3d1x5 Comprehensive Ure Test

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  • 1/353 Questions

    What characteristic of frequency does a radar target moving towards the radar exhibit?

    • A lower frequency than the original broadcast
    • A higher frequency than the original broadcast
    • No apparent frequency change than the original broadcast
    • Oscillating lower and higher frequency changes in respect to the original broadcast
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About This Quiz


For use by 3D1X5 personnel for the purpose of CDC EOC testing.

3d1x5 Comprehensive Ure Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What radar subassembly allows the radar system to transmit and receive from the same antenna?

    • Synchronizer

    • Transmitter

    • Modulator

    • Duplexer

    Correct Answer
    A. Duplexer
    Explanation
    A duplexer is a radar subassembly that allows the radar system to transmit and receive from the same antenna. It is responsible for separating the transmitted and received signals, allowing them to be processed independently. This is important because it allows the radar system to alternate between transmitting and receiving signals without the need for separate antennas. By using a duplexer, the radar system can save space, reduce costs, and improve overall efficiency.

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  • 3. 

    An antenna is said to be reciprocal if

    • It is nonlinear

    • It transmits patterns

    • It contains ferrite devices

    • Its transmit and receive patterns are identical

    Correct Answer
    A. Its transmit and receive patterns are identical
    Explanation
    A reciprocal antenna is one that exhibits the same transmit and receive patterns. This means that the antenna behaves the same way when transmitting a signal as it does when receiving a signal. In other words, the antenna has the same radiation pattern and characteristics regardless of whether it is transmitting or receiving. This is an important property for many practical applications, as it allows for efficient and reliable communication. None of the other options (nonlinearity, transmission of patterns, or ferrite devices) are directly related to the reciprocity of an antenna.

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  • 4. 

    Which feedhorn is used only for receiving?

    • Active

    • Linear

    • Passive

    • Circular

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive
    Explanation
    Passive feedhorns are used only for receiving signals. Unlike active feedhorns, which can both transmit and receive signals, passive feedhorns are designed solely for the purpose of receiving signals. They do not have any active components or electronics that enable them to transmit signals. Therefore, the correct answer is "Passive".

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  • 5. 

    The shape of the beam of radar energy and its antenna pattern depend on the radar’s

    • Gain

    • Location

    • Purpose

    • Power

    Correct Answer
    A. Purpose
    Explanation
    The shape of the beam of radar energy and its antenna pattern depend on the radar's purpose. Different radar systems are designed for different purposes, such as air traffic control, weather monitoring, or military surveillance. Each purpose requires a specific beam shape and antenna pattern to achieve optimal performance. For example, a radar system used for air traffic control needs a narrow beam and a focused antenna pattern to accurately track aircraft in a specific area. Therefore, the purpose of the radar system determines the shape of the beam and antenna pattern.

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  • 6. 

    What causes delayed, but separate, pulses?

    • Simultaneous reception of pulse-type information

    • Near-simultaneous reception of pulse-type information

    • Electromagnetic (EM) waves reach the receiving antenna by direct paths

    • EM waves reach the receiving antenna by indirect paths

    Correct Answer
    A. Near-simultaneous reception of pulse-type information
    Explanation
    Near-simultaneous reception of pulse-type information causes delayed, but separate, pulses. This means that the pulses are received at slightly different times, resulting in a delay between them. However, they are still separate and distinct pulses, not overlapping or simultaneous. This could occur, for example, when multiple signals are transmitted from different sources and received by the same antenna, causing a slight delay in the reception of each pulse.

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  • 7. 

    An X pulse is present in a selective identification feature code train when

    • A Mode 4 reply is being received

    • The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile

    • The aircraft is declaring a military emergency

    • It is requested by the radar operator to identify the aircraft position

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile
    Explanation
    The presence of an X pulse in a selective identification feature code train indicates that the aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile. This is because the X pulse is specifically associated with pilotless drones or missiles, and it serves as a way to identify their position or presence. The other options mentioned, such as receiving a Mode 4 reply, declaring a military emergency, or being requested by the radar operator, do not directly correspond to the presence of an X pulse.

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  • 8. 

    Which selective identification feature special response explains a 7500 reply?

    • Communication failure

    • Military emergency

    • Engine failure

    • Hijacking

    Correct Answer
    A. Hijacking
    Explanation
    The special response that explains a 7500 reply is hijacking. When an aircraft transmits the code "7500" to air traffic control, it indicates that the aircraft has been hijacked or is under the threat of hijacking. This code is part of the selective identification feature used in aviation communication systems to quickly and discreetly alert authorities of a hijacking situation.

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  • 9. 

    Which statement describes a security feature of using fiber optic cable?

    • Easy to encrypt data

    • Low signal attenuation

    • Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticed

    • Fiber optic cables are considerably smaller than metallic cable

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticed
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cables are virtually impossible to tap unnoticed because they do not emit any electromagnetic signals that can be intercepted. Unlike metallic cables, which can be tapped by attaching a device to the cable and intercepting the electrical signals, fiber optic cables use light pulses to transmit data, making it extremely difficult for someone to tap into the cable without being detected.

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  • 10. 

    What occurs because of imperfections in an optical fiber’s basic structure?

    • Absorption

    • Scattering

    • Reflection

    • Dispersion

    Correct Answer
    A. Scattering
    Explanation
    Imperfections in an optical fiber's basic structure cause scattering. Scattering refers to the phenomenon where light waves are deflected and dispersed in different directions due to variations in the refractive index of the fiber. These imperfections can be in the form of impurities, irregularities in the fiber's core or cladding, or structural defects. Scattering leads to the loss of signal strength and can result in reduced transmission quality and distance in optical communication systems.

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  • 11. 

    Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions?

    • Circuit jacks

    • Rotary switch

    • Range pushbutton

    • Touch-hold pushbutton

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotary switch
    Explanation
    The rotary switch is the feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter that allows you to select various measurement functions. By turning the rotary switch, you can choose the specific measurement function you want to use, such as voltage, current, resistance, or continuity. This feature provides convenience and ease of use, allowing you to quickly switch between different measurement options without the need for additional buttons or settings.

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  • 12. 

    How many probes are normally used for an earth ground tester?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    An earth ground tester typically uses 3 probes. These probes are used to measure the resistance between the grounding system and the earth, ensuring that the electrical system is properly grounded. By using 3 probes, the tester can obtain more accurate measurements and detect any potential issues with the grounding system.

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  • 13. 

    Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?

    • Verifying transmitter frequencies

    • Troubleshooting receivers

    • Checking antenna systems

    • Aligning galvanometers

    Correct Answer
    A. Aligning galvanometers
    Explanation
    Aligning galvanometers is not an application of a radio frequency generator. A radio frequency generator is used for various purposes related to radio frequencies, such as verifying transmitter frequencies, troubleshooting receivers, and checking antenna systems. However, aligning galvanometers is not directly related to radio frequencies but rather involves calibrating and adjusting the sensitivity of galvanometers, which are instruments used to measure small electrical currents.

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  • 14. 

    If someone says, “we doubled our transmitter power;” how much is the gain in dB?

    • 3 dB

    • 6 dB

    • 9 dB

    • 12 dB

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 dB
    Explanation
    When someone says "we doubled our transmitter power," it means that the power has been increased by a factor of 2. In terms of decibels (dB), a doubling of power corresponds to an increase of 3 dB. This is because the dB scale is logarithmic, and a 3 dB increase represents a doubling of power. Therefore, the gain in dB when the transmitter power is doubled is 3 dB.

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  • 15. 

    In the AN/GPN–30 digital airport surveillance radar (DASR), what prevents you, the technician from having to reload software in the event of a power failure for up to 20 minutes?

    • Radar interference suppressor (RIS)

    • Uninterruptable power supply (UPS)

    • Facility monitoring and control (FMAC)

    • Upconverter

    Correct Answer
    A. Uninterruptable power supply (UPS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Uninterruptable power supply (UPS). A UPS is a device that provides emergency power to a load when the input power source fails. In the case of the AN/GPN-30 DASR, the UPS prevents the need to reload software in the event of a power failure for up to 20 minutes by supplying continuous power to the radar system. This ensures that the radar remains operational and prevents any interruption or loss of data during a power outage.

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  • 16. 

    The airborne unit that responds to monopulse secondary surveillance radar (MSSR) interrogation pulses is the

    • Transponder

    • Transmitter

    • Receiver

    • Tracker

    Correct Answer
    A. Transponder
    Explanation
    A transponder is a device that receives interrogation pulses from a monopulse secondary surveillance radar (MSSR) and responds by transmitting a specific code or signal. This allows the radar system to track and identify the airborne unit. The transponder acts as a transmitter and receiver, receiving the radar signals and transmitting the response signal. Therefore, the correct answer is transponder.

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  • 17. 

    What is used to check monopulse beacon test set (MBTS) performance?

    • Test set scope

    • Reference source module

    • Built in test (BIT) module

    • Process control and communications module

    Correct Answer
    A. Built in test (BIT) module
    Explanation
    The built-in test (BIT) module is used to check the performance of the monopulse beacon test set (MBTS). This module is integrated into the test set and is designed to perform self-diagnostic tests and provide feedback on the overall functionality and health of the MBTS. By utilizing the BIT module, technicians can quickly and efficiently assess the performance of the test set and identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may need to be addressed.

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  • 18. 

    What is the name of the operating system Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) is built on?

    • UNIX

    • Windows

    • MS-DOS

    • Apple OS

    Correct Answer
    A. UNIX
    Explanation
    STARS, the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System, is built on the UNIX operating system. UNIX is a powerful and versatile operating system known for its stability and security. It is commonly used in enterprise environments and is well-suited for complex systems like air traffic control. By being built on UNIX, STARS benefits from the reliability and scalability of this operating system, ensuring efficient and secure operations in managing terminal airspace.

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  • 19. 

    UNIX was originally developed to improve the performance of

    • The NASA control system

    • A compact disk player

    • A computer game

    • A typewriter

    Correct Answer
    A. A computer game
    Explanation
    UNIX was originally developed in the 1960s by a group of AT&T employees at Bell Labs for the purpose of playing a computer game called Space Travel. The game simulated the movement of a spaceship in a 3D environment and required a powerful operating system to handle the complex calculations and graphics. UNIX was designed to provide the necessary performance and flexibility for running the game efficiently. Over time, UNIX evolved into a widely used operating system for various applications beyond gaming.

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  • 20. 

    A good example of open source software is

    • Vista

    • UNIX

    • MS-DOS

    • Windows

    Correct Answer
    A. UNIX
    Explanation
    UNIX is a good example of open source software because it is an operating system that is freely available for anyone to use, modify, and distribute. It was developed collaboratively by a community of programmers who shared their source code, allowing others to contribute improvements and innovations. This open approach promotes transparency, flexibility, and customization, making UNIX a popular choice for developers and organizations seeking a reliable and adaptable operating system.

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  • 21. 

    UNIX is composed of what two parts?

    • The kernel and the shell

    • The kernel and the OS

    • The GUI and the shell

    • Windows and DOS

    Correct Answer
    A. The kernel and the shell
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the kernel and the shell. UNIX is an operating system that is composed of two main parts: the kernel and the shell. The kernel is the core component of the operating system that manages the system's resources and handles low-level tasks such as memory management and process scheduling. The shell, on the other hand, is the interface between the user and the kernel, allowing users to interact with the system by executing commands and managing files and processes.

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  • 22. 

    For how many nautical miles does the AN/TPS–75 radar set provides information on aircraft?

    • 60

    • 120

    • 240

    • 360

    Correct Answer
    A. 240
    Explanation
    The AN/TPS-75 radar set provides information on aircraft for a distance of 240 nautical miles.

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  • 23. 

    Which term describes the blocking of all or a portion of the radar beam by an obstacle?

    • Blocking

    • Jamming

    • Screening

    • Interference

    Correct Answer
    A. Screening
    Explanation
    Screening refers to the blocking of all or a portion of the radar beam by an obstacle. This can occur when an obstacle obstructs the path of the radar signal, preventing it from reaching its intended target. It is different from jamming, which involves intentionally interfering with the radar signal, and interference, which refers to the unwanted signals that disrupt the radar system. Therefore, screening is the most appropriate term to describe the blocking of the radar beam by an obstacle.

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  • 24. 

    The AN/TPS-75 waveguide is pressurized and dehydrated to

    • Keep out moisture and prevent arcing

    • Provide cooling and keep out moisture

    • Prevent arcing and enable high-voltage diplexing

    • Provide cooling and enable high-voltage diplexing

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep out moisture and prevent arcing
    Explanation
    The AN/TPS-75 waveguide is pressurized and dehydrated to keep out moisture and prevent arcing. Pressurizing the waveguide helps to create a barrier that prevents moisture from entering the system, which is important as moisture can cause damage to the equipment and affect its performance. Additionally, dehydrating the waveguide removes any existing moisture, further ensuring that the system remains dry. Preventing arcing is also crucial as it can cause electrical discharge and damage the equipment. By keeping out moisture and preventing arcing, the pressurization and dehydration of the waveguide contribute to the overall reliability and longevity of the AN/TPS-75 system.

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  • 25. 

    What type of amplifiers are used on the AN/TPS-75 antenna to provide an initial 22 dB gain to the radio frequency (RF) echoes?

    • Pulsed traveling wave tubes (TWT)

    • Gaussian amplifiers

    • Parametric amplifiers

    • Low-noise amplifiers (LNA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Low-noise amplifiers (LNA)
    Explanation
    Low-noise amplifiers (LNA) are used on the AN/TPS-75 antenna to provide an initial 22 dB gain to the radio frequency (RF) echoes. LNAs are specifically designed to amplify weak signals while introducing minimal noise into the system. This is crucial in radar systems like AN/TPS-75, where the goal is to detect and amplify weak RF echoes. LNAs help improve the signal-to-noise ratio, allowing for better detection and analysis of the radar signals.

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  • 26. 

    The sensitivity time control (STC) in the AN/TPS75 radar functions to

    • Reduce false alarms due to short-range clutter

    • Increase false alarms due to short-range clutter

    • Reduce false alarms due to long-range clutter

    • Increase false alarms due to long-range clutter

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce false alarms due to short-range clutter
    Explanation
    The sensitivity time control (STC) in the AN/TPS-75 radar functions to reduce false alarms due to short-range clutter. This means that the STC adjusts the sensitivity of the radar based on the range of the target. By reducing the sensitivity for short-range clutter, the radar is able to filter out unwanted signals and minimize false alarms. This helps to improve the accuracy and reliability of the radar system in detecting and tracking real targets.

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  • 27. 

    In the AN/TPS–75, what unit is located in A1, the upper half of the modular control equipment interface group (MIG)?

    • Interrogator unit

    • Modem assembly

    • MCE interface electronics (MIE)

    • Radar electro-optical converter (REOC)

    Correct Answer
    A. MCE interface electronics (MIE)
    Explanation
    The MCE interface electronics (MIE) is located in A1, the upper half of the modular control equipment interface group (MIG) in the AN/TPS-75.

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  • 28. 

    When a pulse of radio frequency energy is transmitted, it travels at

    • The speed of sound

    • 1/2 the speed of light

    • The speed of light

    • 1/2 the speed of sound

    Correct Answer
    A. The speed of light
    Explanation
    When a pulse of radio frequency energy is transmitted, it travels at the speed of light. This is because radio frequency energy is a form of electromagnetic radiation, which includes light. Electromagnetic radiation travels through space in the form of waves, and all forms of electromagnetic radiation, including radio waves, travel at the same speed, which is approximately 3 x 10^8 meters per second, the speed of light.

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  • 29. 

    Which radar subassembly ensures all circuits connected with the radar operate in a definite timed relationship?

    • Synchronizer

    • Transmitter

    • Modulator

    • Duplexer

    Correct Answer
    A. Synchronizer
    Explanation
    A synchronizer is a radar subassembly that ensures all circuits connected with the radar operate in a definite timed relationship. It coordinates the timing of various components within the radar system, allowing them to work together seamlessly. This synchronization is crucial for accurate and reliable radar operation, as it ensures that signals are transmitted, received, and processed at the correct times. Without a synchronizer, the radar system would not be able to function properly and may result in inaccurate or unreliable data.

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  • 30. 

    In which scan radar does the antenna rotate on an azimuth sweep, while the elevation angle rises slowly from 0° to 90°?

    • Palmer

    • Helical

    • Palmer/Raster

    • Track-While

    Correct Answer
    A. Helical
    Explanation
    In a helical scan radar, the antenna rotates on an azimuth sweep while the elevation angle rises slowly from 0° to 90°. This type of radar scan allows for a continuous and smooth coverage of the airspace, as the antenna rotates in a helical pattern. This scan pattern is particularly useful for surveillance and tracking purposes, as it provides a comprehensive view of the surrounding airspace. The other options, Palmer, Palmer/Raster, and Track-While, do not describe the specific scan pattern mentioned in the question.

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  • 31. 

    When you make a resistance measurement, how do you electrically isolate a resistor from the circuit?

    • Remove power from the circuit

    • Short both sides of the resistor

    • Insulate both sides of the resistor

    • Desolder one side of the resistor

    Correct Answer
    A. Desolder one side of the resistor
    Explanation
    To electrically isolate a resistor from the circuit during a resistance measurement, one can desolder one side of the resistor. By desoldering one side, the resistor is physically disconnected from the circuit, preventing any electrical connection and ensuring accurate resistance measurement. This allows the resistance of the resistor to be measured without any interference from the rest of the circuit.

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  • 32. 

    In the AN/GPN–22 precision approach radar (PAR), the non-coherent mode of operation is used to

    • Cancel slow moving targets

    • Cancel the presence of rain only

    • Detect the outline of weather only

    • Detect a target in the presence of moving clutter such as rain

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect a target in the presence of moving clutter such as rain
    Explanation
    The non-coherent mode of operation in the AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR) is used to detect a target in the presence of moving clutter such as rain. Non-coherent radar systems are able to detect targets that are surrounded by strong interference or clutter, such as rain, by using a different processing technique than coherent radar systems. This allows the PAR to distinguish between the desired target and the unwanted clutter, enabling it to accurately detect and track the target in adverse weather conditions.

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  • 33. 

    Radio frequency (RF) to the antenna makes the transition from fixed to rotating waveguide within the

    • Rotary joint

    • Slip rings

    • Polarizers

    • Feedhorn

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotary joint
    Explanation
    A rotary joint is a device that allows the transfer of radio frequency (RF) signals from a stationary to a rotating part of a system, such as in a rotating antenna. It provides a seamless transition from a fixed waveguide to a rotating waveguide, allowing the RF signals to be transmitted without interruption as the antenna rotates. The other options, slip rings, polarizers, and feedhorn, are not specifically designed for this purpose and do not provide the necessary transition from fixed to rotating waveguide.

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  • 34. 

    What two types of polarization are available in the AN/GPN–30 primary surveillance radar (PSR)?

    • High and low

    • Input and output

    • Circular and linear

    • Positive and negative

    Correct Answer
    A. Circular and linear
    Explanation
    The AN/GPN-30 primary surveillance radar (PSR) offers two types of polarization: circular and linear. Circular polarization refers to the rotation of the electric field vector in a circular pattern, while linear polarization refers to the electric field vector oscillating in a straight line. These two types of polarization allow the radar to transmit and receive signals in different ways, enhancing its ability to detect and track targets.

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  • 35. 

    What is the purpose of the truck stabilizers when you mount the AN/TPS–75 antenna in the back of a truck?

    • Course level the truck bed

    • Fine level the antenna pallet

    • Eliminate radiation hazard below truck bed

    • Eliminate the effects of the truck suspension system

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminate the effects of the truck suspension system
    Explanation
    The purpose of the truck stabilizers when mounting the AN/TPS-75 antenna in the back of a truck is to eliminate the effects of the truck suspension system. This is important because the antenna requires a stable platform in order to function properly. The truck stabilizers help to minimize vibrations and movements caused by the truck's suspension, ensuring that the antenna remains steady and accurate in its operation.

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  • 36. 

    The AN/TPS-75 north mark alignment insures that your antenna is oriented to within

    • ± .25 degrees of north

    • ± .5 degrees of north

    • ± 1 degree of north

    • ± 2 degrees of north

    Correct Answer
    A. ± 1 degree of north
    Explanation
    The AN/TPS-75 north mark alignment ensures that the antenna is oriented to within ± 1 degree of north. This means that the antenna will be positioned very close to the true north direction, with an acceptable margin of error of only 1 degree. This level of accuracy is important for the proper functioning of the AN/TPS-75 system, as it relies on precise alignment to effectively transmit and receive signals.

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  • 37. 

    What are the pulse repetition time (PRT) modes for the AN/TPS-75 radar?

    • Fixed, staggered, or burst

    • Fixed, staggered, or pulsed

    • Selected, controlled, or burst

    • Selected, controlled, or pulsed

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed, staggered, or burst
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fixed, staggered, or burst. The AN/TPS-75 radar has three pulse repetition time (PRT) modes: fixed, staggered, and burst. In the fixed mode, the PRT remains constant throughout the radar operation. In the staggered mode, the PRT varies in a predetermined pattern to avoid interference from other radars. In the burst mode, the radar emits a series of pulses closely spaced together followed by a period of silence. These different PRT modes allow the radar to adapt to different operational requirements and optimize its performance in various scenarios.

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  • 38. 

    The final output of the AN/TPS-75 transmitter’s driver circuit is a

    • +320 VAC carrier

    • +28 volt video pulse

    • 2.7 kW peak radio frequency (RF) PULSE

    • -117 kV modulating pulse

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.7 kW peak radio frequency (RF) PULSE
    Explanation
    The final output of the AN/TPS-75 transmitter's driver circuit is a 2.7 kW peak radio frequency (RF) pulse. This means that the circuit generates a pulse of radio frequency signal with a peak power of 2.7 kW. This pulse is likely used for transmitting data or communication signals over long distances. The other options, such as the +320 VAC carrier, +28 volt video pulse, and -117 kV modulating pulse, are not the final output of the driver circuit in this case.

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  • 39. 

    The focus coil on the AN/TPS-75 twystron is positioned around the tube’s

    • Grid

    • Plate

    • Body

    • Cathode

    Correct Answer
    A. Body
    Explanation
    The focus coil on the AN/TPS-75 twystron is positioned around the tube's body. The focus coil is responsible for controlling the electron beam and ensuring that it is focused properly. By positioning the focus coil around the body of the tube, it can have a direct influence on the electron beam as it travels through the tube. This allows for precise control over the focus of the beam, resulting in improved performance and accuracy of the AN/TPS-75 twystron.

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  • 40. 

    What is used to dehydrate the AN/TPS-75 waveguide air?

    • Paper filter

    • Silica sponge

    • Fiberglass filter

    • Desiccant canister

    Correct Answer
    A. Desiccant canister
    Explanation
    A desiccant canister is used to dehydrate the AN/TPS-75 waveguide air. Desiccants are substances that have a high affinity for water molecules and are used to remove moisture from the air. They work by adsorbing the water vapor, reducing the humidity and preventing condensation. A desiccant canister is a container filled with desiccant material, such as silica gel or molecular sieves, which absorbs the moisture from the air passing through the waveguide. This helps to maintain the integrity and performance of the waveguide system by preventing the formation of water droplets that could interfere with the transmission of signals.

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  • 41. 

    In the AN/TPS-75 radar target data post processing function, when is data specifying the parameters of each IFF/SIF listening period processed?

    • At time-zero (T0)

    • At end-of-range (EOR)

    • Each antenna scan at 0°

    • Each antenna scan at 180°

    Correct Answer
    A. At time-zero (T0)
    Explanation
    In the AN/TPS-75 radar target data post processing function, the data specifying the parameters of each IFF/SIF listening period is processed at time-zero (T0). This means that the processing occurs at the beginning of each listening period, allowing for the accurate identification and analysis of the radar targets. Processing the data at T0 ensures that the information is available and utilized in real-time, enabling effective radar operations and target tracking.

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  • 42. 

    The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT)

    • Prevents implosion if the CRT is broken

    • Keeps the phosphor coating from burning

    • Eliminates static charges on the deflection plates

    • Prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air molecules

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air molecules
    Explanation
    The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT) prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air molecules. In a CRT, an electron beam is generated and accelerated towards a phosphor coating, which emits light when struck by the electrons. The vacuum inside the CRT ensures that there are no air molecules present to hinder the movement of the electrons, allowing them to travel freely and accurately hit the phosphor coating. If there were air molecules present, the electrons would collide with them, causing scattering and distortion of the electron beam, ultimately affecting the display quality.

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  • 43. 

    What size bit combinations are allowed when using 16–phase shift keying?

    • 2 bit

    • 3 bit

    • 4 bit

    • 5 bit

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 bit
    Explanation
    16-phase shift keying allows for 4-bit combinations. This means that each symbol in the transmitted signal can represent 4 bits of information. With 4-bit combinations, a total of 16 different symbols can be used to convey data.

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  • 44. 

    When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?

    • Receiving end

    • In the oscillator

    • Transmitting end

    • In the primary buffers

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiving end
    Explanation
    Error correction takes place at the receiving end when using forward error control as a method of error correction. This means that the errors are detected and corrected after the data has been transmitted and received. The receiving end is responsible for identifying any errors in the received data and applying the necessary corrections to ensure accurate and reliable data transmission.

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  • 45. 

    What is reduced through the use of index matching fluids on fiber optic connectors?

    • Macrobends

    • Bandwidths

    • Fresnal reflection

    • Spectral attenuation

    Correct Answer
    A. Fresnal reflection
    Explanation
    The use of index matching fluids on fiber optic connectors helps to reduce Fresnel reflection. Fresnel reflection occurs when there is a mismatch of refractive index between the fiber and the connector, leading to the loss of light signal. Index matching fluids minimize this reflection by matching the refractive indices of the fiber and the connector, allowing for efficient transmission of light signals through the fiber optic system.

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  • 46. 

    Which current range on the Fluke 8025A do you select to measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC)?

    • Microamps direct current (DC)

    • Microamps AC

    • Milliamps/amp DC

    • Milliamps/amp AC

    Correct Answer
    A. Milliamps/amp AC
    Explanation
    To measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC) on the Fluke 8025A, you would select the "Milliamps/amp AC" current range. This range is specifically designed to measure alternating current in milliamps.

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  • 47. 

    When using the AN/PSM–2 megger, how do you apply the correct regulated output voltage?

    • Turn the hand-crank until an arc is present

    • Turn the hand-crank until the needle set has stopped moving

    • Turn the hand-crank and monitor the megger’s output with another meter

    • Turn the hand-crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn the hand-crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow
  • 48. 

    Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?

    • Current probe

    • Passive 1:1 probe

    • Active field effect transistor probe

    • Passive divider, 10:1 probe

    Correct Answer
    A. Current probe
    Explanation
    A current probe is a type of probe that does not need to make physical contact with the circuit under test. It uses a magnetic field to measure the current flowing through a conductor without interrupting the circuit. This is achieved by placing the current-carrying conductor inside the probe's magnetic field. The probe then detects the magnetic field and converts it into a measurable current. This non-contact method makes it convenient and safe to measure high currents or currents in circuits where direct contact is not possible or desirable.

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  • 49. 

    What is the frequency range of an audio signal generator?

    • 10 Hz to 10 kHz

    • 20 Hz to 20 kHz

    • 10 kHz to 10GHz

    • 20 kHz to 35 MHz

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
    Explanation
    The frequency range of an audio signal generator is typically 20 Hz to 20 kHz. This range covers the audible frequencies for human hearing, allowing the generator to produce a wide range of tones and sounds within the normal hearing range. Frequencies below 20 Hz and above 20 kHz are generally considered to be outside of the audible range for most people.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 10, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 10, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 16, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Matthoef
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