Amt Practice Exam
Registered Medical Assistant practice exam
- 1.
A protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is
- A.
Elastin
- B.
Keratin
- C.
Melanin
- D.
Collagen
Correct Answer
B. KeratinExplanation
Keratin is a protein found in the epidermal cells of the skin. It forms a protective layer that helps to make the skin relatively waterproof. Keratin is known for its structural properties and is responsible for the strength and resilience of the skin, hair, and nails. It helps to prevent excessive water loss from the skin and protects it from external factors such as chemicals and pathogens.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is
- A.
An open fracture
- B.
A compound fracture
- C.
A comminuted fracture
- D.
A greenstick fracture
Correct Answer
C. A comminuted fractureExplanation
A comminuted fracture is a type of bone fracture where the bone is broken into multiple fragments. This can occur due to high-impact trauma or a direct blow to the bone. In a comminuted fracture, the bone shatters into several pieces, making it more difficult to treat and heal compared to other types of fractures. This type of fracture often requires surgical intervention to realign and stabilize the bone fragments for proper healing.Rate this question:
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- 3.
At what point does systolic pressure occur?
- A.
During ventricular relaxation
- B.
During ventricular contraction
- C.
During contraction of the aorta
- D.
During relaxation of the atria
Correct Answer
B. During ventricular contractionExplanation
Systolic pressure occurs during ventricular contraction. This is when the heart's ventricles contract and pump blood out of the heart and into the arteries. The contraction of the ventricles causes the highest pressure in the arteries, which is known as systolic pressure. This is the first number recorded when measuring blood pressure, representing the pressure when the heart is actively pumping blood.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The outermost of the the pericardial membranes is the
- A.
Epicardium
- B.
Fibrous pericardium
- C.
Visceral pericardium
- D.
Parietal pericardium
Correct Answer
B. Fibrous pericardiumExplanation
The fibrous pericardium is the outermost of the pericardial membranes. It is a tough, fibrous layer that surrounds and protects the heart. The fibrous pericardium is made up of dense connective tissue and provides structural support to the heart, preventing overexpansion and protecting it from external forces. It also helps to anchor the heart in place within the chest cavity. The other options, such as the epicardium, visceral pericardium, and parietal pericardium, are all inner layers of the pericardial membranes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need, is vitamin
- A.
A
- B.
E
- C.
K
- D.
D
Correct Answer
C. KExplanation
The correct answer is K. The normal flora of the colon produces vitamin K in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting and plays a role in bone health. It is mainly produced by bacteria in the large intestine and can also be obtained through diet, particularly from leafy green vegetables.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Where do peristaltic waves occur?
- A.
Large Intestines
- B.
Esophagus
- C.
Small Intestines
- D.
Liver
Correct Answer
B. EsopHagusExplanation
Peristaltic waves occur in the esophagus. These waves are rhythmic contractions of the smooth muscles in the esophagus that help to propel food from the mouth to the stomach. The muscles contract in a coordinated wave-like fashion, pushing the food downward through the esophagus. This process is essential for the movement of food through the digestive system and allows for efficient digestion and absorption of nutrients.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the medical term for "baby teeth"?
- A.
Deciduous
- B.
Small Teeth
- C.
Fake Teeth
- D.
Bicuspid
Correct Answer
A. DeciduousExplanation
Deciduous is the correct answer because it is the medical term used to describe "baby teeth." Deciduous teeth are the first set of teeth that erupt in children, and they are eventually replaced by permanent teeth. The term "deciduous" is derived from Latin, meaning "to fall off," which refers to the fact that these teeth will eventually be shed.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the
- A.
Nasopharynx
- B.
Oropharynx
- C.
Laryngopharynx
- D.
Larynx
Correct Answer
A. NasopHarynxExplanation
The nasopharynx is the correct answer because it is the part of the pharynx that serves as a passageway for air only. It is located behind the nasal cavity and above the oropharynx. The nasopharynx is responsible for conducting air from the nasal passages into the rest of the respiratory system, while the oropharynx and laryngopharynx are involved in both air and food passage. The larynx, on the other hand, is the structure commonly known as the voice box and is responsible for sound production.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of
- A.
Niacin
- B.
Thiamin
- C.
Vitamin A
- D.
Vitamin D
Correct Answer
C. Vitamin AExplanation
Night blindness is a condition where an individual has difficulty seeing in low light or darkness. It is commonly caused by a deficiency of vitamin A. Vitamin A is essential for the functioning of the retina, the part of the eye that is responsible for vision in low light conditions. A deficiency of vitamin A can lead to a deterioration of the retina, resulting in night blindness. Therefore, the correct answer is vitamin A.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A medical assistant taking a pulse by listening to the heart is taking a
- A.
Radial pulse
- B.
Pedal pulse
- C.
Carotid pulse
- D.
Apical pulse
Correct Answer
D. Apical pulseExplanation
The correct answer is apical pulse. This is because when a medical assistant listens to the heart, they are specifically listening to the apical pulse. The apical pulse is taken by placing a stethoscope on the chest near the apex of the heart, usually at the fifth intercostal space. This allows the medical assistant to hear the heart sounds and determine the rate and rhythm of the heartbeat. The other options, radial pulse, pedal pulse, and carotid pulse, refer to different pulse points in the body, but they are not specifically related to listening to the heart.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The right lung is divided into how many sections?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The right lung is divided into three sections, known as lobes. These lobes are the superior, middle, and inferior lobes. Each lobe has its own separate blood supply and is further divided into smaller segments. The division of the lung into lobes allows for efficient ventilation and distribution of air throughout the lung.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Growth hormone is produced in the
- A.
Thymus
- B.
Thyroid
- C.
Pancreas
- D.
Pituitary
Correct Answer
D. PituitaryExplanation
The growth hormone is produced in the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland is a small, pea-sized gland located at the base of the brain. It is often referred to as the "master gland" because it produces and releases several important hormones that regulate various bodily functions, including growth. The growth hormone, also known as somatotropin, plays a crucial role in stimulating growth and development in children and adolescents. It also helps regulate metabolism, body composition, and muscle and bone growth in both children and adults.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the
- A.
Ureter
- B.
Renal pelvis
- C.
Urinary bladder
- D.
Bowman's capsule
Correct Answer
B. Renal pelvisExplanation
The renal pelvis is the correct answer because it is the cavity within the kidney that collects urine. It is a funnel-shaped structure that connects the kidney to the ureter, which then transports the urine to the urinary bladder. The renal pelvis serves as a reservoir for urine before it is eliminated from the body. Bowman's capsule, on the other hand, is a part of the nephron in the kidney that filters blood to form urine.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is the
- A.
Rennin
- B.
Gastrin
- C.
CCK
- D.
Pepsin
Correct Answer
D. PepsinExplanation
Pepsin is the most important digestive enzyme in gastric juice because it plays a crucial role in breaking down proteins into smaller peptides. It is secreted as an inactive form called pepsinogen, which is activated by the acidic environment in the stomach. Once activated, pepsin starts breaking down proteins into smaller fragments, facilitating their digestion and absorption in the small intestine. Without pepsin, proper protein digestion would be compromised, leading to nutrient deficiencies and digestive issues.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The internal folds of the stomach are known as
- A.
Villi
- B.
Rugae
- C.
Cilia
- D.
Convolutions
Correct Answer
B. RugaeExplanation
The internal folds of the stomach are known as rugae. These rugae are important for increasing the surface area of the stomach, allowing it to expand and accommodate more food. They also help in the mixing and digestion of food by increasing the contact between the stomach lining and the food particles. The term "villi" refers to small finger-like projections found in the small intestine, "cilia" are hair-like structures involved in movement, and "convolutions" are the folds in the brain.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?
- A.
Aorta
- B.
Carotid
- C.
Coronary
- D.
Pulmonary
Correct Answer
A. AortaExplanation
The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through the aorta. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. It branches out into smaller arteries, supplying oxygen and nutrients to various organs and tissues. The carotid artery carries blood to the head and neck, the coronary arteries supply blood to the heart muscle, and the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Permanent adult dentition consists of _______ teeth.
- A.
32
- B.
30
- C.
20
- D.
18
Correct Answer
A. 32Explanation
Permanent adult dentition consists of 32 teeth. This is because a full set of permanent teeth in adults includes 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, and 12 molars (including 4 wisdom teeth). This totals to 32 teeth in total.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The lining of the uterus is called the
- A.
Myometrium
- B.
Endometrium
- C.
Peritoneum
- D.
Mycardium
Correct Answer
B. EndometriumExplanation
The lining of the uterus is called the endometrium. This is the innermost layer of the uterus and plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. The endometrium thickens and prepares for implantation of a fertilized egg during the menstrual cycle. If pregnancy does not occur, the endometrium is shed during menstruation. If pregnancy occurs, the endometrium provides nourishment and support to the developing embryo.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?
- A.
Glaucoma
- B.
Presbyopia
- C.
Conjunctivitis
- D.
Astigmatism
Correct Answer
B. PresbyopiaExplanation
Presbyopia is the most common eye condition associated with aging. It is a natural part of the aging process and occurs when the lens of the eye becomes less flexible, resulting in difficulty focusing on close objects. This condition typically becomes noticeable around the age of 40 and gradually worsens over time. It is different from other vision problems like astigmatism, glaucoma, and conjunctivitis, which can affect individuals of all ages.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The prefix "ad" means
- A.
To move away from
- B.
To add to
- C.
Around
- D.
Removal of
Correct Answer
B. To add toExplanation
The prefix "ad" in this context means "to add to". This prefix is commonly used in words like "adhesive" (to stick or attach) and "advance" (to move forward or progress). It indicates that something is being added or joined with another thing, implying an increase or enhancement.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Abnormal widening of the atrial wall that is weak and bulges defines the term
- A.
Embolism
- B.
Phlebitis
- C.
Aneurysm
- D.
Arteriosclerosis
Correct Answer
C. AneurysmExplanation
An aneurysm refers to an abnormal widening of the atrial wall that is weak and bulges. This condition occurs when there is a localized weakness in the blood vessel wall, causing it to balloon out and potentially rupture. Aneurysms can occur in various parts of the body, but in this case, it specifically refers to the atrial wall. Embolism, phlebitis, and arteriosclerosis are unrelated conditions and do not involve the bulging of the atrial wall.Rate this question:
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- 22.
"Ostomy" is a
- A.
Root
- B.
Prefix
- C.
Suffix
- D.
Combing form
Correct Answer
C. SuffixExplanation
"Ostomy" is a suffix because it is a word part that is added to the end of a word to modify its meaning. In medical terminology, the suffix "ostomy" is commonly used to indicate a surgical procedure that creates an artificial opening in the body for the passage of waste material. Examples include colostomy, ileostomy, and urostomy.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The medical term for indigestion is
- A.
Dyspepsia
- B.
Dyspahagia
- C.
Stomatitis
- D.
Ascites
Correct Answer
A. DyspepsiaExplanation
Dyspepsia is the correct answer because it is the medical term for indigestion. It refers to a condition characterized by discomfort or pain in the upper abdomen, bloating, and feeling full quickly during meals. Dyspahagia refers to difficulty swallowing, stomatitis refers to inflammation of the mouth, and ascites refers to the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Encephalopathy is defined as
- A.
Swelling of the brain
- B.
Deterioration of the brain
- C.
Inflammation of the brain
- D.
Any dysfunction of the brain
Correct Answer
D. Any dysfunction of the brainExplanation
Encephalopathy is a broad term that encompasses any dysfunction or abnormality in the brain. It can be caused by various factors such as infections, toxins, metabolic disorders, or traumatic brain injuries. This condition can lead to a wide range of symptoms including cognitive impairment, memory loss, seizures, and changes in behavior or personality. Therefore, "any dysfunction of the brain" is an accurate and comprehensive definition for encephalopathy.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called
- A.
Rectocele
- B.
Rectolingual
- C.
Rectostenosis
- D.
Rectouretheral
Correct Answer
A. RectoceleExplanation
A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called rectocele. This condition occurs when the muscles and tissues that support the rectum weaken, allowing the rectum to bulge into the vagina. It can cause symptoms such as difficulty in passing stool, a sensation of incomplete bowel movement, and pelvic pressure. Rectocele is commonly seen in women, especially those who have given birth or have chronic constipation. Treatment options include lifestyle changes, pelvic floor exercises, and in severe cases, surgery.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from
- A.
Loss of credentials
- B.
Civil and criminal liability
- C.
Contracting diseases
- D.
Accidental injury
Correct Answer
B. Civil and criminal liabilityExplanation
The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from civil and criminal liability. This means that if a healthcare provider acts in good faith to provide First Aid to someone in need, they cannot be held legally responsible for any harm or injury that may occur during the process. This protection encourages healthcare providers to assist in emergency situations without fear of facing legal consequences for their actions.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A medical assistant makes a medication error while under the physician's direction. The patient is injured and files a medical malpractice lawsuit. The court determines that the physician is liable for the medical assistant's negligence. This is known as the doctrine of
- A.
Respondeat superior
- B.
Res ispa loquitur
- C.
Locum tenens
- D.
Res judicata
Correct Answer
A. Respondeat superiorExplanation
The correct answer is respondeat superior. Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds an employer or superior liable for the negligent actions of their employees or subordinates. In this case, the physician is held liable for the medication error made by the medical assistant while working under their direction. This doctrine recognizes that employers have a responsibility to ensure that their employees act with due care and can be held accountable for any harm caused by their negligence.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Medical Malpractice Acts are laws enacted to
- A.
Define what is included in the practice of medicine
- B.
Provide medical leave for employees
- C.
Prevent malpractice
- D.
Institute arbitration
Correct Answer
A. Define what is included in the practice of medicineExplanation
Medical Malpractice Acts are laws enacted to define what is included in the practice of medicine. These acts establish the legal boundaries and standards for medical professionals, outlining their responsibilities, scope of practice, and acceptable standards of care. By clearly defining what falls under the practice of medicine, these laws aim to protect patients from potential harm and ensure that healthcare providers are held accountable for any negligence or malpractice.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment.
- A.
Respondeat superior
- B.
Reciprocity
- C.
The Occupational Safety and Health Act
- D.
Patient's Bill of Rights
Correct Answer
A. Respondeat superiorExplanation
Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds physicians responsible for the actions of their employees when those employees are performing their job duties. This means that if a physician's employee, such as a nurse or medical assistant, commits a negligent act or makes a mistake while carrying out their job responsibilities, the physician can be held legally accountable for the employee's actions. This doctrine is based on the idea that the employer should be responsible for the actions of their employees while they are acting within the scope of their employment.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following cases would exemplify the concept of res ipsa loquitur?
- A.
A physician writes a schedule II drug prescription with no refills
- B.
A health care provider consults another provider for a patient requiring a specialist
- C.
A surgeon leaves a sponge in a patient's abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery
- D.
A physician advises against unnecessary surgery
Correct Answer
C. A surgeon leaves a sponge in a patient's abdominal cavity after abdominal surgeryExplanation
Res ipsa loquitur is a legal doctrine that allows a plaintiff to establish a presumption of negligence on the part of the defendant based on the occurrence of an accident or injury. In this case, the surgeon leaving a sponge in a patient's abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery would exemplify res ipsa loquitur because it is an obvious and preventable error that would not occur in the absence of negligence. The fact that a foreign object was left inside the patient's body is strong evidence of the surgeon's negligence.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In the absence of the employing physician, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a prescription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physician's supply. The performance of this totally wrong and unlawful act is known as
- A.
Malfeasance
- B.
Misfeasance
- C.
Nonfeasance
- D.
Duty
Correct Answer
D. DutyExplanation
The term "duty" refers to the responsibility or obligation that a person has to perform a certain action or task. In this scenario, the medical assistant has a duty to ensure that the correct prescription drug is dispensed to the patient when the physician is absent. However, by dispensing the wrong drug, the medical assistant has failed to fulfill their duty, resulting in a totally wrong and unlawful act.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?
- A.
Blood test
- B.
Lumbar puncture
- C.
Organ donation
- D.
Breast biopsy
Correct Answer
A. Blood testExplanation
Implied consent refers to a situation where a patient's consent is assumed based on their actions or behavior. In the context of medical procedures, a blood test is a common and relatively non-invasive procedure that is often included within the scope of implied consent. Since it does not involve significant risks or potential harm to the patient, it is generally considered acceptable to proceed with a blood test based on implied consent. However, it is important for healthcare professionals to communicate and obtain explicit consent whenever possible to ensure patient autonomy and understanding.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence?
- A.
Duty
- B.
Defamation
- C.
Direct cause
- D.
Damages
Correct Answer
B. DefamationExplanation
Defamation is not one of the four elements of negligence. The four elements that patients must present evidence of before negligence can be proven are duty, direct cause, damages, and breach of duty. Defamation refers to making false statements that harm someone's reputation, but it is not directly related to negligence.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient's legal representation with a deeper understanding of the patient's condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to
- A.
Implied consent
- B.
Informed consent
- C.
Reasonable consent
Correct Answer
B. Informed consentExplanation
Informed consent refers to a discussion between the physician and the patient or their legal representative, where the patient is provided with a thorough understanding of their condition and a detailed explanation of the treatment plan. Sufficient information is given to the patient so that they can make an educated decision about their medical care. This ensures that the patient is fully aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives involved in the proposed treatment, allowing them to provide their consent based on their understanding.Rate this question:
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- 35.
HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims
- A.
Through claims processing centers
- B.
Through electronic data exchange
- C.
By paper CMS 1500 forms
- D.
By facsimile transmission
Correct Answer
B. Through electronic data exchangeExplanation
HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims through electronic data exchange. This means that healthcare providers and other covered entities must use electronic means, such as electronic claims submission systems or clearinghouses, to transmit Medicare claims information securely and efficiently. This requirement aims to ensure the privacy and security of patient health information while streamlining the claims process for faster and more accurate reimbursement.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The statue that defines what is included in the practice of medicine, establishes the requirements for licensure, and establishes the grounds for suspension or revocation of a license is called the
- A.
Nursing and Advance Practice Nursing Act
- B.
Medical Practice Act
- C.
Patient's BIll of Rights
- D.
National Health Planning and Resources Development Act
Correct Answer
B. Medical Practice ActExplanation
The correct answer is Medical Practice Act. The Medical Practice Act is a statute that sets out the guidelines and regulations for the practice of medicine. It defines what is included in the practice of medicine, such as diagnosing and treating patients, and establishes the requirements for licensure for medical professionals. It also outlines the grounds for suspension or revocation of a medical license, ensuring that healthcare providers adhere to ethical and professional standards in their practice.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Dr. Martin agrees to perform an appendectomy on Mrs. O'Hara. Mrs. O'Hara has received anesthesia and is prepped for surgery. Dr. Martin is double-booked so he allows the Chief Resident, Dr. Thompson, to perform Mrs. O'Hara's appendectomy. The practice of substituting another surgeon without the patient's consent is considered
- A.
Surgical fee splitting
- B.
Contingent surgery
- C.
Ghost surgery
- D.
Surgical professional courtesy
Correct Answer
C. Ghost surgeryExplanation
Ghost surgery refers to the practice of allowing another surgeon to perform a procedure without the patient's knowledge or consent, while the original surgeon takes credit for the surgery. In this scenario, Dr. Martin allows Dr. Thompson to perform the appendectomy without informing Mrs. O'Hara, which is an example of ghost surgery.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which statement best describes the practice known as "fee splitting"?
- A.
It is the unethical practice of basing the physician's fee on the success of the treatment.
- B.
Is is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients.
- C.
If refers to the lowering of the physician's fee as a way to help poor patients.
- D.
Is is an appropriate method of allowing two physicians to work together in treating a patient.
Correct Answer
B. Is is the unethical practice in which pHysicians are paid for referring patients.Explanation
"Fee splitting" is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients. This means that physicians receive a financial incentive for sending patients to specific healthcare providers or facilities. This practice is considered unethical because it can compromise the physician's objectivity and potentially lead to unnecessary referrals or treatments. It undermines the trust between physicians and patients and can prioritize financial gain over the patient's best interests.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A patient is terminally ill. A family member does not wish for the patient to be told of said illness. A physician would violate which of the following ethical principles if she does not inform her patient of the correct diagnosis?
- A.
Fair distribution of benefits
- B.
Veracity
- C.
Maleficence
- D.
Justice
Correct Answer
B. VeracityExplanation
The physician would violate the ethical principle of veracity if she does not inform her patient of the correct diagnosis. Veracity refers to the duty to tell the truth and be honest with patients. By withholding the information about the patient's terminal illness, the physician would be failing to fulfill her obligation to be truthful and transparent with the patient.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Substitution of another surgeon without the patient's consent when the patient has already received anesthesia and has no idea that a substitution has been made is called
- A.
Legal waiver
- B.
Contractual relationship
- C.
Reparation
- D.
Ghost surgery
Correct Answer
D. Ghost surgeryExplanation
Ghost surgery refers to the practice of substituting another surgeon without the patient's consent while they are under anesthesia, without their knowledge. This unethical practice is considered a violation of the patient's autonomy and trust, as they have the right to know and consent to the medical professionals involved in their care. The term "ghost surgery" implies that the original surgeon appears to be performing the procedure, while in reality, someone else is doing the work.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as
- A.
Displacement
- B.
Denial
- C.
Physical avoidance
- D.
Projection
Correct Answer
B. DenialExplanation
Denial is a defense mechanism where an individual refuses to acknowledge or accept a personal problem or reality. It involves avoiding the truth and acting as if the problem or reality never existed. This can be a way for individuals to protect themselves from the discomfort or anxiety that comes with facing difficult situations. Denial allows them to maintain a sense of control and avoid dealing with the emotional or psychological impact of the problem or reality.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" starting from the bottom to the top?
- A.
Physiological needs, Love and Belonging, Safety and security, Esteem and recognition, Self-Actualization
- B.
Physiological needs, Safety and security, Esteem and recognition, Love and belonging, Self-Actualization
- C.
Physiological needs, Love and Belonging, Esteem and recognition, Safety and Security, Self-Actualization
- D.
Physiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and Belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-Actualization
Correct Answer
D. pHysiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and Belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-ActualizationExplanation
The correct order of Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" starting from the bottom to the top is physiological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, esteem and recognition, self-actualization. This hierarchy suggests that individuals must first satisfy their basic physiological needs such as food, water, and shelter before moving on to higher-level needs such as safety, love, esteem, and ultimately self-actualization. This order implies that individuals cannot fully focus on higher-level needs until their lower-level needs are met.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The justification behavior with socially-acceptable reasons and the tendency to ignore the real reasons underlying the behavior is a defense mechanism called
- A.
Repression
- B.
Displacement
- C.
Compensation
- D.
Rationalization
Correct Answer
D. RationalizationExplanation
Rationalization is a defense mechanism where individuals justify their behavior by providing socially-acceptable reasons, even if those reasons do not reflect the true underlying motives. This helps individuals avoid feelings of guilt or anxiety by creating a more acceptable narrative for their actions. It allows them to maintain a positive self-image and preserve their self-esteem.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction includes all of the following except
- A.
Back pain or aching and throbbing in the biceps or forearms
- B.
Shortness of breath
- C.
Feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum
- D.
Dizziness (vertigo) - unexplained lightheadedness or syncopal episodes
Correct Answer
C. Feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinumExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that educating female patients on signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction includes all of the listed options except for the feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum. The other options, such as back pain or aching and throbbing in the biceps or forearms, shortness of breath, and dizziness (vertigo) - unexplained lightheadedness or syncopal episodes, are all symptoms that can be associated with a myocardial infarction. However, feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum is not a commonly reported symptom of a heart attack.Rate this question:
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- 45.
With respect to education on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources in incorrect?
- A.
Calcium - milk and milk products, dark green, leafy veggies, tofu and soy products
- B.
Potassium - bananas, raisins, green beans, broccoli, carrots, potatoes, meats, peanut butter
- C.
Sodium - salt, milk and milk products, veggies
- D.
Iron - nuts, whole grains, veggies, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks
Correct Answer
D. Iron - nuts, whole grains, veggies, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolksExplanation
The given combination of mineral to sources is incorrect for Iron. Nuts, whole grains, and veggies are good sources of iron, but coffee, tea, cocoa, and egg yolks are not. These foods can actually inhibit the absorption of iron in the body. Therefore, it is important to avoid consuming them with iron-rich foods to ensure proper absorption.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Gentile cleansing of the wound with bactericidal solution (Betadine)
- B.
Covering the wound with an antibiotic ointment (silver sulfadiazine)
- C.
Eating a low-calorie, low-protein diet to promote healing
- D.
Paying attention to fever, malaise, inflammation, swelling, increased pain, odor, and draining from the burn area
Correct Answer
C. Eating a low-calorie, low-protein diet to promote healingExplanation
Patient education for minor burn care involves gentle cleansing of the wound with a bactericidal solution (Betadine), covering the wound with an antibiotic ointment (silver sulfadiazine), and paying attention to signs of infection such as fever, malaise, inflammation, swelling, increased pain, odor, and draining from the burn area. However, eating a low-calorie, low-protein diet is not directly related to promoting healing in minor burn care.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called
- A.
Major medical
- B.
Service benefit plan
- C.
Co-payment plan
- D.
Coordination of benefits
Correct Answer
D. Coordination of benefitsExplanation
A "non-duplication of benefits" refers to the coordination of benefits between multiple insurance plans to prevent duplicate payments for the same medical expenses. This means that when a person has multiple insurance plans, the coordination of benefits ensures that the total amount reimbursed does not exceed the actual cost of the medical service. Therefore, the correct answer is "coordination of benefits."Rate this question:
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- 48.
Medicare part B covers
- A.
Prescription drugs
- B.
Routine eye examinations
- C.
Elective cosmetic surgery
- D.
Prescription medical equipment
Correct Answer
D. Prescription medical equipmentExplanation
Medicare Part B covers prescription medical equipment. This refers to durable medical equipment (DME) that is prescribed by a doctor for use at home, such as wheelchairs, walkers, oxygen equipment, and hospital beds. Medicare Part B helps to cover the cost of these necessary medical devices to assist patients in managing their health conditions and improving their quality of life. It does not cover prescription drugs, routine eye examinations, or elective cosmetic surgery.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which type of specimen MOST likely needs to be stored in an anaerobic environment?
- A.
Indwelling catheter
- B.
First void
- C.
Clean catch
- D.
Suprapubic aspiration
Correct Answer
D. Suprapubic aspirationExplanation
Suprapubic aspiration is a procedure used to collect urine directly from the bladder using a needle inserted through the abdominal wall. This type of specimen is more likely to contain anaerobic bacteria, which thrive in the absence of oxygen. Therefore, it is necessary to store the specimen in an anaerobic environment to maintain the viability of these bacteria for further analysis.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What does Medicare part A cover for the patient?
- A.
Any medical procedure, diagnostic test, or service
- B.
Hospitalization
- C.
Physician office visits only
- D.
Clinical laboratory services only
Correct Answer
B. HospitalizationExplanation
Medicare Part A covers hospitalization for the patient. This means that it includes expenses related to inpatient care, such as hospital stays, skilled nursing facility care, hospice care, and limited home health services. It does not cover physician office visits or clinical laboratory services, which are typically covered under Medicare Part B.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 30, 2014Quiz Created by
Jessicar77
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