1.
Which of the following mishap investigation responsibilities would reside with the flight surgeon and not the MAJCOM? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. Identify and prevent future mishaps
Explanation
The flight surgeon would be responsible for identifying and preventing future mishaps because they have specialized knowledge and expertise in aviation medicine and human factors. They can analyze the medical aspects of the mishap and make recommendations to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. This responsibility would not typically fall under the purview of the MAJCOM, which is the major command responsible for organizing, training, and equipping units within a specific branch of the military.
2.
Locally, who is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps?
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Correct Answer
A. Each individual
Explanation
Each individual is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps. Safety is a personal responsibility and everyone has a role to play in ensuring a safe environment. Each individual should be aware of safety protocols, follow them diligently, and take necessary precautions to prevent accidents or mishaps. This includes being mindful of their actions, reporting any potential hazards, and actively participating in safety training and drills. By taking individual responsibility, a collective culture of safety can be fostered within the organization.
3.
Specifically, who makes the final determination on return to flying status when aircrew are treated in other clinics?
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Correct Answer
A. Any Flight Surgeon
Explanation
Any Flight Surgeon is responsible for making the final determination on return to flying status when aircrew are treated in other clinics.
4.
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missile systems?
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Correct Answer
C. Once ignited, it cannot be extinguished
Explanation
Once ignited, solid propellant used in most missile systems cannot be extinguished. This is because the propellant contains its own oxidizer, which allows it to burn without the need for an external source of oxygen. Once the combustion process starts, it continues until all the propellant has been consumed. This characteristic makes solid propellant a reliable and predictable source of energy for missiles, as it ensures that the propulsion system will continue to function until all the propellant has been burned.
5.
Which of the following concerns would be considered primary physical hazards for personnel assigned to Missile Alert Facilities?
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Correct Answer
A. Sanitation, food, water and facility safety
Explanation
The primary physical hazards for personnel assigned to Missile Alert Facilities would include sanitation, food, water, and facility safety. These concerns are important for ensuring the health and well-being of the personnel working in these facilities. Poor sanitation practices can lead to the spread of diseases, while inadequate food and water safety measures can result in foodborne illnesses. Facility safety is also crucial to prevent accidents and injuries. Therefore, addressing these concerns is essential to maintain a safe and healthy working environment for personnel in Missile Alert Facilities.
6.
What are primary operational hazards for personnel who work at a Missile Alert Facility or Launch Facility?
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D. Motor vehicle accidents and the environment
Explanation
The primary operational hazards for personnel who work at a Missile Alert Facility or Launch Facility are motor vehicle accidents and the environment. This suggests that the personnel are at risk of accidents while operating vehicles and also face potential dangers related to the surrounding environment.
7.
Record mishaps as aircraft flight mishaps when
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Correct Answer
D. There is an intent for flight
Explanation
When it is stated that "there is an intent for flight," it means that the mishap is recorded as an aircraft flight mishap. This implies that if there is a clear intention or plan for the aircraft to take off or be in flight, any mishaps that occur during this period will be recorded as aircraft flight mishaps. This criterion helps differentiate between mishaps that happen during the pre-flight or taxiing phase versus mishaps that occur during actual flight operations.
8.
Whenever a mishap results in reportable damage of $1,000,000 or more, you must report it as what class of mishap?
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Correct Answer
A. A
Explanation
Whenever a mishap results in reportable damage of $1,000,000 or more, it must be reported as a Class A mishap.
9.
If an unmanned Aerial Vehicle crashes in Afghanistan, what is the procedure for determining whether it is reportable as an unmanned Aerial Vehicle mishap?
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C. Determine if another DOD aircraft was involved
Explanation
The procedure for determining whether an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) crash in Afghanistan is reportable as a UAV mishap involves determining if another Department of Defense (DOD) aircraft was involved. This is important because if another DOD aircraft was involved, it indicates a potential collision or interaction between the UAV and another aircraft, which would make the crash reportable. The other options listed, such as determining the dollar amount of damage, pilot error, and weather conditions, are not directly relevant to determining if the crash is reportable as a UAV mishap.
10.
When responding to a mishap, you should approach the scene from what direction?
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A. Upwind
Explanation
Approaching the scene from the upwind direction is the correct answer because it helps to prevent exposure to potentially hazardous substances or fumes. By approaching from the upwind direction, you are positioning yourself in a way that the wind is blowing away from you, reducing the risk of inhaling any harmful substances. This is an important safety precaution to take when responding to a mishap or accident.
11.
What action should you take prior to removing human remains from the scene of an aircraft mishap?
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A. pHotograpH the site
Explanation
Prior to removing human remains from the scene of an aircraft mishap, it is important to photograph the site. This is necessary to document the condition of the scene and any evidence that may be present. The photographs can be used for investigative purposes and to provide a visual record of the scene. It is important to capture the scene as it is before any changes are made, including the removal of human remains.
12.
What solution should you use when preparing tissue and skin samples for autopsy analysis?
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Correct Answer
B. Betadine
Explanation
Betadine should be used when preparing tissue and skin samples for autopsy analysis. Betadine is an antiseptic solution that helps to disinfect the samples and prevent the growth of bacteria or other microorganisms. This ensures that the samples remain sterile and uncontaminated during the analysis process. Using tap water, normal saline, or isopropyl alcohol may not provide the same level of disinfection and could potentially compromise the accuracy of the autopsy analysis.
13.
What steps need to be completed before completing an aircraft mishap report?
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Correct Answer
A. Compile all necessary data
Explanation
Before completing an aircraft mishap report, the necessary step is to compile all the necessary data. This includes gathering all relevant information, such as witness statements, maintenance records, flight data, and any other documentation related to the incident. This step ensures that all the required information is available and can be included in the report for a comprehensive and accurate account of the mishap.
14.
How should you report an event that is categorized as a physiological episode?
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Correct Answer
D. Class E mishap
Explanation
A physiological episode refers to a medical condition or event that affects a person's physical well-being. Class E mishap is the correct answer because it is the category that specifically deals with physiological episodes. Class A, B, and D mishaps are categorized differently and do not specifically address physiological episodes.
15.
Class E Physiological events are reported by message using the format found in
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B. AFI 91-204, Safety Investigation and Reports
16.
The overall purpose of flight line visits is to
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A. Promote flying safety
Explanation
Flight line visits are conducted to promote flying safety. During these visits, personnel can inspect aircraft, equipment, and facilities to ensure they meet safety standards. They can also observe and assess the adherence to safety procedures by aircrew members. By promoting flying safety, flight line visits help prevent accidents and ensure that all operations are conducted in a safe manner.
17.
What is your specific responsibility to the Life Support Section?
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D. Provide advice to unit personnel of protective equipment programs
Explanation
The specific responsibility to the Life Support Section is to provide advice to unit personnel of protective equipment programs. This involves offering guidance and support to ensure that the personnel have the necessary knowledge and resources to properly use and maintain their protective equipment. This responsibility is crucial in ensuring the safety and well-being of the individuals in the unit.
18.
Which of the following are all rated officers?
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A. Navigators, pilots and flight surgeons
Explanation
The correct answer is Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons. These individuals are all rated officers because they have specific ratings or designations within the military that correspond to their roles and responsibilities. Navigators are responsible for planning and directing the course of aircraft, pilots are responsible for operating and flying aircraft, and flight surgeons are responsible for providing medical care and support to pilots and crew members.
19.
What do you do with the original AF Form 1042 after it is completed?
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B. File it in the individual's health record
Explanation
The correct answer is to file the original AF Form 1042 in the individual's health record. This is the appropriate action to take after completing the form as it ensures that the information is properly documented and easily accessible for future reference. Filing it in a permanent office file, sending it to the local flight management office, or sending it to the individual's squadron operations section would not be the correct course of action for this specific form.
20.
How many years must the AF Form 1041 be kept on file?
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A. Two
Explanation
The AF Form 1041 must be kept on file for two years.
21.
Who is responsible to train aircrew in the emergency removal of soft contact lenses?
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A. Optometry
Explanation
Optometry is responsible for training aircrew in the emergency removal of soft contact lenses.
22.
What steps are necessary to a safe and productive soft contact lens program?
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A. Identification, documentation and evaluation
23.
What is the primary device a computer uses to store information?
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Correct Answer
B. Hard disk drive
Explanation
A hard disk drive is the primary device a computer uses to store information. It is a non-volatile storage device that stores and retrieves digital data using magnetic storage and one or more rigid rapidly rotating disks. It provides a large amount of storage capacity and is commonly used to store the operating system, software applications, and user files on a computer.
24.
What program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force information systems?
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A. SATE
25.
What administrative tool shows every record series maintained for an office of record?
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Correct Answer
C. Files plan
Explanation
The correct answer is "Files plan". A files plan is an administrative tool that shows every record series maintained for an office of record. It provides a systematic and organized way of managing and categorizing records within an organization. It helps in identifying and locating specific records when needed and ensures proper record keeping practices.
26.
What is the purpose of the Physical Examinations Processing Program?
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C. Track pHysical exams for flying and special operations personnel
Explanation
The purpose of the Physical Examinations Processing Program is to track physical exams specifically for flying and special operations personnel.
27.
Once you arrive at the Knowledge Exchange webpage, what should be the next step to begin training on the Physical Examinations Processing Program database?
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C. Click on the "Aerospace Medicine" tab
Explanation
After arriving at the Knowledge Exchange webpage, the next step to begin training on the Physical Examinations Processing Program database is to click on the "Aerospace Medicine" tab.
28.
What step must you take before you can use the Physical Examinations Processing Program database?
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B. Set up an account through the AF Portal
Explanation
Before you can use the Physical Examinations Processing Program database, you must set up an account through the AF Portal.
29.
When you input medical information on military member into Preventive Health Assessment Individual Medical Readiness program, to what system does it connect?
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C. AFCHIPS
Explanation
The correct answer is AFCHIPS. AFCHIPS stands for Air Force Comprehensive Health Information Portal System. It is the system that the Preventive Health Assessment Individual Medical Readiness program connects to when inputting medical information on military members. AFCHIPS is used to manage and track medical readiness and health information for Air Force personnel.
30.
What can you determine when you review a military member's Individual Medical Readiness status is yellow?
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D. Items are outdated or need attention
Explanation
When a military member's Individual Medical Readiness status is yellow, it indicates that there are items that are outdated or need attention. This means that there may be medical requirements or documentation that need to be updated or addressed in order for the member to be considered fully medically ready.
31.
A supervisor has access to what additional tabs in the Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application (AFCITA)?
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D. Set up and data management
Explanation
A supervisor has access to the "Set up and data management" tabs in the Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application (AFCITA). This allows them to manage and set up the data within the application, including entering and editing information, managing multiple entries, and setting up the system for efficient data management. They also have the ability to inquire about families and generate bar codes for tracking purposes.
32.
What step should you take if you have a patient that experiences an adverse reaction?
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A. Go to the menu bar to access the VAERS website
Explanation
The correct step to take if a patient experiences an adverse reaction is to go to the menu bar and access the VAERS website. This is because VAERS (Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System) is a national system used to monitor the safety of vaccines. By accessing the VAERS website, healthcare professionals can report and gather information on adverse reactions to vaccines, ensuring that the necessary steps are taken to address and investigate any potential safety concerns.
33.
What steps might you need to take before you can access Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application?
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D. You must see your local AFCITA program manager, have an account established and have the program loaded on your computer
Explanation
Before accessing the Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application, you need to take the following steps: 1) See your local AFCITA program manager, 2) Have an account established, and 3) Have the program loaded on your computer. Additionally, your training record must have documentation that you are trained to give vaccinations.
34.
What function does the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System serve?
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D. Tracks waivers for personnel on flying or special operations status
Explanation
The Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System serves to track and manage waivers for personnel on flying or special operations status. This system helps to ensure that the necessary waivers are in place for individuals who are involved in flying or special operations, ensuring their eligibility and compliance with regulations.
35.
What step must you complete first to complete initial waivers within Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System?
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C. Enter the patient's demograpHics
Explanation
To complete initial waivers within the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System, the first step is to enter the patient's demographics. This involves inputting the patient's personal information such as name, date of birth, and contact details into the system. This step is crucial as it establishes the patient's identity and allows for accurate tracking and management of their waiver information.
36.
What do you do once the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System process is completed?
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C. Place information in patient record
Explanation
Once the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System process is completed, the information should be placed in the patient record.
37.
The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly are specified in
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A. AFI 48-123
Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 48-123. This document specifies the medical standards, frequency, scope, and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly.
38.
During physical examination, the depth of evaluation of any body system depends primarily on the
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C. Type of medical examination
Explanation
The depth of evaluation of any body system during a physical examination primarily depends on the type of medical examination being conducted. Different types of medical examinations may require different levels of evaluation and assessment of the body systems.
39.
The format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination are found in
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D. AFPAM 48-133
Explanation
The correct answer is AFPAM 48-133. This publication provides the format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination. It is a reference guide that outlines the standards and guidelines for performing physical examinations in the military.
40.
Where is the AF Form 422 established on officers entering the Air Force?
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B. First permanent duty station
41.
Members with 4T profiles must have the AF Form 422 reviewed every
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C. 30 days
Explanation
Members with 4T profiles must have the AF Form 422 reviewed every 30 days.
42.
How many human function factors are considered in the physical profile serial?
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D. Six
Explanation
The correct answer is six. This suggests that there are six human function factors considered in the physical profile serial.
43.
Which factor would apply to an individual who has organic defects of the ears?
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D. P-pHysical condition
Explanation
An individual with organic defects of the ears would fall under the category of physical condition. This is because organic defects refer to structural abnormalities or malformations of the ears, which are physical in nature. It does not fall under the categories of hearing, sensory, or preferences.
44.
What is the main consideration under the E physical profile factor?
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C. Distant visual acuity only
Explanation
The main consideration under the E physical profile factor is the distant visual acuity only. This means that the individual's ability to see objects clearly at a distance is the primary focus when assessing their physical profile.
45.
A strength aptitude test is rated in which profile factor?
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D. X
Explanation
The given answer "X" does not provide any specific information about the profile factor in which the strength aptitude test is rated. Therefore, it is not possible to provide an explanation for the given correct answer.
46.
What organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422?
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D. HQ AFPC
Explanation
HQ AFPC is the organization that authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422.
47.
Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list for no more than
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D. 5 years
Explanation
Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list for a maximum period of 5 years.
48.
What is the first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process?
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B. Initiate a MEB
Explanation
The first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process is to initiate a MEB (Medical Evaluation Board). This involves starting the evaluation process for the service member's medical condition and determining if it meets the criteria for disability. This step is crucial in determining the individual's eligibility for disability benefits and determining the extent of their disability.
49.
When would disability compensation not be authorized?
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D. Injury occurred during an unauthorized absence
50.
What step must be taken if a military member has been discharged after being admitted to a hospital?
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C. Records must be reviewed to identify correct profile actions