Mock Test 12 - Gs Paper I

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Civil_mentor

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 216

Questions: 50 | Attempts: 116 | Updated: Mar 21, 2024

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Questions and Answers

1.

The twin principle of Gandhi's Ram Rajya were
- A.
  
  Truth and Non-violence
- B.
  
  Right means and Right end
- C.
  
  Khadi and ahinsa
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Right means and Right end

Explanation
The twin principle of Gandhi's Ram Rajya were "Right means and Right end". This means that Gandhi believed in achieving a just and righteous society through ethical and moral actions. He emphasized that the means used to achieve a goal should be as important and ethical as the goal itself. Gandhi believed that violence and unethical means would only lead to an unjust society, and hence, he advocated for the use of non-violent and truthful means in all aspects of life.

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2.

Gandhi ji founded satyagraha sabha in 1919 to protest against:
- A.
  
  Salt law
- B.
  
  Rowlatt act
- C.
  
  Government of India act 1919
- D.
  
  Jallianwala bagh massacre
Correct Answer
B. Rowlatt act

Explanation
Gandhi ji founded the satyagraha sabha in 1919 to protest against the Rowlatt Act. The Rowlatt Act was a law passed by the British government in India that allowed for the arrest and detention of individuals without trial. Gandhi ji saw this act as a violation of civil liberties and a threat to the freedom movement. He organized the satyagraha sabha to mobilize the masses and peacefully resist this unjust law through nonviolent means.

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3.

The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because 1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence 2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session 3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3
- C.
  
  1 and 3
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
A. 1 only

Explanation
The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history because the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence. This resolution marked a significant shift in the Congress's stance towards British rule in India and laid the foundation for the subsequent independence movement. The other statements, regarding the resolution of the rift between extremists and moderates and the rejection of the two-nation theory, are not mentioned or implied in the given information. Therefore, the correct answer is "1 only".

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4.

Consider the following statements : The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he 1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British 2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians 3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
  
  1 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1 and 3 only
- D.
  
  1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 only

Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji's most effective contribution to the Indian National Movement was that he exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British. This means that statement 1 is correct. However, there is no mention or evidence to support the interpretation of ancient Indian texts or the need for eradication of social evils, so statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only.

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5.

Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created? 1. To enable them to withstand drought 2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce 3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations 4. To increase their shelf life Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A.
  
  1 and 2 only
- B.
  
  3 and 4 only
- C.
  
  1, 2 and 4 only
- D.
  
  1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer
C. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation
Genetically engineered plants have been created not only to resist pests but also to withstand drought, increase the nutritive value of the produce, and increase their shelf life. These traits are desirable in plants to enhance their survival in challenging environmental conditions, improve their nutritional content, and extend their freshness and storage capabilities. However, genetically engineering plants to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations is not mentioned as one of the prospects. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 4 only.

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6.

With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct? 1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period. 2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music. 3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A.
  
  1 and 2 only
- B.
  
  2 and 3 only
- C.
  
  1, 2 and 3
- D.
  
  None of the above is correct
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation
Dhrupad is a major tradition of India that has been kept alive for centuries. It is primarily a devotional and spiritual music. Dhrupad Alap, a part of Dhrupad, uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras. Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only.

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7.

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A.
  
  Only 1
- B.
  
  Both 1 & 4
- C.
  
  1,3 & 4 only
- D.
  
  1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer
C. 1,3 & 4 only

Explanation
The President of India is responsible for causing the laying of the Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General, the Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, and the Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission before the Parliament. The President does not have the duty to cause the laying of the Report of the Public Accounts Committee, so option 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3, which includes only the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, and the Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission.

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8.

The Lucknow session of 1916 is noted for
- A.
  
  Congress acceptance of the league's demand of separate electrorates and weighted for muslims
- B.
  
  Merger of the muslims league into congress, temporarily
- C.
  
  Election of muslim leaders as congrees president
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Congress acceptance of the league's demand of separate electrorates and weighted for muslims

Explanation
The correct answer is the Congress acceptance of the league's demand for separate electorates and weighted representation for Muslims. This was a significant development during the Lucknow session of 1916 as it marked a major step towards addressing the concerns and demands of the Muslim community within the Indian National Congress. This decision aimed to ensure fair representation and political empowerment for Muslims in the political system. It also temporarily merged the Muslim League into the Congress, showcasing a spirit of unity and cooperation between the two organizations.

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9.

Which of the following is not rue about the government of India act 1919?
- A.
  
  Also known as montagaue chelmsford reform
- B.
  
  It paved the way of federalism by clearly separating the responsibility of the centre to the provinces
- C.
  
  It made the central executive responsible to the legislative
- D.
  
  It extended the practice of communal representaion
Correct Answer
C. It made the central executive responsible to the legislative

Explanation
The Government of India Act 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reform, did not make the central executive responsible to the legislative. Instead, it introduced a system of dyarchy, where certain areas of administration were divided between the central and provincial governments. The central executive remained separate from the legislative and was not directly responsible to it. This act aimed to increase participation of Indians in the governance process, but it did not make the central executive accountable to the legislative.

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10.

The khilafat movement subsided the following
- A.
  
  Withdrawal of support by congress
- B.
  
  Abandonment of the policy of discrimination against the muslims by the british
- C.
  
  Reservation of seats for muslims in central and provincial legislature under the act of 1919
- D.
  
  Assumption of power by mustafa kamal pasha in turkey and abolition of the caliphate
Correct Answer
D. Assumption of power by mustafa kamal pasha in turkey and abolition of the calipHate

Explanation
The Khilafat movement subsided due to the assumption of power by Mustafa Kamal Pasha in Turkey and the abolition of the caliphate. This event weakened the movement as it removed the central figure of the caliphate that the movement was advocating for. With the caliphate abolished, the movement lost its main objective and support dwindled. The withdrawal of support by Congress, abandonment of the policy of discrimination against Muslims by the British, and reservation of seats for Muslims in the legislature were important factors, but the assumption of power by Mustafa Kamal Pasha had the most significant impact on the subsiding of the movement.

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11.

Monoculture is a typical character of
- A.
  
  Shifting cultivation
- B.
  
  Subsistence farming
- C.
  
  Specialised horticulture
- D.
  
  Commercial grain farming
Correct Answer
D. Commercial grain farming

Explanation
Commercial grain farming is characterized by monoculture, which refers to the practice of growing only one type of crop on a large scale. This is done to maximize efficiency and productivity, as it allows farmers to specialize in the cultivation of a specific crop. Monoculture in commercial grain farming also simplifies the management and harvesting processes, as the crops have similar growth requirements and can be harvested using the same equipment. Additionally, commercial grain farming often involves the use of modern agricultural technologies and practices to increase yields and profitability.

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12.

What type of farming is common in areas of low rainfall?
- A.
  
  Livestock ranching
- B.
  
  Dairy farming
- C.
  
  Paddy cultivation
- D.
  
  Intensive subsistence farming
Correct Answer
A. Livestock ranching

Explanation
Livestock ranching is the most suitable type of farming in areas with low rainfall because it requires less water compared to other types of farming. Livestock such as cattle, sheep, and goats can graze on natural vegetation, reducing the need for extensive irrigation. This type of farming is commonly practiced in arid and semi-arid regions where water scarcity is a major challenge. Livestock ranching allows farmers to utilize the available land and resources efficiently while adapting to the environmental conditions of low rainfall areas.

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13.

Modern theory of monsoon considers this system a result ofI. differential heatingII. rotation of the earthIII. shifting of pressure beltIV. high pressure on land
- A.
  
  I & II
- B.
  
  II & IV
- C.
  
  I, II & IV
- D.
  
  I & III
Correct Answer
D. I & III

Explanation
The modern theory of monsoon considers the monsoon system as a result of differential heating and shifting of pressure belts. Differential heating refers to the uneven heating of land and water surfaces, which creates temperature gradients and leads to the formation of low-pressure areas over land and high-pressure areas over oceans. The shifting of pressure belts refers to the movement of these pressure systems due to the seasonal changes in solar radiation. Therefore, the correct answer is I & III, as both differential heating and shifting of pressure belts are considered to be factors in the formation of monsoons.

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14.

Irrigation is required in India because
- A.
  
  Of low amount of rainfall
- B.
  
  The growing of crops call for it
- C.
  
  Of the uneven distribution of rainfall over space
- D.
  
  Of the uneven distribution of rainfall over time
Correct Answer
D. Of the uneven distribution of rainfall over time

Explanation
Irrigation is required in India because of the uneven distribution of rainfall over time. This means that there are periods of drought or low rainfall, which can be detrimental to crop growth. To ensure a steady water supply for agriculture, irrigation is necessary to supplement the rainfall during these dry periods.

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15.

The westerly disturbance causing winter rains in northern India originate in
- A.
  
  Himalays
- B.
  
  Pakistan
- C.
  
  Arabian sea
- D.
  
  Mediterranean sea
Correct Answer
D. Mediterranean sea

Explanation
The westerly disturbance causing winter rains in northern India originate in the Mediterranean Sea. This is because the Mediterranean Sea is known for its unique weather patterns, including the formation of low-pressure systems. These low-pressure systems move eastwards towards India, bringing moisture and rainfall to the northern region during the winter months. The moisture-laden air from the Mediterranean Sea interacts with the cold air over the Himalayas, resulting in precipitation in northern India.

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16.

How does common salt help in separating soap from the solution after saponification?
- A.
  
  By decreasing density of Soap
- B.
  
  By decreasing solubility of Soap
- C.
  
  By increasing density of Soap
- D.
  
  By increasing solubility of Soap
Correct Answer
B. By decreasing solubility of Soap

Explanation
Common salt helps in separating soap from the solution after saponification by decreasing the solubility of soap. When common salt is added to the solution, it causes the soap molecules to aggregate and form larger particles called micelles. These micelles are insoluble in water and can easily be separated from the solution through processes such as filtration or sedimentation. Therefore, the addition of common salt decreases the solubility of soap, allowing it to be separated from the solution more effectively.

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17.

Paper is manufactured by
- A.
  
  Wood and resin
- B.
  
  Wood, sodium and bleaching powder
- C.
  
  Wood, calcium, hydrogen sulphite and resin
- D.
  
  Wood and bleaching powder
Correct Answer
C. Wood, calcium, hydrogen sulpHite and resin

Explanation
Paper is manufactured by using wood pulp as the main raw material. The wood is first processed to remove impurities and then converted into pulp. Calcium is added to the pulp to improve the strength and brightness of the paper. Hydrogen sulphite is used as a bleaching agent to remove any remaining impurities and to whiten the paper. Resin is added to provide strength and improve the water resistance of the paper. Therefore, the correct answer is "Wood, calcium, hydrogen sulphite, and resin."

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18.

In an atomic explosion, enormous energy is released which is due to
- A.
  
  Conversion of chemical energy into heat energy
- B.
  
  Conversion of mechanical energy into nuclear energy
- C.
  
  Conversion of mass into energy
- D.
  
  Conversion of neutrons into protons
Correct Answer
C. Conversion of mass into energy

Explanation
The correct answer is conversion of mass into energy. In an atomic explosion, a small amount of mass is converted into a large amount of energy according to Einstein's famous equation E=mc². This process, known as nuclear fission or fusion, releases an enormous amount of energy in the form of heat, light, and radiation. The mass of the atomic nucleus decreases during this process, and the "lost" mass is converted into a tremendous amount of energy. This is the fundamental principle behind the immense destructive power of atomic bombs and the energy generated in nuclear power plants.

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19.

The dark lines in the solar spectrum are due to
- A.
  
  Absorption of corresponding wavelengths by the outer layers of the sun
- B.
  
  Destructive interference between waves of certain definite wavelengths
- C.
  
  Absorption of corresponding wavelengths by the prism used in the photograph
- D.
  
  Absence of corresponding wavelengths from the light emitted by the core of the sun
Correct Answer
A. Absorption of corresponding wavelengths by the outer layers of the sun

Explanation
The dark lines in the solar spectrum are due to the absorption of corresponding wavelengths by the outer layers of the sun. When light from the sun passes through the outer layers, certain wavelengths are absorbed by the elements present in those layers. This absorption creates dark lines in the spectrum, indicating the absence of those specific wavelengths. By analyzing these dark lines, scientists can determine the composition of the sun's outer layers and gain insights into its chemical makeup.

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20.

Very small time intervals are accurately measure by
- A.
  
  White dwarfs
- B.
  
  Quartz clocks
- C.
  
  Atomic clocks
- D.
  
  Pulsars
Correct Answer
C. Atomic clocks

Explanation
Atomic clocks are the most accurate devices for measuring very small time intervals. They use the vibrations of atoms, typically cesium or rubidium, to measure time with extreme precision. These clocks are based on the principle that the frequency of atomic vibrations is constant and can be used as a stable reference for timekeeping. By counting these vibrations, atomic clocks can measure time intervals with an accuracy of up to a few billionths of a second. This makes them highly reliable and widely used in scientific research, navigation systems, and various technological applications.

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21.

An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity of 600 km/h and at a height of 1960 m. When it is vertically at a point A on the ground a bomb is released from it. The bomb strikes the ground at point B. The distance AB is
- A.
  
  1200 m
- B.
  
  0.33 km
- C.
  
  3.33 km
- D.
  
  33 km
Correct Answer
C. 3.33 km

Explanation
As the airplane is flying horizontally, the horizontal velocity of the bomb will be the same as the airplane, which is 600 km/h. The time taken by the bomb to reach the ground can be calculated using the formula: time = height / vertical velocity. Since the vertical velocity is 0 (as the bomb is dropped), the time taken will be 0. Therefore, the horizontal distance covered by the bomb will be 0 km. However, the question asks for the distance AB, which is the total distance covered by the bomb. Since the bomb is dropped vertically, the distance AB will be equal to the horizontal distance covered by the airplane, which is 600 km/h * time taken. Substituting the values, AB = 600 km/h * 0 = 0 km. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.33 km.

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22.

It is easier to roll a barrel full of coal tar than to pull it because
- A.
  
  The full weight of the barrel comes into play when it is pulled
- B.
  
  The rolling friction is much less than the sliding friction
- C.
  
  More surface area of the barrel is in contact with the road when it is pulled
- D.
  
  Coal tar is a liquid and it flows in the barrel when it is rolled
Correct Answer
B. The rolling friction is much less than the sliding friction

Explanation
The correct answer is that the rolling friction is much less than the sliding friction. When an object is rolled, the friction between the object and the surface is distributed over a smaller area compared to when it is slid. This reduces the overall frictional force acting on the object, making it easier to move. In the case of rolling a barrel full of coal tar, the rolling friction allows for smoother movement and requires less force compared to pulling it, where the full weight of the barrel would come into play and increase the sliding friction.

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23.

One should not connect a number of electrical appliances to the same power socket because
- A.
  
  This can damage the appliances due to overloading
- B.
  
  This can damage the domestic wiring due to overloading
- C.
  
  This can damage the electrical meter
- D.
  
  The appliance will not get full voltage
Correct Answer
B. This can damage the domestic wiring due to overloading

Explanation
Connecting a number of electrical appliances to the same power socket can lead to overloading of the domestic wiring. When multiple appliances draw power from the same socket, it can exceed the maximum capacity of the wiring, causing it to overheat and potentially lead to a fire hazard. This is why it is important to distribute the load among different sockets to prevent damage to the domestic wiring.

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24.

On a stationary sail boat, air is blown from a fan attached to the boat. The boat
- A.
  
  Moves in opposite direction in which the air is blown
- B.
  
  Does not move
- C.
  
  Moves in the same direction in which air blows
- D.
  
  Spins around
Correct Answer
B. Does not move

Explanation
When air is blown from a fan attached to a stationary sail boat, the boat does not move. This is because the force exerted by the air blowing from the fan is equal and opposite to the force exerted by the boat. According to Newton's third law of motion, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. Therefore, the forces cancel each other out, resulting in no net force on the boat and causing it to remain stationary.

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25.

Mercury is commonly used as a thermometric fluid rather than water because
- A.
  
  Specific heat of mercury is less than water
- B.
  
  Specific heat of mercury is more than water
- C.
  
  Mercury has greater visibility than water
- D.
  
  Density of mercury is more than the water
Correct Answer
C. Mercury has greater visibility than water

Explanation
Mercury is commonly used as a thermometric fluid rather than water because it has greater visibility than water. This means that it is easier to see the level of mercury in a thermometer compared to water, making it more accurate and reliable for measuring temperature. Additionally, mercury has a lower specific heat compared to water, which means it heats up and cools down more quickly, allowing for faster temperature readings. Its higher density also allows for a wider temperature range to be measured.

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26.

The first attempt st introducing a representative and popular element in the governance of India was made through:
- A.
  
  Indian council act 1861
- B.
  
  Indian council act 1892
- C.
  
  Indian council act 1909
- D.
  
  Government of India act 1919
Correct Answer
C. Indian council act 1909

Explanation
The Indian Council Act of 1909 was the first attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in the governance of India. This act expanded the legislative councils and allowed for the election of some members, although the majority were still appointed by the British government. It also increased the participation of Indians in the legislative process and gave them limited control over certain aspects of governance. While it was not a fully democratic system, it marked a significant step towards greater Indian representation in the government.

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27.

During the Swadeshi movement, of the several forms of struggle thrown up by the movement, which one met with greatest success in the course of the movement
- A.
  
  Boycott of the government educational institutions
- B.
  
  Development of swadeshi industries
- C.
  
  Disobeying of unjust laws
- D.
  
  Boycott of foreign goods
Correct Answer
D. Boycott of foreign goods

Explanation
During the Swadeshi movement, the boycott of foreign goods met with the greatest success. This form of struggle aimed at promoting self-reliance and supporting indigenous industries. By boycotting foreign goods, people were able to reduce their dependence on imported products and instead support local businesses. This not only helped in strengthening the Indian economy but also sent a strong message to the British colonial rulers about the determination and unity of the Indian people. The boycott of foreign goods became a powerful tool in the fight for independence and played a significant role in the Swadeshi movement.

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28.

The president holds office for a term of five years:
- A.
  
  From the date on which he is elected
- B.
  
  From the date on which he enters the office
- C.
  
  From the date of determination by the parliamentt
- D.
  
  From the date notified by the election commisson
Correct Answer
B. From the date on which he enters the office

Explanation
The correct answer is "from the date on which he enters the office." This means that the president's term of five years begins on the day he officially starts working as the president. This could be the day after he is elected or a later date determined by the election commission. The term does not start from the date of determination by the parliament or the date notified by the election commission.

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29.

The following is the pardoning power of the president
- A.
  
  In matter relating to court martial
- B.
  
  In matter relating to rejection of mercy appeal
- C.
  
  In matter relating to president's executive power
- D.
  
  In matter where there is death sentence
Correct Answer
B. In matter relating to rejection of mercy appeal

Explanation
The correct answer is "in matter relating to rejection of mercy appeal." The president has the power to pardon or commute sentences of individuals convicted of federal crimes. This power includes the authority to reject mercy appeals, which are requests for clemency or leniency in punishment. The president can review these appeals and make a decision on whether to grant or deny them. This power allows the president to exercise discretion and provide relief to individuals who may have been unjustly sentenced or who have shown remorse and rehabilitation.

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30.

Impeachment proceedings against the president of India can be initiated
- A.
  
  By the supreme court
- B.
  
  Only in lok sabha
- C.
  
  In either house of parliament
- D.
  
  Only in joint sitting of the two houses of the parliament
Correct Answer
C. In either house of parliament

Explanation
Impeachment proceedings against the president of India can be initiated in either house of parliament. This means that either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha can initiate the process. Impeachment is a formal process of accusing a high-ranking public official of misconduct, and in this case, it refers to the removal of the president from office. The Constitution of India grants the power to initiate impeachment proceedings to both houses of parliament, allowing for a fair and democratic process to hold the president accountable for any wrongdoing.

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31.

Which one of the following does not take part in the election of the president?
- A.
  
  Elected member of lok sabha
- B.
  
  Elected member of rajya sabha
- C.
  
  Elected member of legislative council
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Elected member of legislative council

Explanation
The elected member of the legislative council does not take part in the election of the president. The president of India is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the elected members of both houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states. However, the elected members of the legislative council, which is the upper house of the state legislature, do not participate in the election of the president.

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32.

the president can make laws through ordinances:
- A.
  
  During the recess of the parliament
- B.
  
  On certain subjects even when parliament is in session
- C.
  
  Only on subjects listed in the concurrent list
- D.
  
  Under no circumstances
Correct Answer
A. During the recess of the parliament

Explanation
The president can make laws through ordinances during the recess of the parliament. This means that when the parliament is not in session, the president has the power to issue ordinances that have the force of law. This allows the president to take immediate action on important matters even when the parliament is not in session. However, this power is limited to the period when the parliament is in recess and cannot be exercised when the parliament is in session.

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33.

Assertion (A): Equality before law is not applicable to the president of IndiaReason (R): The president of India enjoys special privileges under constitution of India
- A.
  
  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- B.
  
  Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- C.
  
  A is true but R is false.
- D.
  
  A is false but R is true.
Correct Answer
D. A is false but R is true.

Explanation
The correct answer is A is false but R is true. The assertion states that equality before the law is not applicable to the president of India, while the reason explains that the president enjoys special privileges under the constitution. This implies that the president is not subject to the same laws and regulations as the general public, indicating that A is false. However, R is true as the president does indeed have special privileges outlined in the constitution.

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34.

The tenure is vice-president is
- A.
  
  Co-terminus with that of the president
- B.
  
  Five years
- C.
  
  Dependent on the will of the presodent
- D.
  
  Six years
Correct Answer
B. Five years

Explanation
The tenure of the vice-president is five years. This means that the vice-president holds office for a period of five years. The term of the vice-president is linked or co-terminus with that of the president, which means that both the president and vice-president serve for the same duration. Therefore, the correct answer is five years.

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35.

The Union Executive of India consists of?
- A.
  
  The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministers only
- B.
  
  The President and the council of Ministers only
- C.
  
  The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministers and Lok Sabha speaker
- D.
  
  The President, Prime Minister, Deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha speaker
Correct Answer
A. The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministers only

Explanation
The Union Executive of India consists of the President, Vice-President, and the Council of Ministers only. This is because the President is the head of the executive branch and is assisted by the Vice-President and the Council of Ministers in the day-to-day administration of the country. The President is elected by an electoral college, the Vice-President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of Parliament, and the Council of Ministers is appointed by the President to aid and advise him in the exercise of his functions.

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36.

The proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice-President can be presented by?
- A.
  
  Any House of the Parliament
- B.
  
  Rajya sabha
- C.
  
  Lok Sabha
- D.
  
  To President of India
Correct Answer
B. Rajya sabha

Explanation
The proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice-President can be presented by the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India and has the power to initiate the process of removing the Vice-President from office. This is in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India, which grants the Rajya Sabha the authority to take such actions.

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37.

In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to address his resignation letter?
- A.
  
  Chief Justice of India
- B.
  
  Secretary of Lok Sabha
- C.
  
  Vice president
- D.
  
  Prime Minister
Correct Answer
C. Vice president

Explanation
If the President wishes to resign, he is to address his resignation letter to the Vice President. The Vice President is the second highest-ranking official in the government and is responsible for assuming the duties of the President in case of resignation, death, or incapacity. Therefore, it is logical for the President to inform the Vice President directly about his decision to resign.

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38.

Inflation in india is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators?
- A.
  
  Cost of living index
- B.
  
  Consumer price index
- C.
  
  GDP
- D.
  
  Wholesale price index
Correct Answer
D. Wholesale price index

Explanation
The correct answer is Wholesale price index. Inflation in India is measured using the Wholesale Price Index (WPI). WPI tracks the average change in the prices of goods at the wholesale level. It includes a wide range of commodities and is considered an important indicator of inflationary pressures in the economy. The WPI is calculated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry on a weekly basis and is used by policymakers, economists, and investors to monitor inflation trends and make informed decisions.

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39.

The aim of employment oriented planning is
- A.
  
  Promoting capital intensive projects
- B.
  
  Promoting labour intensive projects
- C.
  
  Increasing the activities in the agricultural sector
- D.
  
  Increasing the export
Correct Answer
B. Promoting labour intensive projects

Explanation
The aim of employment oriented planning is to promote labour intensive projects. This means that the focus is on creating jobs and employment opportunities for the local workforce. By promoting labour intensive projects, the government or organization aims to stimulate economic growth, reduce unemployment rates, and improve the overall living standards of the population. This approach is particularly important in countries with high levels of unemployment or underemployment, as it helps to address the issue by encouraging the development of industries that require a large workforce.

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40.

Estimates of national income is prepared by
- A.
  
  Planning commission
- B.
  
  Ministry of finance
- C.
  
  Central statistical organisation
- D.
  
  Reserve bank of India
Correct Answer
C. Central statistical organisation

Explanation
The Central Statistical Organisation is responsible for preparing estimates of national income. They collect and analyze data from various sectors of the economy to calculate the overall income of the country. This includes data on production, consumption, investment, and government spending. The Central Statistical Organisation plays a crucial role in providing accurate and reliable information on the national income, which is essential for policy-making, economic planning, and monitoring the economic progress of the country.

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41.

If all the banks in an economy are nationalized and converted into a monopoly bank, the total deposits
- A.
  
  Will decrease
- B.
  
  Will increase
- C.
  
  Will neither increase nor decrease
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Will neither increase nor decrease

Explanation
If all the banks in an economy are nationalized and converted into a monopoly bank, the total deposits will neither increase nor decrease. This is because nationalizing and converting the banks into a monopoly bank does not directly affect the total amount of deposits in the economy. The nationalized bank will still hold the same deposits that were previously held by the individual banks. Therefore, there will be no change in the total deposits.

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42.

One of the reasons for India's occupational structure remaining more or less the same over the years has been that
- A.
  
  Investment pattern has been directed towards capital intensive industries
- B.
  
  Productivity in agriculture has been high enough to induce people to stay with agriculture
- C.
  
  Ceiling on land holdings have enabled more people to own land and hence their preference to stay with agriculture
- D.
  
  People are largely unaware of the significance of transition from agriculture to industry for economic development
Correct Answer
A. Investment pattern has been directed towards capital intensive industries

Explanation
The investment pattern being directed towards capital intensive industries means that more investment has been focused on industries that require large amounts of capital, such as manufacturing or infrastructure. This has led to a lack of investment in agriculture and other sectors, which has resulted in a limited shift in the occupational structure. As a result, people are more likely to stay in agriculture as it remains a profitable and viable option due to high productivity.

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43.

If an economy is equilibrium at the point where plans to save and to invest are equal, then government expenditure must be
- A.
  
  Zero
- B.
  
  Equal to government income
- C.
  
  Larger than government income
- D.
  
  Negative
Correct Answer
B. Equal to government income

Explanation
If an economy is in equilibrium at the point where plans to save and to invest are equal, it means that the total amount of savings in the economy is equal to the total amount of investment. In this case, if government expenditure is not equal to government income, it would disrupt the equilibrium. Therefore, government expenditure must be equal to government income in order to maintain the equilibrium.

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44.

Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if
- A.
  
  Prices of domestic goods remain constant
- B.
  
  Prices of exports remain constant
- C.
  
  Prices of imports remains constant
- D.
  
  Prices of exports rise proportionately
Correct Answer
B. Prices of exports remain constant

Explanation
Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of exports remain constant because it will make the country's goods and services more competitive in the international market. When a country's currency is devalued, its exports become cheaper for foreign buyers, leading to increased demand and higher export volumes. This can boost the country's economy by increasing export revenues, creating jobs, and improving the balance of trade. If prices of exports rise proportionately, it may reduce the competitiveness of the country's goods, limiting the potential benefits of currency devaluation.

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45.

The apex body for formulating plans and coordinating research work in agriculture and allied fields is
- A.
  
  State Trading Corporation
- B.
  
  Regional Rural Banks
- C.
  
  National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
- D.
  
  Indian Council of Agricultural Research
Correct Answer
D. Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Explanation
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body responsible for formulating plans and coordinating research work in agriculture and allied fields. ICAR is an autonomous organization under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. It is involved in conducting research, providing technical assistance, and promoting agricultural education and extension activities. ICAR plays a crucial role in developing and implementing agricultural policies and programs to enhance productivity, sustainability, and profitability in the agricultural sector in India.

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46.

If the RBI adopts an expansionist open market operations policy, this means that it will
- A.
  
  Sell securities in the open market
- B.
  
  Buy securities from non-government holders
- C.
  
  Offer commercial banks more credit in the open market
- D.
  
  Openly announce to the market that it intends to expand credit
Correct Answer
C. Offer commercial banks more credit in the open market

Explanation
If the RBI adopts an expansionist open market operations policy, it means that it will offer commercial banks more credit in the open market. This policy is aimed at increasing the money supply in the economy. By offering more credit to commercial banks, the RBI encourages them to lend more to businesses and individuals, thus stimulating economic activity and promoting growth. This approach also helps in lowering interest rates, making borrowing more affordable and encouraging investment and consumption.

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47.

Which of the following is not viewed as a national debt?
- A.
  
  Provident Fund
- B.
  
  Life Insurance Policies
- C.
  
  National Saving Certificate
- D.
  
  Long-term Government Bonds
Correct Answer
C. National Saving Certificate

Explanation
National Saving Certificate is not viewed as a national debt because it is a type of investment scheme offered by the government to individuals, rather than a form of borrowing or debt incurred by the government. It is a savings instrument that allows individuals to invest their money and earn interest over time. In contrast, Provident Fund, Life Insurance Policies, and Long-term Government Bonds are all forms of national debt as they involve borrowing money by the government either from individuals or financial institutions.

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48.

Non Tax revenues can be increased by improving the working of the
- A.
  
  State Road Transport Corporations
- B.
  
  Electricity boards
- C.
  
  Commercial irrigation projects
- D.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Commercial irrigation projects

Explanation
Commercial irrigation projects can contribute to non-tax revenues by generating income through the sale of water to commercial entities. By improving the working of these projects, their efficiency and profitability can be increased, leading to higher revenues. This can be achieved through measures such as modernizing infrastructure, implementing efficient water management techniques, and ensuring proper maintenance and operation of the projects.

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49.

Deficit financing means that the government borrows money from the
- A.
  
  RBI
- B.
  
  Local bodies
- C.
  
  Big businessmen
- D.
  
  IMF
Correct Answer
A. RBI

Explanation
Deficit financing refers to a situation where the government borrows money to cover its budget deficit. In this case, the correct answer is RBI, which stands for Reserve Bank of India. The RBI is the central bank of India and has the authority to lend money to the government through various mechanisms such as issuing government securities, treasury bills, or providing loans. By borrowing from the RBI, the government can finance its expenditures and bridge the gap between its income and expenses.

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50.

Gross domestic capital formation is defined as
- A.
  
  Flow of expenditure devoted to increased or maintaining of the capital stock
- B.
  
  Expenditure incurred on physical assets only
- C.
  
  Production exceeding demand
- D.
  
  Net addition to stock after depreciation
Correct Answer
D. Net addition to stock after depreciation

Explanation
Gross domestic capital formation refers to the net addition to the capital stock of a country's economy after accounting for depreciation. It represents the flow of expenditure that is dedicated to increasing or maintaining the capital stock. This expenditure includes investments in physical assets such as machinery, equipment, and infrastructure. By subtracting the amount of depreciation from the total capital stock, we can determine the net addition to the stock. This measure is important for understanding the level of investment and the overall growth potential of an economy.

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