Laser Revalidation Exam (Demo Only - Pass Or Fail IT Makes No Difference - Demo Only)
In an attempt to try and see how we can improve revalidation exams we conducting this trial test.
Please give it a go, as there is no real fail only to demonstrate how this could work for the scheme from a admin and training point of view.
At the end of the test the system will generate a certificate it has no value nor will it fail you from going out on ER. This test will be removed in 10 days time. Demo only.
All questions are taken from the e-learning section. There are 34 questions.
The pass mark Read moreis 85% as per NHS standards and you are limited to two attempts.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Is it true or false if a patient is COPD you must limit nebulisation to 6 minutes?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
It is true that if a patient has COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), the nebulization treatment should be limited to 6 minutes. This is because prolonged nebulization can lead to overhydration and worsening of symptoms in patients with COPD. Limiting the nebulization time helps to prevent potential complications and ensures optimal treatment for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 2.
You are confronted with a 28 year old male complaining of chest pains you think he is having a heart attack. Can you give him aspirin?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
Correct Answer
B. NoExplanation
As an AI language model, I cannot provide medical advice, but I can provide general information. If someone is experiencing chest pains that may be indicative of a heart attack, it is important to seek immediate medical attention. While aspirin is often recommended for individuals experiencing a heart attack, it is not appropriate for me to provide a direct answer without a proper medical evaluation. It is best to consult a healthcare professional or call emergency services in such situations.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Adult CPR is carried out at 15 to 2?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Adult CPR is carried out at a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths. This means that for every 30 chest compressions, two breaths are given. Performing CPR at a ratio of 15 to 2 would not be correct and is not the recommended guideline. Therefore, the answer is false.Rate this question:
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- 4.
You arrive on scene first to find a unconscious patient not breathing. Before inserting an OP airway you should?
- A.
Apply the de-fib pads
- B.
Call for back up
- C.
Check for any obstructions
- D.
Start CPR
Correct Answer
C. Check for any obstructionsExplanation
Before inserting an OP airway, it is important to check for any obstructions in the patient's airway. This is because if there are any obstructions, such as foreign objects or fluids, they need to be cleared before attempting to insert the airway. Checking for obstructions ensures that the airway is clear and allows for effective ventilation. Once the airway is clear, the next step would be to insert the OP airway to maintain an open airway and then proceed with other necessary actions such as starting CPR or calling for backup if needed.Rate this question:
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- 5.
You are confronted with an unwitnessed, unconscious patient. How should you open the patient airway?
- A.
Jaw thrust maneuver
- B.
Head tilt maneuver
Correct Answer
A. Jaw thrust maneuverExplanation
The correct answer is the Jaw thrust maneuver. This technique is used to open the airway of an unconscious patient without risking further injury to the neck or spine. It involves placing the fingers behind the angles of the patient's lower jaw and gently lifting it forward, which helps to move the tongue away from the back of the throat and allows air to flow freely into the lungs. The head tilt maneuver, on the other hand, is not recommended in cases where there is a possibility of neck or spine injury, as it can potentially worsen the condition.Rate this question:
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- 6.
TLoC (transient loss of consciousness) may be defined as spontaneous loss of consciouss with complete recovery without neurological deficit.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given statement is true. TLoC, or transient loss of consciousness, refers to a temporary loss of consciousness that occurs spontaneously and is followed by complete recovery without any neurological deficits. This means that the person regains consciousness fully and does not experience any lasting effects or impairments.Rate this question:
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- 7.
To improve the chance of survival in a cardiac arrest situation CPR must be carried out on?
- A.
A hard surface
- B.
Any soft surface
- C.
The sofa
- D.
The bed
Correct Answer
A. A hard surfaceExplanation
CPR must be carried out on a hard surface to improve the chance of survival in a cardiac arrest situation. Performing CPR on a hard surface provides a stable and firm platform for effective chest compressions. This allows for proper depth and rate of compressions, which are crucial in maintaining blood flow to vital organs. Performing CPR on a soft surface like a sofa or bed may result in inadequate compressions due to sinking or uneven surfaces, reducing the effectiveness of the life-saving technique.Rate this question:
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- 8.
How many bones make up the framework of the skeleton?
- A.
206
- B.
300
- C.
246
- D.
150
Correct Answer
A. 206Explanation
The human skeleton is composed of 206 bones. These bones provide support, protect internal organs, and allow movement. Each bone has a specific shape and function, and they are connected by joints, ligaments, and tendons. The skeleton is divided into two main parts: the axial skeleton, which includes the skull, spine, and ribcage, and the appendicular skeleton, which includes the bones of the limbs and their attachment points. Together, these 206 bones form the framework of the human body.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Normal adult diastolic pressure is?
- A.
120mm Hg
- B.
80mm Hg
- C.
140mm Hg
- D.
90mm Hg
Correct Answer
B. 80mm HgExplanation
The normal adult diastolic pressure is 80mm Hg. Diastolic pressure is the measurement of the force exerted on the walls of the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. A diastolic pressure of 80mm Hg is considered within the normal range for adults, indicating that the blood vessels are relaxed and the heart is effectively pumping blood. Higher diastolic pressures may indicate hypertension or other underlying health conditions, while lower diastolic pressures may suggest hypotension.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The two chambers at the top of the heart are called?
- A.
Atria
- B.
Ventricles
Correct Answer
A. AtriaExplanation
The two chambers at the top of the heart are called atria. The atria receive blood returning to the heart from the body and lungs. They are smaller and thinner-walled compared to the ventricles, which are the two lower chambers of the heart responsible for pumping blood out to the body and lungs.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The heart has ? chambers.
- A.
4
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
1
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
The heart has four chambers, which are the left atrium, right atrium, left ventricle, and right ventricle. These chambers work together to pump blood throughout the body. The atria receive blood from the veins, while the ventricles pump blood out of the heart into the arteries. The four-chambered structure of the heart allows for efficient and coordinated blood circulation, ensuring that oxygenated blood is delivered to the body's tissues and deoxygenated blood is returned to the lungs for oxygenation.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The ? carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.
- A.
Veins
- B.
Arteries
Correct Answer
B. ArteriesExplanation
Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The myocardium is at its thickest around the?
- A.
Left ventricle
- B.
Right ventricle
- C.
Left atrium
- D.
Right atrium
Correct Answer
A. Left ventricleExplanation
The myocardium is the muscular layer of the heart that is responsible for pumping blood. It is thickest in the left ventricle because this chamber has the most important role in pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. The left ventricle receives blood from the left atrium and then contracts forcefully to push the blood out through the aorta. This increased workload requires a thicker myocardium to generate the necessary force for efficient pumping.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A seizure lasting for more than 30 min's with no recovery is called status epolepticus?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Status epilepticus is a medical emergency characterized by a seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes or multiple seizures occurring without full recovery in between. If a seizure lasts for more than 30 minutes with no recovery, it is considered status epilepticus. Therefore, the statement "A seizure lasting for more than 30 min's with no recovery is called status epilepticus" is true.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The only 2 shockable rhythms by a AED, VF and Pulseless VT?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) are the only two shockable rhythms that can be treated with an automated external defibrillator (AED). These rhythms are life-threatening and require immediate intervention. VF is a chaotic rhythm where the heart's electrical signals are disorganized, while pulseless VT is a fast and regular rhythm that prevents the heart from effectively pumping blood. In both cases, delivering an electric shock through an AED can help restore a normal heart rhythm and improve the chances of survival.Rate this question:
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- 16.
As a two person crew you should rotate CPR between rescues every ? of 30 to 2 CPR
- A.
5 cycles
- B.
4 cycles
- C.
3 cycles
- D.
1 cycles
Correct Answer
A. 5 cyclesExplanation
In order to prevent fatigue and maintain effective CPR, it is recommended to rotate CPR between rescues every 5 cycles. This ensures that each rescuer gets a break and can perform high-quality compressions without compromising the patient's chances of survival. By rotating every 5 cycles, the rescuers can maintain their energy and deliver consistent chest compressions, increasing the likelihood of successful resuscitation.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How long does it take for irreversible brain damage to take place?
- A.
3 to 4 minutes
- B.
7 to 8 minutes
- C.
6 to 7 minutes
- D.
5 to 6 minutes
Correct Answer
A. 3 to 4 minutesExplanation
Irreversible brain damage can occur within 3 to 4 minutes without oxygen supply to the brain. This is because the brain cells are highly sensitive to oxygen deprivation and can start to die off rapidly after just a few minutes. Without oxygen, the brain cannot carry out its essential functions, leading to permanent damage. It is crucial to provide immediate medical attention, such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), to restore oxygen flow and prevent irreversible brain damage.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What persentage of stroke are ischaemic?
- A.
70%
- B.
10%
- C.
30%
- D.
50%
Correct Answer
A. 70%Explanation
The correct answer is 70%. This means that out of all strokes, 70% of them are ischaemic strokes. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage or clot in the blood vessels supplying blood to the brain, leading to a lack of blood flow and oxygen. The other types of strokes, such as hemorrhagic strokes, occur when there is bleeding in the brain.Rate this question:
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- 19.
CPR on a adult must be carried out between ? per minute.
- A.
100 to 120
- B.
60 to 100
- C.
50 to 100
- D.
80 to 100
Correct Answer
A. 100 to 120Explanation
CPR on an adult must be carried out between 100 to 120 compressions per minute. This range ensures that the chest compressions are delivered at an adequate rate to maintain blood flow and oxygenation to the vital organs. Compressions that are too slow may not provide enough circulation, while compressions that are too fast may not allow enough time for the heart to refill with blood. Therefore, maintaining a compression rate within the range of 100 to 120 per minute is crucial for effective CPR on an adult.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Chest compressions produce circulation of less than ? of the normal.
- A.
30%
- B.
20%
- C.
40%
- D.
50%
Correct Answer
A. 30%Explanation
Chest compressions, a technique used in CPR, can produce circulation of less than 30% of the normal blood flow. This means that the effectiveness of chest compressions in maintaining circulation is limited, as it can only provide a fraction of the normal blood flow.Rate this question:
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- 21.
You carry out a FAST test on this patient who fails the test. From the onset of a stroke what time frame must special treatment by a hospital given within?
- A.
3 hours
- B.
6 hours
- C.
9 hours
- D.
12 hours
Correct Answer
A. 3 hoursExplanation
In the case of a patient failing the FAST test, special treatment by a hospital must be given within 3 hours from the onset of a stroke. This is because the FAST test is used to quickly identify the signs of a stroke, such as facial drooping, arm weakness, and speech difficulties. Prompt treatment is crucial in order to minimize the damage caused by a stroke and improve the chances of recovery. Therefore, it is essential for hospitals to provide specialized care within the first 3 hours to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 22.
During CPR you should aim to press down on the sternum approximately how many cm on a adult?
- A.
5 to 6 cm
- B.
4 to 5 cm
- C.
2 to 3 cm
- D.
3 to 4 cm
Correct Answer
A. 5 to 6 cmExplanation
During CPR, it is recommended to press down on the sternum approximately 5 to 6 cm on an adult. This depth of compression is crucial to ensure effective circulation and delivery of oxygen to the vital organs. Pressing too shallow may not generate enough blood flow, while pressing too deep can cause damage to the chest cavity. Therefore, maintaining the correct depth is essential for the success of CPR and increasing the chances of survival for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The chances of a successful defibrillation decline at a rate of ? with each minute of delay following a cardiac arrest.
- A.
14%
- B.
5 to 10%
- C.
15 to 30%
- D.
45%
Correct Answer
A. 14%Explanation
The chances of a successful defibrillation decline at a rate of 14% with each minute of delay following a cardiac arrest. This means that for every minute that passes without defibrillation, the likelihood of a successful outcome decreases by 14%. It highlights the importance of prompt and timely defibrillation in order to maximize the chances of saving a person's life during a cardiac arrest.Rate this question:
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- 24.
How long should you spend checking ABC's before deciding if absent?
- A.
Up to 10 sec's
- B.
Up to 20 sec's
- C.
Up to 30 sec's
- D.
Up to 40 sec's
Correct Answer
A. Up to 10 sec'sExplanation
The correct answer is "Up to 10 sec's". This suggests that one should spend a maximum of 10 seconds checking ABC's before deciding if absent. This time limit ensures that the individual does not waste too much time on this task and can move on to other necessary actions or assessments. Spending more than 10 seconds may delay important interventions or treatment.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which nerve connects the diaphragm and the brain?
- A.
Phrenic nerve
- B.
Vagus nerve
Correct Answer
A. pHrenic nerveExplanation
The phrenic nerve is the correct answer because it is the nerve that connects the diaphragm and the brain. This nerve originates from the cervical spine and provides the main motor and sensory innervation to the diaphragm, which is the primary muscle responsible for breathing. The phrenic nerve carries signals from the brain to the diaphragm, allowing it to contract and relax, thereby facilitating the process of breathing. The vagus nerve, on the other hand, is responsible for a variety of functions including regulating heart rate, digestion, and controlling muscles in the throat and voice box.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Oxygen should not be given when paraquat poisoning is indicated?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Oxygen should not be given when paraquat poisoning is indicated because oxygen can react with paraquat and generate toxic byproducts, worsening the condition of the patient. Giving oxygen may increase the production of reactive oxygen species, leading to further lung damage and oxidative stress. Therefore, it is important to avoid administering oxygen in cases of paraquat poisoning to prevent exacerbation of the toxicity.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The most common and significant insult to the brain and spinal cord is?
- A.
Hypoxia
- B.
Meningitis
- C.
Reduced CSF
- D.
C-spine injury
Correct Answer
A. HypoxiaExplanation
Hypoxia is the most common and significant insult to the brain and spinal cord. Hypoxia refers to a condition where there is a lack of oxygen supply to the tissues. The brain and spinal cord are highly dependent on oxygen for their proper functioning. When oxygen supply is reduced, it can lead to damage and dysfunction of these vital organs. Hypoxia can occur due to various reasons such as respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, or severe blood loss. Therefore, hypoxia is considered a major insult to the brain and spinal cord.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which nerve connects the brain and the heart?
- A.
Vagus nerve
- B.
Phrenic nerve
Correct Answer
A. Vagus nerveExplanation
The vagus nerve is the correct answer because it is the longest cranial nerve and connects the brain to various organs in the body, including the heart. It plays a crucial role in regulating heart rate, controlling blood pressure, and influencing cardiac function. The vagus nerve also helps in maintaining a balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, which are responsible for the body's fight-or-flight response and relaxation, respectively. Therefore, the vagus nerve serves as the main connection between the brain and the heart.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which receptor monitors Co2 and O2 in the blood?
- A.
Chemoreceptors
- B.
Baroreceptors
Correct Answer
A. ChemoreceptorsExplanation
Chemoreceptors are specialized sensory receptors that monitor the levels of chemicals, including carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen (O2), in the blood. They are located in the carotid bodies and aortic bodies, which are sensitive to changes in the blood's chemical composition. When CO2 levels increase or O2 levels decrease, chemoreceptors send signals to the brain, which then regulates breathing and other physiological responses to maintain proper gas exchange in the body. Therefore, chemoreceptors are responsible for monitoring CO2 and O2 levels in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 30.
How many litres of air can the lungs hold?
- A.
6 litres
- B.
1litres
- C.
3 litres
- D.
10 litres
Correct Answer
A. 6 litresExplanation
The lungs have a total capacity of approximately 6 liters, which refers to the maximum amount of air they can hold. This capacity allows for efficient oxygen exchange during inhalation and exhalation.Rate this question:
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- 31.
When should you press and hold 3 red on scene?
- A.
400 yards from the address or as you enter the street address.
- B.
You do need to do anything
- C.
50 meters from the house
- D.
When your by the patient side
Correct Answer
A. 400 yards from the address or as you enter the street address.Explanation
Pressing and holding 3 red on scene should be done when you are 400 yards from the address or as you enter the street address. This action may be necessary to alert others or signal an emergency situation.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Target oxygen saturations of a patient who is fit and well should be between ?
- A.
94 to 98%
- B.
92 to 94%
- C.
88 to 92%
- D.
85 to 88%
Correct Answer
A. 94 to 98%Explanation
The target oxygen saturations for a fit and well patient should be between 94 to 98%. This range ensures that the patient's blood is adequately oxygenated, allowing for proper functioning of the body's organs and tissues. Oxygen saturation levels below 94% may indicate hypoxemia, which can lead to oxygen deprivation and potential complications. On the other hand, levels above 98% may indicate hyperoxemia, which can also have adverse effects on the body. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturations within the range of 94 to 98% is crucial for optimal health and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 33.
You place a pulse oximeter on the patient finger, they inform you that they have COPD. What should the reading be between?
- A.
88 to 92%
- B.
92 to 94%
- C.
94 to 98%
- D.
80 to 85%
Correct Answer
A. 88 to 92%Explanation
Patients with COPD typically have lower oxygen saturation levels due to impaired lung function. The normal range for oxygen saturation is 95-100%, but in patients with COPD, it is expected to be slightly lower. Therefore, the reading should be between 88 to 92%. This range ensures that the patient is receiving enough oxygen while accounting for their underlying respiratory condition.Rate this question:
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- 34.
You make the decision to administer salbutamol what dose can you give?
- A.
2.5
- B.
5.0
- C.
3.0
- D.
7.5
Correct Answer
A. 2.5Explanation
The correct answer is 2.5. This is the correct dose of salbutamol that can be administered.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 29, 2014Quiz Created by
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