–4.
Correct Answer
C. C–3.Explanation
If a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime missions for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C–3 during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting. This means that the unit is partially capable and can perform some of its assigned missions, but not all of them.Rate this question:
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- 33.
If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to
- A.
Keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed.
- B.
Assign valid unit line numbers to the proper taskings.
- C.
Smooth AEF execution.
- D.
Ensure a solid C-level.
Correct Answer
C. Smooth AEF execution.Explanation
As the ART monitor, your main responsibility is to report timely and accurate UTC readiness and tasking status. This information is crucial for keeping the UDM informed and ensuring smooth AEF execution. By providing this information, you are helping to coordinate and organize the deployment of your unit effectively. This ultimately leads to a more efficient and successful execution of AEF missions.Rate this question:
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- 34.
If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit’s ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to
- A.
Request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource support.
- B.
Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.
- C.
Remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected.
- D.
Reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies.
Correct Answer
B. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.Explanation
If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit's ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement. This means that you should reach out to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) and ask for more resources or suggest changes to the DOC statement in order to address the deficiencies.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
- A.
ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.
- B.
IGESP/ESP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the ESSP.
- C.
ESSP, the prime focus of part 2 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies limiting factors and shortages.
- D.
ESSP, the prime focus of part 3 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies overages and shortfalls.
Correct Answer
A. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.Explanation
The correct answer states that the ESSP provides a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data that is used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP. This means that the ESSP is a crucial step in the planning process, as it provides the necessary information for creating the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP). The ESSP helps planning committees gather and organize the data they need to make informed decisions about the design and implementation of the IGESP/ESP.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
- A.
Assesses the ability to support the operation.Option 1
- B.
Allocates resources previously identified in part 1.
- C.
Identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages.
- D.
Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.
Correct Answer
D. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.Explanation
The correct answer is "Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators." This objective is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the IGESP and ESP. The other three options, which include assessing the ability to support the operation, allocating resources previously identified in part 1, and identifying limiting factors, shortfalls, and overages, are all objectives within part 2 of the plans.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When reviewing deployment procedures outlined in the installation deployment plan (IDP), what crucial element in each step of the process must you and the installation deployment officer always consider?
- A.
Operational risk management (ORM).
- B.
Infrastructure.
- C.
Flexibility.
- D.
Clarity.
Correct Answer
A. Operational risk management (ORM).Explanation
When reviewing deployment procedures outlined in the installation deployment plan (IDP), it is crucial to always consider operational risk management (ORM) in each step of the process. ORM helps to identify, assess, and mitigate potential risks that may arise during the deployment. By considering ORM, you can ensure that the deployment is carried out in a safe and efficient manner, minimizing any negative impacts on operations. This includes evaluating potential risks, implementing appropriate controls, and continuously monitoring and adjusting the deployment plan as needed to maintain operational readiness.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is the primary purpose of support agreements?
- A.
Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.
- B.
Ensure the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy.
- C.
Develop local support guidance explaining how all units will deploy from the installation.
- D.
Define local processes, procedures, and resources that will be used when deploying forces.
Correct Answer
A. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.Explanation
The primary purpose of support agreements is to identify the specific support functions that one party will perform for another. This involves clearly defining the roles and responsibilities of each party in providing support, ensuring that both parties have a clear understanding of what is expected from them. By identifying specific support functions, the agreement helps to establish a framework for effective collaboration and coordination between the parties involved. This ensures that the support process runs smoothly and efficiently, ultimately benefiting both parties.Rate this question:
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- 39.
If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, which type of support agreement is required?
- A.
Intragovernmental.
- B.
Intergovernmental.
- C.
Intraservice.
- D.
Interservice.
Correct Answer
C. Intraservice.Explanation
When an Air Force unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on the same base, the type of support agreement required is an Intraservice agreement. This means that the support is being provided within the same branch of the military, in this case, the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 40.
If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?
- A.
Intragovernmental.
- B.
Intergovernmental.
- C.
Intraservice.
- D.
Interservice.
Correct Answer
D. Interservice.Explanation
When an Air Force unit is providing a service to an Army unit, the type of support agreement required is an interservice agreement. This agreement establishes the terms and conditions under which the Air Force unit will provide support to the Army unit. It ensures coordination and cooperation between the two branches of the military, allowing for effective and efficient collaboration in the provision of services.Rate this question:
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- 41.
If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, on which form would that arrangement need to be documented?
- A.
DD Form 1144.
- B.
AF Form 1144.
- C.
DD Form 4411.
- D.
AF Form 4411.
Correct Answer
A. DD Form 1144.Explanation
The correct answer is DD Form 1144. This form is used to document arrangements between Air Force units when one unit is providing a service to another unit on base. It is likely that this form is specifically designed for documenting these types of arrangements and is the appropriate form to use in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which of the following documents?
- A.
Memorandum of support (MOS) or a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA).
- B.
Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
- C.
Installation support plan (ISP) or an MOA.
- D.
ISP or an MOU.
Correct Answer
B. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).Explanation
When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required. This is typically documented in a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) or a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). These documents outline the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties involved and serve as a formal record of the agreement reached.Rate this question:
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- 43.
If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?
- A.
The installation will fund these requirements.
- B.
The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.
- C.
The unit to which SrA Williams is normally assigned.
- D.
SrA Williams must provide her own gear to be an augmentee.
Correct Answer
B. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.Explanation
The correct answer is "The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee." This means that the unit that is utilizing SrA Williams as an augmentee will be responsible for funding her training and providing the required gear for her to perform her augmentation duties.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because
- A.
Of the legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work around.
- B.
if they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay.
- C.
Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.
- D.
Augmentation support must be explicitly documented in the individual’s contract before performing augmentation duties.
Correct Answer
C. Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.Explanation
Members who are assigned to a unit type code (UTC) are normally not assigned augmentation duties because they may be required to deploy in support of an operations plan, which takes priority over local augmentation requirements.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
- A.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- B.
Work Center Rotation Schedule (WCRS).
- C.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
- D.
AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107.
Correct Answer
A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Explanation
The primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This document outlines the authorized positions within a unit and provides information on the manpower required for each position. It is used to ensure that the unit has the necessary personnel to carry out its mission effectively. The other options, such as the Work Center Rotation Schedule (WCRS), Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR), and AMC Form 82, do not specifically reflect authorized positions and their corresponding manpower requirements.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A “1” under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the Unit Manpower Document (UMD) indicates the
- A.
Number of positions that exist for the specified organizational structure code (OSC).
- B.
Number of positions that exist for the specified grade.
- C.
Specified position is unfunded for that quarter.
- D.
Specified position is funded for that quarter.
Correct Answer
D. Specified position is funded for that quarter.Explanation
A "1" under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the Unit Manpower Document (UMD) indicates that the specified position is funded for that quarter. This means that there is budgetary allocation and resources available to support the position during that time period.Rate this question:
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- 47.
When performing a joint inspection (JI), you annotate the “start time” block on DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by entering the
- A.
Greenwich Meantime the JI is scheduled to start.
- B.
Greenwich Meantime the JI actually started.
- C.
Local time the JI is scheduled to start.
- D.
Local time the JI actually started.
Correct Answer
D. Local time the JI actually started.Explanation
During a joint inspection (JI), the "start time" block on DD Form 2133 is annotated with the local time the JI actually started. This means that the time recorded is the actual time at the location where the inspection is taking place, rather than the scheduled time or a standardized time like Greenwich Meantime. This ensures that the inspection record accurately reflects when the JI began in the local time zone.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When performing a joint inspection (JI), how will you annotate the DD Form 2133 if an item on the list is satisfactory?
- A.
An “X.”
- B.
Circle it.
- C.
A check mark.
- D.
Leave it blank.
Correct Answer
C. A check mark.Explanation
When performing a joint inspection (JI), if an item on the list is satisfactory, it is annotated with a check mark.Rate this question:
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- 49.
During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure that
- A.
You verify the material inside the cart is, in fact, nitrogen.
- B.
Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.
- C.
You release the valves on the left side of the cart so the nitrogen does not expand in flight.
- D.
Valve stems on the pressure panel are serviceable and caps are present and properly installed.
Correct Answer
B. Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.Explanation
The correct answer is vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time. This is because before marking a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift, it is necessary to ensure that the vent kit materials are present and that technicians are available at load time. This ensures that the necessary equipment and personnel are in place to safely handle the nitrogen kit during the airlift process.Rate this question:
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- 50.
During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark an internal slingable unit (ISU) as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure the cargo within it is secured and restrained
- A.
To prevent movement and damage during flight.
- B.
With three 2 x 4 wooden beams spanning the width of the ISU.
- C.
To allow room for hazardous materials to expand and reduce during flight.
- D.
With ¼-inch nylon rope to secure all hazardous materials to the doors to prevent opening.
Correct Answer
A. To prevent movement and damage during flight.Explanation
The correct answer is to prevent movement and damage during flight. This is because securing and restraining the cargo within an internal slingable unit (ISU) is necessary to ensure that it does not move around or get damaged during the flight. This helps to maintain the safety and integrity of the cargo during transportation.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 02, 2014Quiz Created by
Peterjoepr
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