Important Questions On Maternity
The trivia quiz below has some important questions on maternity. Human reproduction is quite interesting straight from the implantation to the birth itself. Do you know that there are some products that a pregnant woman should not consume or get in contact with them? Take up the quiz below and get to learn more about this stage in a woman’s life.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
All illegal substances cross the placenta.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
This statement is true because illegal substances, such as drugs and alcohol, can easily pass through the placenta and reach the developing fetus. This can have serious negative effects on the baby's health and development. Therefore, it is important for pregnant women to avoid using any illegal substances to ensure the well-being of their unborn child.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Any environmental substance that can cause physical defects in developing fetus.
- A.
Terraria
- B.
Teratogen
- C.
Tarleton
Correct Answer
B. TeratogenExplanation
A teratogen is any environmental substance that can cause physical defects in a developing fetus. It refers to substances such as drugs, chemicals, infections, or even maternal behaviors like smoking or drinking alcohol that can negatively impact the development of the fetus and result in birth defects or other abnormalities. Teratogens can affect various aspects of fetal development, including the formation of organs, limbs, and the central nervous system. It is important for pregnant individuals to avoid exposure to teratogens to ensure the healthy development of their baby.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Marijuana fetal affects include: (Select all that apply)
- A.
Increased risk for Congenital defects
- B.
Increased risk for Precipitous Birth
- C.
Increased risk for LBW
- D.
Increased risk for Meconium Aspiration
- E.
Increased risk for Neonatal Sepsis
Correct Answer(s)
B. Increased risk for Precipitous Birth
C. Increased risk for LBW
D. Increased risk for Meconium AspirationExplanation
Marijuana use during pregnancy has been associated with several negative effects on the fetus. These include an increased risk for precipitous birth, which refers to a very rapid labor and delivery. It can also lead to low birth weight (LBW), meaning the baby is smaller than expected for their gestational age. Additionally, marijuana use during pregnancy can increase the risk for meconium aspiration, which occurs when a baby inhales their first stool (meconium) into their lungs. However, there is no evidence to suggest that marijuana use during pregnancy increases the risk for congenital defects or neonatal sepsis.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Which substance causes prune belly and necrotizing entercolitis?
- A.
Herion
- B.
Tobacco
- C.
Cocaine
- D.
Marijuana
Correct Answer
C. CocaineExplanation
Cocaine is a stimulant drug that can have severe effects on the body, including causing prune belly syndrome and necrotizing enterocolitis. Prune belly syndrome is a rare birth defect that affects the muscles and organs in the abdomen, leading to a wrinkled appearance of the belly. Necrotizing enterocolitis is a serious condition that primarily affects premature infants, causing inflammation and death of the intestinal tissue. Cocaine use during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of these conditions, making it the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Which substance causes strokes, MIs and seizures in fetus, newborn and mother?
- A.
Herion
- B.
Tobacco
- C.
Cocaine
- D.
Marijuana
Correct Answer
C. CocaineExplanation
Cocaine is the correct answer because it is a powerful stimulant drug that can have severe effects on both the fetus, newborn, and the mother. When used during pregnancy, cocaine can lead to a higher risk of strokes, heart attacks (MIs), and seizures in both the fetus and the mother. It can also cause complications during childbirth and lead to long-term developmental issues for the baby. Therefore, cocaine is the substance that poses these risks.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Which substance is an opioid?
- A.
Herion
- B.
Tobacco
- C.
Cocaine
- D.
Marijuana
Correct Answer
A. HerionExplanation
Heroin is an opioid because it is derived from morphine, which is a natural substance found in the opium poppy plant. Opioids are a class of drugs that act on the opioid receptors in the brain, producing pain relief, euphoria, and sedation. Heroin is a highly addictive and illegal drug that is commonly abused for its intense pleasurable effects.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Neonatal sepsis occurs with heroin within _____ days?
- A.
1-2
- B.
3-5
- C.
7-10
- D.
30-45
Correct Answer
C. 7-10Explanation
Neonatal sepsis refers to a bacterial infection in newborns. The given answer, 7-10 days, suggests that neonatal sepsis can occur within this time frame after heroin use. This indicates that heroin use can increase the risk of bacterial infection in newborns during the first week after birth. It is important to note that this answer assumes a cause-effect relationship between heroin use and neonatal sepsis, and further research may be needed to fully understand this association.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Key sign to neonatal sepsis:
- A.
Diarrhea
- B.
Varying temperatures
- C.
Lacrimation
- D.
Low nasal bridge
Correct Answer
B. Varying temperaturesExplanation
Varying temperatures can be a key sign of neonatal sepsis. Neonates with sepsis often exhibit fluctuations in body temperature, including both fever and hypothermia. This is because sepsis can disrupt the body's ability to regulate temperature. Therefore, monitoring and recognizing these temperature changes is crucial in identifying and diagnosing neonatal sepsis.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
What do you give for Heroin withdrawal?
- A.
Methadone
- B.
Sedatives
- C.
Benzodiazepines
Correct Answer
A. MethadoneExplanation
Methadone is given for heroin withdrawal because it is a long-acting opioid agonist that helps to reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings. It works by binding to the same receptors in the brain that heroin binds to, but in a less intense way, thus preventing withdrawal symptoms. Methadone is used as a substitute for heroin and is administered under medical supervision to help individuals gradually taper off their dependence on opioids. It is considered an effective treatment option for managing heroin withdrawal and supporting recovery.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
If a patient is pregnant and addicted to Heroin, she should detox immediately?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Detoxification from heroin during pregnancy can be dangerous for both the mother and the fetus. Abruptly stopping heroin use can cause withdrawal symptoms in the mother, which can lead to complications such as premature labor or miscarriage. Additionally, detoxification can cause stress on the fetus and may result in fetal distress or even death. Instead, a pregnant woman addicted to heroin should seek medical help and undergo a supervised detoxification process under the guidance of healthcare professionals to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which substance causes an increased risk of seizures?
- A.
Methadone
- B.
Heroin
- C.
PCP
Correct Answer
A. MethadoneExplanation
Methadone is a substance that can increase the risk of seizures. Methadone is a synthetic opioid medication commonly used for the treatment of opioid addiction and chronic pain. However, it can also have neuroexcitatory effects, which means it can increase the likelihood of seizures occurring. This is especially true if methadone is taken in high doses or combined with other substances that lower the seizure threshold, such as alcohol or certain medications. Therefore, individuals taking methadone should be closely monitored for any signs of seizures or changes in seizure frequency.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Issues with heroin: (Select all that apply)
- A.
Increased risk for Congenital defects
- B.
Increased risk for PROM
- C.
Increased risk for Perinatal asphyxia
- D.
Increased risk for Meconium Aspiration
- E.
Increased risk for Neonatal Sepsis
Correct Answer(s)
B. Increased risk for PROM
C. Increased risk for Perinatal aspHyxia
E. Increased risk for Neonatal SepsisExplanation
Heroin use during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. PROM (premature rupture of membranes) refers to the breaking of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor, which can increase the risk of infection and other complications. Perinatal asphyxia occurs when the baby is deprived of oxygen during the birth process, which can lead to brain damage or even death. Neonatal sepsis is a severe infection that can occur in newborns, and heroin use can increase the risk of this infection. Therefore, the correct answer choices indicate the increased risks associated with heroin use during pregnancy.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which substance causes: asphyxiation, convulsions/seizures, coma, choking, and can permanently take the place of O2 on hemoglobin?
- A.
Cocaine
- B.
Inhalants
- C.
Heroin
- D.
Marijuana
Correct Answer
B. InhalantsExplanation
Inhalants can cause asphyxiation, convulsions/seizures, coma, choking, and can permanently take the place of O2 on hemoglobin.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
How do you administer Buprenorphine (Subutex, Suboxone)?
- A.
IM injection
- B.
PO
- C.
Sublingual
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
C. SublingualExplanation
Buprenorphine (Subutex, Suboxone) is administered sublingually, which means it is placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve. This method allows for the medication to be absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the tissues under the tongue, bypassing the digestive system. This route of administration is commonly used for medications that need to be rapidly absorbed and have a systemic effect. IM injection refers to intramuscular injection, PO refers to oral administration (by mouth), and IV refers to intravenous injection.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which substance has an increased risk of SIDS
- A.
Tobacco
- B.
Cocaine
- C.
Heroin
Correct Answer
A. TobaccoExplanation
Tobacco is associated with an increased risk of SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome). The chemicals present in tobacco smoke can harm a baby's respiratory system and increase the likelihood of SIDS. Secondhand smoke exposure also contributes to this risk. Pregnant women who smoke or are exposed to secondhand smoke are more likely to have babies at a higher risk of SIDS. Therefore, tobacco is considered a significant risk factor for SIDS.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Craniofacial disorders associated with FASD:
- A.
Large eyes
- B.
Small eyes
- C.
Epicanthal folds
- D.
Cleft lip
- E.
Low nasal bridge
- F.
Flat mid face
- G.
Thin upper lip with missing vertical groove
Correct Answer(s)
B. Small eyes
C. Epicanthal folds
E. Low nasal bridge
F. Flat mid face
G. Thin upper lip with missing vertical groove -
- 17.
FASD is a lifelong disease.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
FASD, which stands for Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder, is indeed a lifelong disease. It is caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol and can result in a range of physical, mental, and behavioral impairments that can last throughout a person's life. These impairments can include developmental delays, learning difficulties, social and emotional problems, and physical abnormalities. Therefore, it is important to understand that FASD is not a condition that can be outgrown or cured, but rather something that individuals affected by it will have to manage and cope with for their entire lives.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Weights on newborn with substance withdrawal should be done:
- A.
Q2h
- B.
Q24h
- C.
Q8h
- D.
Q12h
Correct Answer
C. Q8hExplanation
The correct answer is q8h. Weighing newborns with substance withdrawal every 8 hours is important because these infants may experience rapid weight loss due to various factors such as poor feeding, increased metabolism, and excessive crying. Monitoring their weight more frequently allows healthcare providers to assess their nutritional status and make necessary interventions to ensure their well-being.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Lung assessment on newborn with substance withdrawal should be done:
- A.
Q1h
- B.
Q24h
- C.
Q8h
- D.
Q12h
Correct Answer
A. Q1hExplanation
Lung assessment on newborns with substance withdrawal should be done every hour (q1h) because these infants are at a higher risk of developing respiratory distress. Withdrawal symptoms can include respiratory difficulties, such as rapid breathing or shallow breaths, which require frequent monitoring to ensure prompt intervention if necessary. Assessing the lungs every hour allows healthcare providers to closely monitor the infant's respiratory status and provide appropriate care to prevent potential complications.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
When feeding a newborn with withdrawal:
- A.
Feed quickly
- B.
Feed slowly
- C.
Burp often
- D.
Supine position
- E.
HOB 30-45 degrees
Correct Answer(s)
B. Feed slowly
C. Burp often
E. HOB 30-45 degreesExplanation
When feeding a newborn with withdrawal, it is important to feed slowly to prevent overfeeding and reduce the risk of regurgitation. Burping often helps to release any trapped air in the baby's stomach, preventing discomfort and colic. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at a 30-45 degree angle helps to reduce the risk of aspiration and reflux during and after feeding. These measures ensure the baby's comfort and safety during feeding.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
You should increase the stimuli on newborns with withdrawal.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Increasing the stimuli on newborns with withdrawal is not recommended. Newborns with withdrawal are already experiencing symptoms of withdrawal from substances such as opioids, and increasing stimuli can further overwhelm their sensitive nervous systems. It is important to provide a calm and soothing environment for these infants to help them recover and minimize their distress. Therefore, the correct answer is false.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
Cardiac decompensation is a major issue for:
- A.
Moms abusing cocaine
- B.
Moms with cardiovascular disorders
- C.
Moms with multiples
Correct Answer
B. Moms with cardiovascular disordersExplanation
Moms with cardiovascular disorders are at a higher risk of experiencing cardiac decompensation. This is because their pre-existing cardiovascular conditions can put additional strain on their heart during pregnancy. Pregnancy itself can also cause changes in the cardiovascular system, further exacerbating the risk. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor and manage cardiovascular disorders in expectant mothers to prevent cardiac decompensation and ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
Watch for _________ with cardiac decompensation: (select all that apply)
- A.
Rales, crackles
- B.
Edema of face, hands and feet
- C.
Hard movable "olive" like mass
- D.
Tachycardia and palpitations
Correct Answer(s)
A. Rales, crackles
B. Edema of face, hands and feet
D. Tachycardia and palpitationsExplanation
This question is asking the reader to identify the signs and symptoms associated with cardiac decompensation. The correct answer includes rales, crackles, edema of the face, hands, and feet, as well as tachycardia and palpitations. These symptoms are commonly seen in patients with cardiac decompensation, which is a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Rales and crackles are abnormal lung sounds that can indicate fluid buildup in the lungs, while edema of the face, hands, and feet is a sign of fluid retention. Tachycardia and palpitations are often present due to the heart's inability to effectively pump blood.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
What type of diet should a pregnant mother be on with cardiovascular disorders?
- A.
DM diet
- B.
Low Na diet
- C.
Liquid diet
- D.
No restrictions
Correct Answer
B. Low Na dietExplanation
A pregnant mother with cardiovascular disorders should be on a low Na (sodium) diet. This is because high sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and increased blood pressure, which can be harmful to both the mother and the baby. A low sodium diet helps to control blood pressure and reduce the risk of complications associated with cardiovascular disorders during pregnancy.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Which anticoagulant should a pregnant mother with cardiovascular disorders be on?
- A.
Lovenox
- B.
Coumadin
Correct Answer
A. LovenoxExplanation
A pregnant mother with cardiovascular disorders should be on Lovenox as an anticoagulant. This is because Lovenox is considered safer during pregnancy compared to Coumadin. Lovenox is a low molecular weight heparin that does not cross the placenta easily, reducing the risk of harm to the fetus. In contrast, Coumadin can cross the placenta and has been associated with fetal abnormalities. Therefore, Lovenox is the preferred choice for anticoagulation in pregnant women with cardiovascular disorders.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
You can give diuretics to a pregnant mother with cardiovascular disorders
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Just need to watch closelyRate this question:
-
- 27.
Use stirrups with pregnant mother with cardiovascular disorders.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Using stirrups with a pregnant mother with cardiovascular disorders is not recommended. Stirrups are used during childbirth to position the mother's legs, but they can put pressure on the abdomen and interfere with blood flow, which can be dangerous for a pregnant woman with cardiovascular disorders. It is important to consider the specific needs and risks of each individual patient when making decisions about their care.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
How often are the prenatal check ups for a pregnant mother with cardiovascular disorders?
- A.
Weekly throughout pregnancy
- B.
Q2weeks for 2nd trimester and q1week for 3rd trimester
- C.
Q4weeks for 2nd trimester and q2week for 3rd trimester
- D.
Q2weeks for 1nd trimester and q2week for 2nd and 3rd trimesters
Correct Answer
B. Q2weeks for 2nd trimester and q1week for 3rd trimester -
- 29.
S/S of ovarian hyperstimulation: (select all that apply)
- A.
Low grade fever
- B.
N/V
- C.
Inflammation
- D.
Wt gain of 5-10 lbs in 1-3 days
- E.
Tortion of fallopian tube
- F.
Abnormal fetal development
Correct Answer(s)
B. N/V
D. Wt gain of 5-10 lbs in 1-3 days
E. Tortion of fallopian tubeExplanation
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is a condition that can occur in women undergoing fertility treatments, particularly those involving the use of medications to stimulate the ovaries. The symptoms of OHSS can vary but commonly include nausea and vomiting (N/V), as well as rapid weight gain of 5-10 pounds in 1-3 days. In severe cases, OHSS can lead to the torsion (twisting) of the fallopian tube, which can cause severe pain and potentially require surgical intervention. Therefore, the correct answers for this question are N/V, weight gain of 5-10 lbs in 1-3 days, and torsion of the fallopian tube.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
S/S of PCOS: (select all that apply)
- A.
Low grade fever
- B.
N/V
- C.
Inflammation
- D.
Wt gain of 5-10 lbs in 1-3 days
- E.
Tortion of fallopian tube
- F.
Abnormal fetal development
Correct Answer(s)
A. Low grade fever
C. Inflammation
F. Abnormal fetal development -
- 31.
Which male would be most at risk for infertility?
- A.
36 y.o. smoker who had an undescended testicle.
- B.
24 y.o. long distance cyclist with a HX of STDS and hernia repairs
- C.
34 t.o. with hypospadias and klinefelter's syndrome
- D.
26 y.o. smoker, taking steriods, had mumps at 22 and has hypothalamic dysfunction
Correct Answer
D. 26 y.o. smoker, taking steriods, had mumps at 22 and has hypothalamic dysfunctionExplanation
The 26-year-old smoker who is taking steroids, had mumps at the age of 22, and has hypothalamic dysfunction would be most at risk for infertility. Smoking and steroid use can both negatively affect sperm production and quality. Mumps is known to cause inflammation of the testicles, which can lead to infertility. Hypothalamic dysfunction can disrupt the hormonal balance necessary for sperm production. Therefore, the combination of these factors puts this individual at the highest risk for infertility among the given options.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Semen analysis teaching:
- A.
No sex for 24 -48 hrs
- B.
No sex for 2 weeks
- C.
Turn specimen in in 1-2 hrs
- D.
Turn specimen in in 24 hrs
Correct Answer(s)
A. No sex for 24 -48 hrs
C. Turn specimen in in 1-2 hrsExplanation
The correct answer is no sex for 24-48 hours and turn specimen in within 1-2 hours. This is because abstaining from sexual activity for 24-48 hours prior to semen analysis helps ensure accurate results by allowing the sperm to accumulate in the semen. Additionally, turning in the specimen within 1-2 hours of collection is important to maintain the viability of the sperm and prevent any changes or degradation that may occur over time.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Dysmenorrhea is:
- A.
Absence of a period
- B.
Pain with menstruation
Correct Answer
B. Pain with menstruationExplanation
Dysmenorrhea refers to the condition of experiencing pain during menstruation. It is a common menstrual disorder that is characterized by cramping, lower abdominal pain, and discomfort. This pain can range from mild to severe and can be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and headaches. Dysmenorrhea can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, uterine abnormalities, and the release of inflammatory substances. Treatment options for dysmenorrhea include over-the-counter pain relievers, hormonal birth control, and lifestyle changes.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Which congenital defect would you use a Logan bow?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
Correct Answer
A. Clef lipExplanation
A Logan bow is a type of orthodontic appliance used to correct a cleft lip. A cleft lip is a congenital defect where there is a split or opening in the upper lip. The Logan bow helps to align and close the cleft lip, allowing for proper development and function of the lip and surrounding structures.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Which congenital defect would you have a higher risk of otitis media?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
Correct Answer
A. Clef lipExplanation
Individuals with cleft lip have a higher risk of developing otitis media. This is because the opening in the lip can lead to dysfunction of the Eustachian tube, which is responsible for equalizing pressure in the middle ear. When the Eustachian tube does not function properly, fluid can accumulate in the middle ear, leading to an increased risk of ear infections such as otitis media.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Which congenital defect would you use 1/2 strength hydrogen peroxide on the suture?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
Correct Answer
A. Clef lipExplanation
Cleft lip is a congenital defect characterized by a split or gap in the upper lip. Using 1/2 strength hydrogen peroxide on the suture can help clean and disinfect the area, promoting healing and preventing infection. This is important because cleft lip repair surgery involves suturing the lip back together, and keeping the area clean and free from bacteria is crucial for successful healing.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Which congenital defect would you use elbow restraints?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
Correct Answer
A. Clef lipExplanation
Elbow restraints would be used for a congenital defect like cleft lip. Cleft lip is a birth defect where there is a split or gap in the upper lip. Elbow restraints are commonly used to prevent the child from touching or putting pressure on the surgical site after cleft lip repair surgery. This helps in promoting proper healing and preventing any complications.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Which congenital defect would you watch for the 3 Cs (choking, cyanosis, coughing)?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia/Trachespophageal fistuale
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
- E.
Pyloric Stenosis
Correct Answer
B. EsopHageal Atresia/TrachespopHageal fistualeExplanation
Esophageal Atresia/Trachespophageal fistuale is the correct answer because this congenital defect can cause choking, cyanosis, and coughing. Esophageal Atresia is a condition where the esophagus does not develop properly and does not connect to the stomach, while Trachespophageal fistuale is a condition where there is an abnormal connection between the esophagus and the trachea. Both of these conditions can lead to difficulties in swallowing, breathing, and can cause choking, cyanosis (blue discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen), and coughing.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Which congenital defect would suspect with white frothy sputum and drooling?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia/Trachespophageal fistuale
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
- E.
Pyloric Stenosis
Correct Answer
B. EsopHageal Atresia/TrachespopHageal fistualeExplanation
White frothy sputum and drooling are characteristic symptoms of esophageal atresia/tracheoesophageal fistula. This congenital defect occurs when the esophagus does not properly connect to the stomach, and instead, it forms an abnormal connection with the trachea. This abnormal connection allows saliva and other fluids to enter the airway, causing drooling and the production of white frothy sputum.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Which congenital defect would you suspect with uneven chest wall movements?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia/Trachespophageal fistuale
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
- E.
Pyloric Stenosis
Correct Answer
C. Congenital DiapHragmatic HerniaExplanation
Uneven chest wall movements are indicative of a congenital diaphragmatic hernia. This condition occurs when there is a hole in the diaphragm, allowing abdominal organs to protrude into the chest cavity. As a result, the movement of the chest wall becomes uneven as the organs push against the lungs. Clef lip, esophageal atresia/trachespophageal fistuale, imperforated anus, and pyloric stenosis are not associated with uneven chest wall movements.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Which congenital defect would you suspect with no meconium passing within 24 hours?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia/Trachespophageal fistuale
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
- E.
Pyloric Stenosis
Correct Answer
D. Imperforated AnusExplanation
When a newborn does not pass meconium within 24 hours, it may indicate an imperforated anus. This condition occurs when the opening of the anus is blocked or absent, preventing the passage of stool. It is a congenital defect that can cause abdominal distension and discomfort in the newborn. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to correct the condition and allow for normal bowel movements.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Which congenital defect would you suspect with projectile vomiting?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia/Trachespophageal fistuale
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
- E.
Pyloric Stenosis
Correct Answer
E. Pyloric StenosisExplanation
Projectile vomiting is a forceful expulsion of stomach contents, which is a characteristic symptom of pyloric stenosis. Pyloric stenosis is a congenital condition where the muscle between the stomach and small intestine (pylorus) becomes thickened, causing a narrowing of the opening. This narrowing prevents the normal flow of food from the stomach to the small intestine, leading to projectile vomiting shortly after feeding. Other options like cleft lip, esophageal atresia/tracheoesophageal fistula, congenital diaphragmatic hernia, and imperforated anus do not typically present with projectile vomiting.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Which congenital defect would you suspect if you were able to palpate a hard, movable "olive" mass in the upper belly?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia/Trachespophageal fistuale
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
- E.
Pyloric Stenosis
Correct Answer
E. Pyloric StenosisExplanation
If a hard, movable "olive" mass is palpated in the upper belly, the most likely congenital defect would be pyloric stenosis. Pyloric stenosis is a condition where the muscle between the stomach and small intestine becomes thickened, causing a blockage. This can lead to symptoms such as projectile vomiting, weight loss, and dehydration. Palpating a hard, movable mass in the upper belly is a characteristic finding in pyloric stenosis.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Which congenital defect would you use the Habermann nipple?
- A.
Clef lip
- B.
Esophageal Atresia/Trachespophageal fistuale
- C.
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
- D.
Imperforated Anus
- E.
Pyloric Stenosis
Correct Answer
A. Clef lipExplanation
The Habermann nipple is used in cases of cleft lip, which is a congenital defect where there is a gap or split in the upper lip. The Habermann nipple is a specialized feeding device that helps infants with cleft lip to feed properly by providing a modified nipple shape that allows for easier suction and swallowing. It is designed to help the baby latch onto the nipple and prevent milk from escaping through the cleft.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Which term refers to mucus elasticity?
- A.
Subfertility
- B.
Spinnbarkeit
- C.
Varicocelectomy
Correct Answer
B. SpinnbarkeitExplanation
Spinnbarkeit refers to the elasticity of mucus. It is a term commonly used in the field of gynecology to describe the stretchiness and consistency of cervical mucus. This elasticity is important for fertility as it allows the mucus to facilitate the movement and survival of sperm in the reproductive tract. Subfertility refers to reduced fertility, while varicocelectomy is a surgical procedure to remove varicoceles, which are enlarged veins in the scrotum.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Which term refers to ligation and excision of the enlarged veins of a scrotal varicocele?
- A.
Subfertility
- B.
Spinnbarkeit
- C.
Varicocelectomy
Correct Answer
C. VaricocelectomyExplanation
Varicocelectomy refers to the ligation and excision of the enlarged veins of a scrotal varicocele. A varicocele is a condition where the veins in the scrotum become enlarged and can cause pain, infertility, or testicular atrophy. Varicocelectomy is a surgical procedure performed to remove or block these enlarged veins, improving blood flow and potentially restoring fertility. Subfertility refers to reduced fertility, while spinnbarkeit refers to the stretchiness and consistency of cervical mucus, neither of which are related to the ligation and excision of varicocele veins.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
The priority postpartum concern for multiples pregnancy:
- A.
Bleeding
- B.
Dehydration
- C.
Anemia
Correct Answer
A. BleedingExplanation
In a multiples pregnancy, the priority postpartum concern is bleeding. This is because multiple pregnancies often involve a higher risk of complications, such as placental abruption or uterine atony, which can lead to excessive bleeding after delivery. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the mother's well-being. Dehydration and anemia can also be concerns after delivery, but they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in multiples pregnancies.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
You goal gestation period with multiples pregnancy:
- A.
26 weeks
- B.
36 weeks
- C.
32 weeks
- D.
30 weeks
Correct Answer
B. 36 weeksExplanation
The correct answer is 36 weeks. This is the average gestation period for a multiples pregnancy, which means carrying more than one baby. Carrying multiples can be more challenging and may require more time for the babies to fully develop in the womb. A gestation period of 36 weeks allows for proper growth and development of the babies before they are born.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
Test performed on newborns with HIV mothers at birth:
- A.
ELISA
- B.
Western blot
- C.
PCR
- D.
Uni-Gold
Correct Answer
C. PCRExplanation
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a highly sensitive and specific molecular technique used to detect the presence of HIV in newborns born to HIV-positive mothers. It amplifies and detects the viral genetic material (RNA or DNA) in the blood sample of the newborn. This test is performed because it can accurately diagnose HIV infection in infants as early as a few days after birth, allowing for prompt initiation of antiretroviral therapy and appropriate medical management. ELISA, Western blot, and Uni-Gold are other tests used in HIV diagnosis, but PCR is specifically recommended for early detection in newborns.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
When should a baby with an HIV mother be tested: (select all that apply)
- A.
8-16 weeks
- B.
12-48 hours
- C.
1-2 weeks
- D.
4-7 weeks
- E.
12-18 months
- F.
5-6 days
Correct Answer(s)
A. 8-16 weeks
B. 12-48 hours
D. 4-7 weeks
E. 12-18 monthsExplanation
A baby with an HIV mother should be tested at multiple time points to ensure accurate diagnosis. Testing at 8-16 weeks is important as it allows for detection of HIV antibodies produced by the baby. Testing at 12-48 hours is crucial as it helps identify if the baby has acquired HIV during childbirth. Testing at 4-7 weeks is necessary to confirm the initial test results. Lastly, testing at 12-18 months is essential to detect any delayed HIV infection. Therefore, these time points are critical for comprehensive testing and monitoring of babies born to HIV-positive mothers.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Nov 16, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Apr 12, 2014Quiz Created by
Ajaster
Back to top