1.
Anions
Correct Answer(s)
A. Have a negative charge
C. Are formed when they gain an electron
Explanation
Anions are negatively charged ions. They are formed when an atom gains one or more electrons. When an atom gains an electron, it becomes negatively charged because the number of electrons exceeds the number of protons. Therefore, the correct answer is "Have a negative charge" and "Are formed when they gain an electron".
2.
Cations
Correct Answer(s)
B. Have a positive charge
D. Are formed when they lose an electron
Explanation
Cations are formed when atoms lose electrons. This loss of electrons creates a positive charge on the cation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Have a positive charge" and "Are formed when they lose an electron".
3.
All cells use energy carried by ___________
Correct Answer(s)
phosphate
ATP
Explanation
All cells use energy carried by phosphate and ATP. Phosphate is an essential component of ATP, which is the main energy currency in cells. When ATP is broken down into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and inorganic phosphate, energy is released and can be used by cells for various processes such as muscle contraction, active transport, and synthesis of molecules. Therefore, both phosphate and ATP play crucial roles in cellular energy metabolism.
4.
What are the reactants and products of the light dependent reaction in photosynthesis
Correct Answer(s)
A. Reactants: water and sunlight
B. Products: ATP/energy
Explanation
The light dependent reaction in photosynthesis involves the conversion of light energy into chemical energy. Water and sunlight are the reactants in this process, as water molecules are broken down to release electrons and oxygen, while sunlight provides the energy needed for this reaction to occur. The products of the light dependent reaction are ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and energy, which are used to power the subsequent reactions in photosynthesis. The given answer correctly identifies water and sunlight as the reactants and ATP/energy as the products of the light dependent reaction.
5.
What are the reactants and products of the light independent reaction in photosynthesis
Correct Answer(s)
C. Products: sugar
D. Reactants: 6O2 and ADP/energy
Explanation
The given answer is incorrect. The reactants of the light-independent reaction in photosynthesis are carbon dioxide (CO2) and ATP/energy. The products of this reaction are sugar (glucose) and ADP/energy.
6.
Select all true about GLYCOLYSIS: (4 Answers)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Breaks a 6 carbon glucose into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid each which have 2 carbons
B. It is an anaerobic process (no oxygen)
D. Takes place in the cytoplasm
E. Makes 2 ATP
Explanation
GLYCOLYSIS is a metabolic pathway that breaks down a 6 carbon glucose molecule into two molecules of pyruvic acid, each containing 2 carbons. It is an anaerobic process, meaning it does not require oxygen. GLYCOLYSIS takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell and results in the production of 2 ATP molecules.
7.
Select all true about GLYCOLYSIS:(4 answers)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Makes 2 ATP
B. Breaks a 6 carbon glucose into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid each which have 2 carbons
D. It is an anaerobic process (no oxygen)
E. Takes place in the cytoplasm
Explanation
GLYCOLYSIS is a metabolic pathway that breaks down a 6 carbon glucose molecule into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid, each containing 2 carbons. It is an anaerobic process, meaning it does not require oxygen. It takes place in the cytoplasm of cells. Additionally, it produces 2 ATP molecules, which are a source of energy for cellular processes.
8.
Select all true about KREBS CYCLE: (4 answers)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Breakdown of the 3 carbon molecules of pyruvic acid in GLYCOLYSIS
B. Makes 2 ATP
C. Takes place in the interior mitochondria
D. CO2 is one main product
Explanation
The Krebs cycle involves the breakdown of the 3 carbon molecules of pyruvic acid in glycolysis. It produces 2 ATP molecules and takes place in the interior of the mitochondria. One of the main products of the Krebs cycle is CO2.
9.
Select all true about ELECTRON TRANSPORT CHAIN: (3 answers)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Oxygen enters the process to make h2o
B. Makes 32 ATP
C. Takes place in the inner membrane of the mitochondria
Explanation
The electron transport chain is a series of protein complexes located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria. It is responsible for the production of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, and it combines with hydrogen ions to form water (H2O). This process generates a total of 32 ATP molecules. The electron transport chain does not produce CO2 as a main product; instead, CO2 is produced during the Krebs cycle.
10.
What equation is this?
Correct Answer(s)
Photosynthesis
11.
What is this equation?
Correct Answer(s)
Respiration
cellular respiration
Explanation
The equation mentioned in the answer is likely referring to the process of cellular respiration, which is the process by which cells convert glucose and oxygen into carbon dioxide, water, and energy in the form of ATP. This process is essential for the survival of cells and organisms, as it provides the energy needed for various cellular functions.
12.
In what phase(S) does the chromosome take on the X form?
Correct Answer(s)
A. G2
B. S
D. PropHase
E. MetapHase
Explanation
During the G2 phase of the cell cycle, the chromosome takes on the X form. This is because the DNA has replicated during the S phase and each chromosome now consists of two identical sister chromatids held together at the centromere. In prophase and metaphase, the chromosomes condense further and become visible under a microscope, but they do not specifically take on the X form. Therefore, the correct answer is G2.
13.
In what phase(S) does the chromosome take on the > (single lined) form?
Correct Answer(s)
A. G1
B. Cytokinesis
C. AnapHase
E. TelopHase
Explanation
During the G1 phase of the cell cycle, the chromosome takes on a single lined form. The G1 phase is the first phase of interphase, where the cell grows and carries out its normal functions. Cytokinesis is the phase where the cytoplasm divides, resulting in two separate daughter cells. Anaphase is the phase where the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. Telophase is the final phase of mitosis, where the chromosomes decondense and nuclear envelopes form around each set of chromosomes.
14.
Homologous Chromosomes are ones that come from _____________
Correct Answer(s)
each parent
Explanation
Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes that come from each parent. In humans, each parent contributes 23 chromosomes, resulting in a total of 46 chromosomes. Homologous chromosomes have the same genes in the same order but may have different versions of those genes (alleles). During meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material through a process called recombination, leading to genetic diversity in offspring.
15.
An allele is:
Correct Answer
A. A different form of a gene
Explanation
An allele refers to a different form or variant of a gene. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for the development and functioning of living organisms. Each gene can have multiple alleles, which are alternative versions of the same gene that can result in different traits or characteristics. These alleles can differ in their DNA sequence, resulting in variations in the expression or function of the gene. Therefore, the correct answer is "A different form of a gene."
16.
An phenotype is:
Correct Answer
B. What is expressed on the outside "what we see"
Explanation
A phenotype refers to the observable characteristics or traits of an organism, which are determined by the expression of genes. It represents what is visible or expressed on the outside, such as physical appearance, behavior, or other observable traits. This answer accurately describes the concept of a phenotype being the manifestation of genetic information in an organism's observable traits.
17.
What is NOT true about REPLICATION?
Correct Answer
C. Takes place in cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells
Explanation
Replication does not take place in the cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cells, replication occurs in the nucleus. The cytoplasm is the location where other cellular processes, such as protein synthesis, take place. Replication involves the unwinding of DNA, the lining up of bases, and the bonding of the backbone, but the location of these steps varies between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
18.
What is NOT true about TRANSCRIPTION?
Correct Answer
B. It is the conversion of RNA to DNA
Explanation
Transcription is the process of converting DNA into RNA, not the other way around. RNA acts as a messenger between the nucleus and protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. The steps of transcription include DNA unwinding at a specific site (promoter), the creation of an RNA strand using a complementary DNA strand, and the detachment of the RNA strand while the DNA reconnects.
19.
What is NOT true about TRANSLATION?
Correct Answer
B. It takes place in the cytoplasm in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Explanation
Translation is the process of converting mRNA into a string of amino acids, which is true according to the given statement. However, it is not true that translation takes place in the cytoplasm in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In prokaryotic cells, translation occurs in the cytoplasm, but in eukaryotic cells, it takes place in the cytoplasm on ribosomes or in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
20.
A codon is three bases on an mRNA molecule that code for a specific amino acid
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A codon is a sequence of three bases on an mRNA molecule that corresponds to a specific amino acid. This means that each codon codes for a particular amino acid, which is essential for protein synthesis. Therefore, the statement "a codon is three bases on an mRNA molecule that code for a specific amino acid" is true.
21.
An anti-codon is three bases on a tRNA molecule that match up with the codons (are complementary to them) on
the mRNA.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
An anti-codon is a sequence of three nucleotides on a tRNA molecule that is complementary to a specific codon on the mRNA. This complementary base pairing allows the tRNA to recognize and bind to the mRNA during protein synthesis. Therefore, the statement that an anti-codon matches up with the codons on the mRNA is true.
22.
Which is not a type of mutation?
Correct Answer
C. Switched mutation
Explanation
Switched mutation is not a recognized type of mutation. Chromosomal mutation refers to changes in the structure or number of chromosomes. Point mutation refers to a change in a single nucleotide base pair. Frameshift mutation refers to the insertion or deletion of nucleotide bases, causing a shift in the reading frame of the genetic code. However, switched mutation is not a commonly recognized term in the field of genetics and is not associated with any specific type of genetic alteration.
23.
What did Darwin find out about the animals living in S. America, Africa, and Australia? (2 answers)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Similar organisms lived in similar environments
B. Related yet different species lived in different habitats in a local area
Explanation
Darwin found that similar organisms lived in similar environments, which suggests that the environment plays a significant role in shaping the characteristics and adaptations of species. He also discovered that related yet different species lived in different habitats in a local area, indicating that species diversify and adapt to their specific ecological niches. This supports the concept of natural selection and the idea that different environments can lead to the development of distinct species.
24.
Darwin found that tortoises shells varied based on the islands in the Galapagos Islands
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Darwin discovered that the shells of tortoises varied depending on the specific islands within the Galapagos archipelago. This observation supports the concept of adaptive radiation, where species adapt and evolve differently in different environments. The variation in tortoise shells is a result of natural selection acting on the populations of tortoises on each island, leading to unique shell characteristics that are suited to the specific conditions and resources available on each island.
25.
Darwin saw that the glyptodont and the armadillo were nothing alike
Correct Answer
B. False: the armadillo was almost a smaller version of the glyptodont and they lived in about the same region
Explanation
The statement suggests that Darwin observed that the glyptodont and the armadillo were not similar to each other. However, the correct answer states that this statement is false. In reality, Darwin found that the armadillo was actually a smaller version of the glyptodont and that they lived in the same region.
26.
Is this order correct?
Levels of Organization
-
Ecosystem
-
Community
-
Population
-
Biome
Correct Answer
B. False: It is
1. Biome
2. Ecosystem
3. Community
4. Population
Explanation
The given order of levels of organization is correct. The correct order is Biome, Ecosystem, Community, and Population. This order represents the hierarchical structure of ecological systems, starting from the largest and most inclusive level (biome) to the smallest and most specific level (population). A biome is a large geographical area characterized by its climate and vegetation. An ecosystem is a smaller unit within a biome, consisting of all living organisms and their physical environment. A community refers to the different populations of species living together in an ecosystem. Finally, a population refers to a group of individuals of the same species living in a specific area.
27.
A group of the same species that lives in one area
Correct Answer
A. Population
Explanation
A population refers to a group of the same species that lives in one area. It specifically focuses on individuals of the same species and their interactions within a given geographic location. It does not include other species or the physical environment.
28.
community
Correct Answer
C. A group of different species that live in one area
Explanation
The correct answer is "a group of different species that live in one area." This answer accurately describes a community as a collection of various species that coexist in a specific geographical location. It implies that within this area, multiple organisms interact and depend on each other for survival, forming a complex ecological network. The other options either focus on a single species or fail to encompass the diversity of species within a community.
29.
abiotic factor= living
biotic factor= nonliving
Correct Answer
B. False: abiotic factor= nonliving
biotic factor= living
Explanation
The given answer is correct because it states that abiotic factors are nonliving and biotic factors are living. Abiotic factors refer to the nonliving components of an ecosystem, such as temperature, sunlight, water, and soil. Biotic factors, on the other hand, include all living organisms present in an ecosystem, including plants, animals, and microorganisms. This distinction between living and nonliving factors is essential in understanding the interactions and dynamics within an ecosystem.
30.
What is the specific keystone species talked about in class
Correct Answer
A. The beaver (with its dam)
Explanation
The specific keystone species talked about in class is the beaver with its dam. Keystone species are crucial for maintaining the balance and health of an ecosystem. Beavers create dams that alter the flow of water and create wetland habitats, which benefit a wide range of other species. These dams provide shelter, food, and breeding grounds for many other organisms, making the beaver a keystone species.
31.
If you aren't too familiar with Meiosis this should help! Open in a new tab and you can press skip If you don't need it or are done
Also you don't need to type anything in the box below
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qCLmR9-YY7o
Correct Answer
You can just press skip when done or if you don't need this
32.
The three domains are:
Correct Answer(s)
A. Bacteria
B. Archaea
E. Eukarya
Explanation
The correct answer is the three domains are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. These three domains represent the highest level of classification for all living organisms. Bacteria and Archaea are both prokaryotic domains, meaning their cells lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Eukarya, on the other hand, is the domain that includes all eukaryotic organisms, which have cells that contain a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. This classification system helps scientists categorize and understand the diversity of life on Earth.
33.
Bacteria is NOT.....
Correct Answer
B. Multicelluar
Explanation
Bacteria are prokaryotes, which means they lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. They are unicellular organisms, meaning they consist of a single cell. Therefore, bacteria are not multicellular.
34.
Archaea is NOT....
Correct Answer
E. Live in comfortable environments not extreme ones
Explanation
Archaea are single-celled prokaryotes that have a cell wall different from bacteria. They are known to be some of the oldest organisms on Earth and are capable of surviving in extreme environments such as hot springs, deep-sea hydrothermal vents, and salt lakes. Therefore, the statement that archaea live in comfortable environments, not extreme ones, is incorrect.
35.
Eukarya is... (four answers)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Some single celled
B. Some multicelluar
C. Eukaryotic
E. Includes four of the six kingdoms (protista, fungi, plantae, and animalia)
Explanation
Eukarya is a domain that includes both single-celled and multicellular organisms. These organisms are eukaryotic, meaning they have cells with a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Eukarya includes four of the six kingdoms: Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. This means that a wide range of organisms, including algae, fungi, plants, and animals, are classified under the domain Eukarya.
36.
What is NOT one way prokaryotes are identified?
Correct Answer
E. Where they are found
Explanation
Prokaryotes are identified by various characteristics, such as shape, Gram staining, how they reproduce, and whether they are anaerobic or aerobic. However, their identification is not based on where they are found. The location of their habitat does not provide specific information about their identity or classification. Therefore, "where they are found" is not one of the ways prokaryotes are identified.
37.
A virus is an infectious particle made of DNA/RNA with a protein coat called a capsid
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A virus is indeed an infectious particle made of DNA or RNA with a protein coat called a capsid. Viruses are not considered living organisms as they cannot reproduce or carry out metabolic activities on their own. Instead, they rely on host cells to replicate and cause infection. The genetic material (DNA or RNA) of the virus is enclosed within the protein coat, which protects it and allows the virus to enter host cells. Therefore, the statement "A virus is an infectious particle made of DNA/RNA with a protein coat called a capsid" is true.
38.
Xylem tissue is a vascular tissue that transports ____________________
Correct Answer
water and nutrients
water
Explanation
Xylem tissue is a type of vascular tissue found in plants that is responsible for transporting water and nutrients throughout the plant. It consists of specialized cells called tracheids and vessel elements that form long tubes, allowing for the efficient movement of water and dissolved nutrients from the roots to the leaves. This transportation system is essential for the plant's survival and proper functioning, as water is needed for photosynthesis and nutrient uptake. Therefore, the correct answer is "water and nutrients, water."
39.
phloem is a vascular tissue that carries _________________________
Correct Answer
sugars and minerals
food
Explanation
Phloem is a type of vascular tissue in plants that is responsible for transporting sugars and minerals throughout the plant. This transportation system allows for the distribution of food, which is in the form of sugars, to different parts of the plant. Therefore, the correct answer is "sugars and minerals, food."
40.
What is NOT a characteristic of a chordate in their life cycle?
Correct Answer
E. Fur
Explanation
A characteristic of a chordate in their life cycle is the presence of fur. However, the question asks for a characteristic that is NOT present in chordates. Therefore, fur is not a characteristic of chordates in their life cycle.
41.
What were the specific examples of pluripotent stem cells in class
Correct Answer
B. Neurons, skin, muscle, kidney
Explanation
The specific examples of pluripotent stem cells discussed in class were neurons, skin, muscle, and kidney. These cells have the ability to differentiate into various cell types and are capable of self-renewal. Pluripotent stem cells are important in medical research and regenerative medicine as they hold the potential to treat a wide range of diseases and injuries.
42.
What are the four main pieces for homeostasis below: (4 answers)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Sensors (gather info about conditions inside/outside the body)
B. Control Center (receives info from sensors and responds)
C. Communication System (controlled by nervous and endocrine system and carry messages to all parts of the body)
D. Targets (any organ tissue or cell that changes its level of activity in response to messages)
Explanation
The four main pieces for homeostasis are sensors, control center, communication system, and targets. Sensors gather information about the conditions inside or outside the body. The control center receives information from the sensors and responds accordingly. The communication system, which is controlled by the nervous and endocrine systems, carries messages to all parts of the body. Targets refer to any organ tissue or cell that changes its level of activity in response to these messages.
43.
The stomachs main function is: to break down food after feeding and extract the nutrients necessary to the body by putting in a mixture called chyme
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The stomach's main function is to break down food after feeding and extract the necessary nutrients to the body by putting it in a mixture called chyme. This process is known as digestion and is crucial for the body to obtain the energy and nutrients it needs to function properly. Therefore, the statement "True" accurately reflects the main function of the stomach.
44.
the main role of the pancreas is to: excrete digestive enzymes to aid the digestion of proteins
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The pancreas plays a crucial role in the digestion process by secreting digestive enzymes that help break down proteins. These enzymes, such as trypsin and chymotrypsin, are released into the small intestine where they assist in the breakdown of proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which can be absorbed by the body. Therefore, the statement that the main role of the pancreas is to excrete digestive enzymes to aid the digestion of proteins is true.
45.
The gallbladder produces bile which aids in digestion and absorption of fats and substances such as vitamins A, D, E, and K
Correct Answer
B. False: its the liver not the gallbladder
Explanation
The statement is false because it is the liver, not the gallbladder, that produces bile. Bile is a substance that aids in the digestion and absorption of fats and certain vitamins. The gallbladder's main function is to store and concentrate bile produced by the liver. When needed, the gallbladder releases the bile into the small intestine to assist in the digestion process. Therefore, the correct answer is false.
46.
The main function of the small intestine is to absorb nutrients found within the food
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The small intestine is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption in the digestive system. It has a large surface area due to its numerous folds and villi, which increases the efficiency of nutrient absorption. The small intestine absorbs nutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals from the food we eat, allowing them to enter the bloodstream and be transported to cells throughout the body. Therefore, the statement that the main function of the small intestine is to absorb nutrients found within the food is true.
47.
The primary function of the large intestine is the transportation of waste and re-absorption of water from it before it is excreted.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The large intestine, also known as the colon, plays a crucial role in the digestive system. Its primary function is to transport waste materials from the small intestine to the rectum for elimination. Additionally, the large intestine is responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from the waste material, which helps in maintaining the body's fluid balance. This process ensures that the waste material becomes more solid and compact before being excreted as feces. Therefore, the statement that the primary function of the large intestine is the transportation of waste and re-absorption of water from it before it is excreted is true.
48.
Which is not an agranulocyte?
Correct Answer
B. Antibodies
Explanation
Antibodies are not agranulocytes because they are not cells. They are proteins produced by certain white blood cells called B cells. Agranulocytes are a type of white blood cell that lack granules in their cytoplasm, which includes monocytes, lymphocytes, and NK cells.
49.
What do CD4 helper cells don't do?
Correct Answer
C. Kill virus infected cells
Explanation
CD4 helper cells do not kill virus infected cells. Their main function is to activate and regulate B and T cells, helping to coordinate the immune response. They can also clone into memory T cells or effector T cells, which play a role in immune memory and the elimination of pathogens. However, the direct killing of virus infected cells is not a function of CD4 helper cells.
50.
What do CD8 cytotoxic cells do?
Correct Answer
A. Kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells
Explanation
CD8 cytotoxic cells are a type of immune cells that play a crucial role in eliminating virus-infected cells and tumor cells. These cells recognize specific antigens on the surface of infected or abnormal cells and release toxic substances, such as perforin and granzymes, to induce cell death. By targeting and eliminating these harmful cells, CD8 cytotoxic cells help to control viral infections and prevent the development and spread of tumors.