ISTQB Sample Mock Test 1

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1/40 Questions

Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?
- Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing
- Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software
- It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system
- The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects

About This Quiz

ISTQB is a non-profit association registered in Belgium for software testing qualification certification. Have you in any way interacted with it or intending to? If so take up the quiz below and gain knowledge on it.

Questions and Answers

2.

Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?
- Determine whether enough component testing was executed. proposes preventing activities.
- Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.
- Prove that all faults are identified analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.
- Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures
Correct Answer

A. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.
3.

Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis and Design?
- Setting or defining test objectives
- Reviewing the test basis because the users need to execute less tests
- Creating test suites from test procedures requirement engineers building software models (e.g. state transition diagrams), which do not match the requirements
- Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement
Correct Answer

A. Reviewing the test basis because the users need to execute less tests

Explanation

During Test Analysis and Design, one of the tasks expected to be performed is reviewing the test basis. This is because by reviewing the test basis, the users can identify any gaps or inconsistencies in the requirements, which can help in reducing the number of tests that need to be executed. This task ensures that the test cases are aligned with the requirements and helps in improving the efficiency of the testing process.

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4.

Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. Which is MOST likely a failure?
- The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box
- One source code file included in the build was the wrong version
- The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.
- The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm
Correct Answer

A. The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box

Explanation

The product crashing when the user selected an option in a dialog box is the most likely failure because it directly affects the user's experience and can lead to a loss of functionality. The other options may also cause issues, but they are more likely to result in errors or incorrect behavior rather than a complete crash of the product.

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5.

Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?
- Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects
- Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and faults
- Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product
- Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.
Correct Answer

A. Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product

Explanation

If testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product, it can lead to problems within teams. This type of communication creates a negative and blaming atmosphere, which can damage relationships and hinder collaboration. It can also discourage open and honest feedback, making it difficult to address and resolve issues effectively. It is important for testers and reviewers to focus on the software product rather than blaming individuals, in order to maintain a positive and productive team environment.

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6.

Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements. B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer’s work. C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment. D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found.
- B and C are true; A and D are false.
- A and D are true; B and C are false.
- A and C are true, B and D are false
- C and D are true, A and B are false
Correct Answer

A. A and C are true, B and D are false

Explanation

The correct answer is A and C are true, B and D are false. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements, as it ensures that the software meets the specified standards and regulations. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment, as it helps to identify and resolve any issues before the software is deployed. However, software testing is not mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer's work, as it is a separate process that focuses on verifying the functionality and performance of the software. Rigorous testing is also not used to prove that all failures have been found, as it is impossible to guarantee that all defects have been identified.

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1
7.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?
- Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.
- Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software
- Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures
- Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures
Correct Answer

A. Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software

Explanation

Testing and debugging are two different processes in software development. Testing involves the execution of a program or system to identify failures or defects caused by errors in the code. It helps in pinpointing the source of these defects. On the other hand, debugging is the process of analyzing these failures and identifying the root causes of the defects. It involves finding and removing the causes of failures in the software. Therefore, the statement "Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software" best describes the difference between testing and debugging.

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8.

Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?
- The process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements
- The process of testing to determine the compliance of a system to coding standards
- Testing without reference to the internal structure of a system
- Testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability or maintainability
Correct Answer

A. Testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability or maintainability

Explanation

Non-functional testing refers to the process of testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability, or maintainability. This type of testing focuses on evaluating the performance of a system based on its non-functional requirements rather than its functional requirements. It helps to ensure that the system meets the desired standards in terms of its usability, reliability, and maintainability, which are crucial for its overall effectiveness and user satisfaction.

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9.

What is important to do when working with software development models?
- To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics
- To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model
- To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models
- To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa
Correct Answer

A. To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics

Explanation

When working with software development models, it is important to adapt the models to the context of the project and product characteristics. This means that the chosen model should be customized and tailored to fit the specific needs and requirements of the project. Each project and product is unique, and therefore, the software development model should be adjusted accordingly to ensure its effectiveness and efficiency in achieving the desired outcomes. This adaptation ensures that the model aligns with the project's goals, constraints, and resources, ultimately leading to successful software development.

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10.

Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?
- Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied.
- All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature.
- Testers are involved as soon as the first piece of code can be executed
- For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity
Correct Answer

A. For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity

Explanation

In any software development life cycle model, it is important to have a corresponding testing activity for every development activity. This ensures that the software is thoroughly tested at each stage of development, helping to identify and fix any issues or bugs early on. By having testing activities aligned with development activities, it promotes a systematic and structured approach to testing, improving the overall quality of the software.

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11.

For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?
- Correction of defects during the development phase.
- Planned enhancements to an existing operational system
- Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing
- Integrating functions during the development of a new system
Correct Answer

A. Planned enhancements to an existing operational system

Explanation

Maintenance testing is used for planned enhancements to an existing operational system. This type of testing is conducted to ensure that the changes or enhancements made to the system do not introduce any new defects or issues. It helps in verifying the stability and reliability of the system after the enhancements have been implemented.

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12.

Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same. B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved. C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.
- A, C and D and E are true; B is false.
- A, C and E are true; B and D are false.
- C and D are true; A, B and E are false.
- B and E are true; A, C and D are false
Correct Answer

A. C and D are true; A, B and E are false.

Explanation

Regression testing and acceptance testing are not the same. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. Therefore, options C and D are true. However, option A is false because regression testing and acceptance testing are different. Option B is false because regression tests do not necessarily show if all defects have been resolved. Option E is false because regression tests should not be performed in integration testing.

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13.

Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?
- Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system.
- Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.
- Component testing focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.
- Component testing is the responsibility of the technical testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.
Correct Answer

A. Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.

Explanation

Component testing and system testing have different focuses and derive their test cases from different sources. Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, while system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system. Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications, or use cases. This difference in test case derivation helps ensure that both types of testing are comprehensive and cover the necessary aspects of the software.

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14.

Which of the following are the main phases of a formal review?
- Initiation, status, preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.
- Planning, preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up.
- Planning, kick off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.
- Preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up, root cause analysis.
Correct Answer

A. Planning, kick off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.

Explanation

The main phases of a formal review are planning, kick off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, and follow up. This process starts with planning and setting up the review, followed by a kick-off meeting to inform participants about the objectives and expectations. Each participant then prepares individually for the review meeting. The review meeting itself takes place, during which any identified issues or errors are discussed and documented. After the meeting, there may be a need for rework to address the identified issues. Finally, a follow-up is conducted to ensure that the necessary actions are taken and any lessons learned are captured.

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15.

Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project?
- Informal review and Technical Review
- Management review and Inspection
- Inspection and Technical Review
- Walkthrough and Inspection
Correct Answer

A. Inspection and Technical Review

Explanation

Inspection and Technical Review are the best fitted options for reviewing safety critical components in a software project. Inspection is a formal review process where the code or design is examined in detail to identify defects and potential issues. Technical Review, on the other hand, involves a group of technical experts reviewing the software to ensure its compliance with safety standards and best practices. Both of these review types are well-suited for identifying and addressing safety concerns in critical components of the software.

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16.

Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE?
- Static analysis can be used as a preventive measure with appropriate process in place.
- Static analysis can find defects that are not easily found by dynamic testing
- Static analysis can result in cost savings by finding defects early
- Static analysis is a good way to force failures into the software.
Correct Answer

A. Static analysis is a good way to force failures into the software.

Explanation

Static analysis is not a good way to force failures into the software. Static analysis is a technique used to analyze code without executing it, and it is primarily used to find defects and vulnerabilities in software early in the development process. It can be used as a preventive measure by identifying potential issues before they manifest themselves in dynamic testing. Static analysis can find defects that may not be easily found through dynamic testing, and by doing so, it can result in cost savings by addressing these issues early.

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17.

One of the test goals for the project is to have 100% decision coverage. The following three tests have been executed for the control flow graph shown below. Test A covers path: A, B, D, E, G. Test B covers path: A, B, D, E, F, G. Test C covers path: A, C, F, C, F, C, F, G. Which of the following statements related to the decision coverage goal is correct?
- Decision D has not been tested completely
- 100% decision coverage has been achieved.
- Decision E has not been tested completely.
- Decision F has not been tested completely
Correct Answer

A. Decision D has not been tested completely

Explanation

The correct answer is that Decision D has not been tested completely. This is because Decision D is the decision point that determines whether the program flow goes to either E or F. Test A covers the path from A to G, but it does not cover the path from D to F. Test B covers the path from A to G, but it does not cover the path from D to E. Test C covers the path from A to G, but it does not cover the path from D to either E or F. Therefore, Decision D has not been tested completely.

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18.

A defect was found during testing. When the network got disconnected while receiving data from a server, the system crashed. The defect was fixed by correcting the code that checked the network availability during data transfer. The existing test cases covered 100% of all statements of the corresponding module. To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some new tests were designed and added to the test suite. What types of testing are mentioned above? A. Functional testing. B. Structural testing. C. Re-testing. D. Performance testing.
- A, B and D.
- A and C.
- A, B and C
- A, C and D
Correct Answer

A. A, B and C

Explanation

The given answer, A, B, and C, is correct because the explanation mentions that new tests were designed and added to the test suite to verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage. This indicates that both re-testing (C) and functional testing (A) were performed. Additionally, since the defect was fixed by correcting the code, it suggests that structural testing (B) was also conducted to identify and fix the issue in the code. Therefore, the types of testing mentioned in the explanation are A, B, and C.

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19.

Which of the following statements about the given state table is TRUE? Test case 1 2 3 4 5 Start state s1 s2 s2 s3 s3 Input Power On Power Off RC On RC Off Power Off Expected output TV Stand By TV Off TV Play TV Stand By TV Off Finish State S2 S1 S3 S2 S1
- The state table can be used to derive both valid and invalid transitions
- The state table represents all possible single transitions.
- The state table represents only some of all possible single transitions
- The state table represents sequential pairs of transitions
Correct Answer

A. The state table represents all possible single transitions.

Explanation

The given state table represents all possible single transitions. This means that for each combination of start state and input, there is a corresponding expected output and finish state. The table includes all possible valid transitions that can occur in the system.

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20.

Which of the following statements are true for the equivalence partitioning test technique? A. Divides possible inputs into classes that have the same behaviour. B. Uses both valid and invalid partitions. C. Makes use only of valid partitions. D. Must include at least two values from every equivalence partition. E. Can be used only for testing equivalence partitions inputs from a Graphical User Interface.
- A, B and E are true; C and D are false.
- A, C and D are true; B and E are false.
- A and E are true; B, C and D are false.
- A and B are true; C, D and E are false
Correct Answer

A. A and B are true; C, D and E are false

Explanation

Equivalence partitioning is a test technique that divides possible inputs into classes that have the same behavior. This helps to reduce the number of test cases needed to cover all possible inputs. It uses both valid and invalid partitions to test the system's behavior in different scenarios. It does not make use only of valid partitions. It is not necessary to include at least two values from every equivalence partition, as one value can represent the entire partition. Equivalence partitioning can be used for testing inputs from a Graphical User Interface, as well as other types of interfaces.

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21.

Which TWO of the following solutions below lists techniques that can all be categorized as Black Box design techniques?
- Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, state transition, and boundary value. AND Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case.
- Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, checklist based, statement coverage, use case. AND Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case.
- Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage, use case. AND Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case.
- Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage and boundary value AND Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case.
Correct Answer

A. Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, state transition, and boundary value. AND Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case.

Explanation

The techniques listed in the correct answer, Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, state transition, and boundary value, as well as Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case, can all be categorized as Black Box design techniques. Black Box design techniques focus on testing the functionality of a system without considering its internal structure. Equivalence Partitioning involves dividing input data into groups that are expected to produce similar output. Decision tables are used to model complex business rules. State transition testing involves testing the behavior of a system as it transitions between different states. Boundary value testing focuses on testing the boundaries of input values. Use case testing involves testing the system's functionality based on user scenarios.

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22.

An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot become negative, but it can be calculated to zero. The bonus is based on the duration of the employment. An employee can be employed for less than or equal to 2 years, more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5 to 10 years, or longer than 10 years. Depending on this period of employment, an employee will get either no bonus or a bonus of 10%, 25% or 35%. How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus?
- 3.
- 5
- 2
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 4

Explanation

The calculation of the bonus is based on the duration of employment, which can fall into four different categories: less than or equal to 2 years, more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5 to 10 years, or longer than 10 years. Each of these categories represents an equivalence partition, as the calculation of the bonus will be the same for all employees within each category. Therefore, four equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus.

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23.

Which of the following statements about the benefits of deriving test cases from use cases are most likely to be true? A. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for system and acceptance testing. B. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful only for automated testing. C. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for component testing. D. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for testing the interaction between different components of the system.
- A and D are true; B and C are false
- A is true; B, C and D are false
- A and B are true; C and D are false.
- C is true; A, B and D are false.
Correct Answer

A. A and D are true; B and C are false

Explanation

Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for system and acceptance testing because use cases describe the interactions between the system and its users, which can be translated into test cases to verify the system's functionality. Additionally, deriving test cases from use cases can also help in testing the interaction between different components of the system, as use cases often involve multiple components working together. Therefore, option A and D are true, while options B and C are false.

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24.

Which of the below would be the best basis for fault attack testing?
- Experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about software failures.
- Risk analysis performed at the beginning of the project.
- Use Cases derived from the business flows by domain experts.
- Expected results from comparison with an existing system.
Correct Answer

A. Experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about software failures.

Explanation

Experience, defect and failure data, and knowledge about software failures would be the best basis for fault attack testing because they provide valuable insights into past issues and vulnerabilities in the software. By analyzing previous defects and failures, testers can identify potential weaknesses and design targeted attacks to expose and fix them. This approach leverages real-world scenarios and actual data to improve the effectiveness of fault attack testing, making it a reliable and informed method for identifying and addressing software faults.

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25.

Which of the following would be the best test approach when there are poor specifications and time pressures?
- Use Case Testing
- Condition Coverage
- Exploratory Testing.
- Path Testing
Correct Answer

A. Exploratory Testing.

Explanation

Exploratory testing would be the best test approach when there are poor specifications and time pressures. This is because exploratory testing is a flexible and adaptive approach that allows testers to explore the system, learn about it, and design and execute tests simultaneously. It does not rely heavily on predefined test cases or specifications, making it suitable for situations where there is a lack of clear requirements. Additionally, exploratory testing can be performed in a time-efficient manner, as it focuses on quick feedback and rapid learning.

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26.

Which one of the following techniques is structure-based?
- Decision testing
- Boundary value analysis.
- Equivalence partitioning.
- State transition testing.
Correct Answer

A. Decision testing

Explanation

Decision testing is a structure-based technique that focuses on testing the logical decisions within the code. It involves identifying all possible decision points and designing test cases to cover different outcomes of these decisions. This technique helps ensure that all possible paths and conditions within the code are tested, increasing the overall test coverage.

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27.

You have started specification-based testing of a program. It calculates the greatest common divisor (GCD) of two integers (A and B) greater than zero. calcGCD (A, B); The following test cases (TC) have been specified. TC A B 1 1 1 2 INT_MAX INT_MAX 3 1 0 4 0 1 5 INT_MAX+1 1 6 1 INT_MAX+1 INT_MAX: largest Integer Which test technique has been applied in order to determine test cases 1 through 6?
- Boundary value analysis
- State transition testing
- Equivalence partitioning
- Decision table testing
Correct Answer

A. Boundary value analysis

Explanation

Boundary value analysis has been applied in order to determine test cases 1 through 6. Boundary value analysis involves selecting test cases that are on or near the boundaries of input domains. In this case, the boundaries are determined by the values of A and B. Test cases 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 cover different boundary conditions such as minimum and maximum values, as well as values just outside the range of valid inputs. This technique helps to identify potential issues that may occur at the boundaries of the input domain.

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1
28.

Consider the following state transition diagram and test case table: Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. The test case table exercises the shortest number of transitions. B. The test case gives only the valid state transitions. C. The test case gives only the invalid state transitions. D. The test case exercises the longest number of transitions. TC 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Start Date S1 S1 S2 S2 S3 S3 S3 Input Press Power On Press Power On Press RC On Press RC On Press RC OFF Press Power OFF Press RC OFF Expected Output TV Stand By TV Stand By TV Play TV Play TV Stand By TV OFF TV Stand By Next state S2 S2 S3 S3 S2 S1 S2 Input Press Power Off Press RC On Press Power Off Press RC Off Press RC On Press Power On Press Power Off Expected Output TV Off TV Play TV Off TV Stand By TV Play TV Stand By TV Off Finish state S1 S3 S1 S2 S3 S2 S1
- Only A is true; B, C and D are false
- Only B is true; A, C and D are false.
- A and D are true; B, C are false.
- Only C is true; A, B and D are false
Correct Answer

A. Only B is true; A, C and D are false.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only B is true; A, C and D are false." This is because the test case table does not exercise the shortest number of transitions (A is false), it includes both valid and invalid state transitions (B is true), it does not exercise the longest number of transitions (D is false), and it does not give only the invalid state transitions (C is false).

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29.

Which of the following best describes the task partition between test manager and tester?
- The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and controls to be used.
- The test manager plans, organizes and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies, automates and executes tests.
- The test manager plans, monitors and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests.
- The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.
Correct Answer

A. The test manager plans, organizes and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies, automates and executes tests.

Explanation

The test manager is responsible for planning, organizing, and controlling the testing activities. This includes deciding on the testing standards to be followed. On the other hand, the tester's role is to specify, automate, and execute tests. This means that they are responsible for determining the specific tests that need to be conducted, as well as automating and executing those tests.

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30.

Which of the following can be categorized as product risks?
- Low quality of requirements, design, code and tests.
- Political problems and delays in especially complex areas in the product.
- Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics. Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics.
- Problems in defining the right requirements, potential failure areas in the software or system.
Correct Answer

A. Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics. Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics." This is because these factors can all be categorized as product risks. Error-prone areas refer to parts of the product that are more likely to contain errors or bugs. Potential harm to the user means that there is a possibility of the product causing harm or injury to the user. Poor product characteristics refer to aspects of the product that are not up to standard or do not meet the desired quality or performance criteria.

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31.

Which of the following are typical test exit criteria?
- Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction and residual risks.
- Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, degree of tester independence and product completeness.
- Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, time to market and product completeness, availability of testable code.
- Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence, thoroughness measures and test cost
Correct Answer

A. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction and residual risks.

Explanation

The correct answer includes criteria such as thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction, and residual risks. These criteria are important for determining when testing can be considered complete and when the software is ready for release. Thoroughness and reliability measures ensure that the testing process has been comprehensive and that the software meets the required quality standards. Test cost and schedule are important considerations for resource allocation and project planning. The state of defect correction and residual risks indicate the level of remaining issues that need to be addressed before release.

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32.

As a Test Manager you have the following requirements to be tested: Requirements to test: R1 - Process Anomalies – High Complexity R2 - Remote Services – Medium Complexity R3 – Synchronization – Medium Complexity R4 – Confirmation – Medium Complexity R5 - Process closures – Low Complexity R6 – Issues – Low Complexity R7 - Financial Data – Low Complexity R8 - Diagram Data – Low Complexity R9 - Changes on user profile – Medium Complexity Requirements logical dependencies (A -> B means that B is dependent on A): How would you structure the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies?
- R4 > R5 > R1 > R2 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9.
- R1 > R2 > R3 > R4 > R5 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9.
- R1 > R2 > R4 > R5 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9.
- R1 > R2 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R4 > R5 > R6 > R9.
Correct Answer

A. R1 > R2 > R4 > R5 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9.

Explanation

The correct answer is R1 > R2 > R4 > R5 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9. This sequence follows the logical dependencies between the requirements. R1 is the highest priority as it has high complexity and is not dependent on any other requirement. R2 is the next priority as it has medium complexity and is only dependent on R1. R4 is then tested as it is dependent on R2. This pattern continues, with each requirement being tested in order of its complexity and dependencies.

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33.

What is the benefit of independent testing?
- More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.
- Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers.
- Independent testers do not need extra education and training.
- Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.
Correct Answer

A. Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers.

Explanation

Independent testing is beneficial because independent testers tend to be unbiased and can provide a fresh perspective on the software being tested. They are not involved in the development process and can approach the testing with a different mindset, which increases the chances of finding defects that may have been overlooked by the developers. This helps in improving the overall quality of the software by identifying issues that may have been missed during the development phase.

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34.

Which of the following would be categorized as project risks?
- Skill and staff shortages.
- Poor software characteristics.
- Failure-prone software delivered.
- Possible reliability defect (bug).
Correct Answer

A. Skill and staff shortages.

Explanation

Skill and staff shortages can be categorized as project risks because they can impact the successful completion of a project. If a project team lacks the necessary skills or experiences, it can lead to delays, errors, and poor quality work. Similarly, if there is a shortage of staff, it can result in increased workloads, decreased productivity, and increased chances of failure. Therefore, skill and staff shortages pose risks to the timely and successful completion of a project.

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35.

As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in your report?
- The number of test cases using Black Box techniques
- A summary of the major testing activities, events and its status in respect of meeting goals
- Overall evaluation of each development work item
- Training taken by members of the test team to support the test effort
Correct Answer

A. A summary of the major testing activities, events and its status in respect of meeting goals

Explanation

In the test summary report, it is important to include a summary of the major testing activities, events, and their status in relation to meeting goals. This information provides an overview of the progress and effectiveness of the testing process. It helps stakeholders understand the testing activities that have taken place and whether they have achieved the desired objectives. This summary allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the testing effort and helps identify any areas that may require further attention or improvement. Including this information in the test summary report ensures transparency and facilitates effective decision-making.

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36.

You are a tester in a safety-critical software development project. During execution of a test, you find out that one of your expected results was not achieved. You write an incident report about it. What do you consider to be the most important information to include according to the IEEE Std. 829?
- Impact, incident description, date and time, your name.
- Unique id for the report, special requirements needed.
- Transmitted items, your name and you’re feeling about the defect source.
- Incident description, environment, expected results.
Correct Answer

A. Impact, incident description, date and time, your name.

Explanation

According to the IEEE Std. 829, the most important information to include in an incident report in a safety-critical software development project is the impact of the incident, a detailed description of the incident, the date and time it occurred, and the name of the tester who discovered it. This information is crucial for accurately documenting and addressing the incident, allowing for effective analysis, investigation, and resolution of the issue.

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37.

From the list below, select the recommended principles for introducing a chosen test tool in an organization? 1. Roll the tool out to the entire organization at the same time. 2. Start with a pilot project. 3. Adapt and improve processes to fit the use of the tool. 4. Provide training and coaching for new users. 5. Let each team decide their own standard ways of using the tool. 6. Monitor that costs do not exceed initial acquisition cost. 7. Gather lessons learned from all teams.
- 1, 2, 3, 5.
- 1, 4, 6, 7.
- 2, 3, 4, 7.
- 3, 4, 5, 6.
Correct Answer

A. 2, 3, 4, 7.

Explanation

The recommended principles for introducing a chosen test tool in an organization are to start with a pilot project, adapt and improve processes to fit the use of the tool, provide training and coaching for new users, and gather lessons learned from all teams. This approach allows for a gradual implementation of the tool, ensuring that it is well-integrated into existing processes and that users receive the necessary support and training. Gathering lessons learned from all teams helps in identifying areas for improvement and ensuring that the tool is effectively utilized.

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38.

Which one of the following best describes a characteristic of a keyworddriven test execution tool?
- A table with test input data, action words, and expected results, controls execution of the system under test.
- Actions of testers recorded in a script that is rerun several times.
- Actions of testers recorded in a script that is run with several sets of test input data.
- The ability to log test results and compare them against the expected results, stored in a text file.
Correct Answer

A. A table with test input data, action words, and expected results, controls execution of the system under test.

Explanation

A keyword-driven test execution tool uses a table with test input data, action words, and expected results to control the execution of the system under test. This table allows testers to specify the actions they want to perform and the expected outcomes, making it easier to create and maintain test scripts. By using this approach, testers can easily modify and reuse test cases by simply changing the values in the table, improving test efficiency and maintainability.

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39.

Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Pilot Project for tool evaluation?
- To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices.
- To determine use, management, storage, and maintenance of the tool and test assets
- To assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
- To reduce the defect rate in the Pilot Project.
Correct Answer

A. To reduce the defect rate in the Pilot Project.

Explanation

The goal of a Pilot Project for tool evaluation is to assess whether the benefits will be achieved at a reasonable cost, evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices, and determine the use, management, storage, and maintenance of the tool and test assets. However, reducing the defect rate in the Pilot Project is not a specific goal of tool evaluation.

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40.

Below is a list of test efficiency improvement goals a software development and test organization would like to achieve. Which of these goals would best be supported by a test management tool?
- To build traceability between requirements, tests, and bugs.
- To optimize the ability of tests to identify failures
- To resolve defects faster
- To automate selection of test cases for execution.
Correct Answer

A. To build traceability between requirements, tests, and bugs.

Explanation

A test management tool can help in building traceability between requirements, tests, and bugs by providing a centralized platform to track and link these entities. It allows the organization to easily map requirements to test cases and track the bugs identified during testing. This traceability helps in ensuring that all requirements are covered by tests and any issues or defects can be easily traced back to the corresponding requirements or test cases. This improves overall test efficiency and helps in maintaining a comprehensive and organized testing process.

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Quiz Edited by
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Jan 29, 2014

Quiz Created by
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ISTQB Sample Mock Test 1

Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?

Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis and Design?

Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. Which is MOST likely a failure?

Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?

Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?

What is important to do when working with software development models?

Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?

For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?

Which of the following are the main phases of a formal review?

Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project?

Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE?

Which of the following statements about the given state table is TRUE? Test case 1 2 3 4 5 Start state s1 s2 s2 s3 s3 Input Power On Power Off RC On RC Off Power Off Expected output TV Stand By TV Off TV Play TV Stand By TV Off Finish State S2 S1 S3 S2 S1

Which TWO of the following solutions below lists techniques that can all be categorized as Black Box design techniques?

Which of the below would be the best basis for fault attack testing?

Which of the following would be the best test approach when there are poor specifications and time pressures?

Which one of the following techniques is structure-based?

Which of the following best describes the task partition between test manager and tester?

Which of the following can be categorized as product risks?

Which of the following are typical test exit criteria?

What is the benefit of independent testing?

Which of the following would be categorized as project risks?

As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in your report?

Which one of the following best describes a characteristic of a keyworddriven test execution tool?

Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Pilot Project for tool evaluation?

Below is a list of test efficiency improvement goals a software development and test organization would like to achieve. Which of these goals would best be supported by a test management tool?