3d052 CDC Vol 2 UREs

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3d052 CDC Vol 2 UREs - Quiz

These are the 3D052 Volume 2 UREs. This quiz is to help you study for your CDC exams. This should not be used as the only means of studying. You should also read through your CDCs in preparation for your exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

    • A.

      Read only memory (ROM)

    • B.

      Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • C.

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D.

      Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
    Explanation
    The CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor) is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. Electrostatic discharge occurs when there is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electrical charges. CMOS components are sensitive to this discharge and can be easily damaged if not handled properly.

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  • 2. 

    (201) What is considered to be a computer’s main storage?

    • A.

      Random access memory (RAM)

    • B.

      Read only memory (ROM)

    • C.

      Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • D.

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Random access memory (RAM)
    Explanation
    Random access memory (RAM) is considered to be a computer's main storage because it is a type of volatile memory that allows the computer to store and access data quickly. It is used to temporarily store data that the computer is actively using, such as running programs and open files. Unlike other types of memory like ROM, BIOS, and CMOS, RAM can be read from and written to, making it ideal for storing and retrieving data in real-time.

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  • 3. 

    (201) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

    • A.

      Read only memory (ROM)

    • B.

      Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • C.

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D.

      Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Read only memory (ROM)
    Explanation
    ROM is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its stored data even when the power is turned off. It is a type of memory that is pre-programmed during manufacturing and cannot be easily changed or erased. ROM is commonly used for storing firmware and software instructions that are essential for the operation of a computer system. Unlike volatile memory, such as RAM, ROM does not require constant power to maintain its data, making it a reliable and permanent storage solution.

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  • 4. 

    (201) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?

    • A.

      Cache

    • B.

      Basic input/output system (BIOS)

    • C.

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D.

      Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    B. Basic input/output system (BIOS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Basic input/output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing hardware components, performing a power-on self-test (POST), and loading the operating system into memory. BIOS is stored on a chip on the motherboard and is the first software that runs when a computer is powered on.

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  • 5. 

    (202) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

    • A.

      Cache

    • B.

      Buffer

    • C.

      Interface

    • D.

      Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    D. Interrupt
    Explanation
    An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event. When an interrupt occurs, it temporarily suspends the normal execution of the CPU and transfers control to a specific interrupt handler routine. This allows the CPU to respond to the event or request from the hardware device in a timely manner, ensuring efficient communication and coordination between the CPU and the device.

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  • 6. 

    (202) Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?

    • A.

      Disk request

    • B.

      Utility resource

    • C.

      Priority interrupt

    • D.

      Integrated resource

    Correct Answer
    C. Priority interrupt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Priority interrupt." The priority interrupt is a controller component that interprets an electronic signal and determines its priority level. It then requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU) based on this priority level. This allows for the efficient handling of important tasks and helps optimize the overall performance of the system.

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  • 7. 

    (202) Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 6
    Explanation
    The floppy disk controller usually uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ lines are used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line number to communicate with the CPU. In this case, the floppy disk controller uses IRQ line 6 to send and receive signals to and from the CPU.

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  • 8. 

    (202) Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?

    • A.

      Driver

    • B.

      Parity bit

    • C.

      Data integrity

    • D.

      Error correction

    Correct Answer
    C. Data integrity
    Explanation
    Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data remains whole and complete, without any corruption or unauthorized modifications. Data integrity is crucial for maintaining the quality and trustworthiness of data, especially in critical systems and databases. It involves implementing measures such as checksums, validation rules, and access controls to prevent data loss, unauthorized access, or data corruption.

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  • 9. 

    (202) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

    • A.

      Fault

    • B.

      Parity

    • C.

      Interrupt

    • D.

      Asynchronous

    Correct Answer
    B. Parity
    Explanation
    Parity is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity. It involves adding an extra bit to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is always even or odd. This allows for the detection of errors that may occur during data transmission or storage. By comparing the parity bit with the received data, any discrepancies can be identified, indicating a potential error in the data.

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  • 10. 

    (202) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

    • A.

      Interrupt

    • B.

      Parity bit

    • C.

      Asynchronous

    • D.

      Data integrity

    Correct Answer
    B. Parity bit
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a very simple example of an error detecting code. It is a single bit added to a binary code to detect errors during transmission. The parity bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on whether the number of 1s in the code is even or odd. During transmission, the parity bit is recalculated at the receiving end, and if it doesn't match the expected value, an error is detected. This method is simple and efficient in detecting single-bit errors, making it a commonly used error detection technique.

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  • 11. 

    (203) What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?

    • A.

      Network attached storage (NAS)

    • B.

      Storage area network (SAN)

    • C.

      Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

    • D.

      Array storage

    Correct Answer
    B. Storage area network (SAN)
    Explanation
    A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not. It allows multiple servers to access the storage devices over a high-speed network, providing centralized storage management and increased storage capacity. SANs are commonly used in enterprise environments to improve storage performance, availability, and scalability.

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  • 12. 

    (203) What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?

    • A.

      Ease of replacing the hard drive

    • B.

      Ease of replacing network connectivity

    • C.

      Ease of replacing server

    • D.

      Multiple users can access the server at once

    Correct Answer
    C. Ease of replacing server
    Explanation
    Using a storage area network (SAN) architecture provides the advantage of ease in replacing servers. SAN allows for the separation of storage resources from the servers, enabling the servers to be easily replaced without affecting the storage infrastructure. This means that if a server fails or needs to be upgraded, it can be swapped out without disrupting the storage system, minimizing downtime and increasing flexibility in managing the infrastructure.

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  • 13. 

    (203) What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?

    • A.

      Fibre channel

    • B.

      ATA over Ethernet (AoE)

    • C.

      Small computer system interface (SCSI)

    • D.

      Internet small computer system interface (iSCSI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibre channel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fibre channel. Fibre channel is the preferred connection type for storage area networks (SAN) because it provides high-speed and reliable data transfer between servers and storage devices. It offers high bandwidth, low latency, and the ability to connect multiple devices in a network. Fibre channel also supports long distances and can be used for both block-level and file-level storage. It is commonly used in enterprise environments where high-performance storage and data access are critical.

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  • 14. 

    (203) Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?

    • A.

      Storage area network (SAN)

    • B.

      Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

    • C.

      Network attached storage (NAS)

    • D.

      RHD

    Correct Answer
    C. Network attached storage (NAS)
    Explanation
    Network attached storage (NAS) is a storage device that can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive. It allows multiple users to access and share files over a network, making it a convenient solution for storing and managing data in a network environment. Unlike a storage area network (SAN) or a redundant array of independent disks (RAID), which are more complex and typically used for specific purposes, NAS is designed for simple and straightforward file sharing and storage. RHD is not a recognized storage device or technology.

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  • 15. 

    (204) Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?

    • A.

      Storage area network (SAN)

    • B.

      Network attached storage (NAS)

    • C.

      Small computer system interface (SCSI)

    • D.

      Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

    Correct Answer
    D. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
    Explanation
    RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks. It is a storage technology that combines multiple physical hard drives into a single logical unit. RAID provides data storage reliability by using redundancy, which means that data is duplicated and stored across multiple drives. This redundancy ensures that if one drive fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining drives. RAID is commonly used in enterprise environments where data reliability and availability are critical.

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  • 16. 

    (204) The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as __________

    • A.

      One single hard drive

    • B.

      A collection of hard drives

    • C.

      A single RAID array

    • D.

      A remote storage device

    Correct Answer
    A. One single hard drive
    Explanation
    The hard drives in a RAID array are presented to the server as one single hard drive. In a RAID array, multiple physical hard drives are combined and managed as a single logical unit. This allows for increased performance, fault tolerance, and data redundancy. The server sees the RAID array as a single hard drive, abstracting the complexity of multiple drives from the operating system and applications. This simplifies data management and allows for easier implementation of RAID technology.

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  • 17. 

    (204) Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?

    • A.

      Small computer system interface (SCSI)

    • B.

      Serial attached (SAS) SCSI

    • C.

      Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA)

    • D.

      Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe)

    Correct Answer
    A. Small computer system interface (SCSI)
    Explanation
    SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) arrays that can be daisy chained. SCSI is a high-performance interface that allows multiple devices to be connected to a single host adapter. It supports multiple devices in a chain, allowing for easy expansion and scalability in RAID arrays. SCSI also provides faster data transfer rates and better performance compared to other technologies like SATA or PCIe, making it a preferred choice for RAID configurations.

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  • 18. 

    (205) Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?

    • A.

      They are nearly self-documenting

    • B.

      They use English-like statements

    • C.

      Source codes that are written closest to machine language

    • D.

      Programs are transportable between computers with few changes

    Correct Answer
    C. Source codes that are written closest to machine language
    Explanation
    High-order languages are known for being nearly self-documenting, using English-like statements, and allowing programs to be easily transported between computers with few changes. However, they are not characterized by source codes that are written closest to machine language. High-order languages are designed to be more user-friendly and abstracted from the low-level details of the machine, making programming easier and more efficient.

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  • 19. 

    (205) What best describes programming machine code?

    • A.

      Another term for firmware

    • B.

      Statements that correspond to complex actions

    • C.

      Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer

    • D.

      Source code that, when compiled, is appropriate for the computer

    Correct Answer
    C. Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer
    Explanation
    Programming machine code refers to instructions that are written in a format that the computer can understand and execute. This code is typically written using low-level programming languages and is specific to the hardware architecture of the computer. It is the most basic form of instructions that a computer can execute directly without any translation or interpretation.

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  • 20. 

    (206) Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?

    • A.

      Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)

    • B.

      Extensible Markup Language (XML)

    • C.

      HyperText Markup Language (HTML)

    • D.

      Dynamic HTML (DHTML)

    Correct Answer
    C. HyperText Markup Language (HTML)
    Explanation
    HTML is the correct answer because it is a set of markup symbols or codes that are used to structure the content of a web page and define its layout. HTML tags are inserted into the file to indicate how the content should be displayed on a web browser page. SGML and XML are also markup languages, but they are not specifically designed for web browser display. DHTML is a combination of HTML, CSS, and JavaScript that allows for dynamic and interactive web content, but it is not a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file.

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  • 21. 

    (206) Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?

    • A.

      Dynamic HTML (DHTML)

    • B.

      Extensible Markup Language (XML)

    • C.

      Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)

    • D.

      Extensible HTML (XHTML)

    Correct Answer
    D. Extensible HTML (XHTML)
    Explanation
    XHTML is the most likely web application to succeed HTML because it is a stricter and cleaner version of HTML. It combines the flexibility of HTML with the extensibility of XML, allowing for better structure and compatibility with other technologies. XHTML also supports the separation of content and presentation, making it easier to maintain and update websites. Additionally, XHTML is backward compatible with HTML, ensuring that existing HTML documents can be easily migrated to the new standard.

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  • 22. 

    (206) A standard Web application used to pass a Web user’s request to a server’s application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a

    • A.

      Transport Layer Security (TLS)

    • B.

      Common Gateway Inferface (CGI)

    • C.

      Data Encryption Standard (DES)

    • D.

      Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

    Correct Answer
    B. Common Gateway Inferface (CGI)
    Explanation
    A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a Common Gateway Interface (CGI). CGI is a protocol that allows communication between a web server and a server-side program. It enables the web server to pass user requests to the server-side program, which then processes the request and sends the response back to the web server for display to the user. This allows dynamic content generation and interaction with databases or other resources on the server.

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  • 23. 

    (206) Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet?

    • A.

      Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

    • B.

      Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

    • C.

      Data Encryption Standard (DES)

    • D.

      Transport Layer Security (TLS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
    Explanation
    Secure Socket Layer (SSL) is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet. SSL provides encryption and authentication mechanisms to ensure secure communication between a client and a server. It establishes a secure connection by encrypting the data transmitted between the two parties, preventing unauthorized access and protecting the integrity of the message. SSL is widely used for secure online transactions, such as e-commerce websites, online banking, and email services. It has been widely replaced by Transport Layer Security (TLS), but SSL is still commonly referred to when discussing secure communication protocols on the Internet.

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  • 24. 

    (207) Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?

    • A.

      Check Disk

    • B.

      Disk Quotas

    • C.

      Disk Defragmenter

    • D.

      Task Scheduler

    Correct Answer
    D. Task Scheduler
    Explanation
    Task Scheduler is a program that can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule. It allows users to schedule tasks such as running programs, opening documents, and executing scripts at specific times or intervals. This feature is useful for automating repetitive tasks, managing system maintenance, and ensuring that important programs or processes are executed without manual intervention. Disk Quotas, Check Disk, and Disk Defragmenter are not programs designed for launching programs on a schedule, making Task Scheduler the correct answer.

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  • 25. 

    (207) Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?

    • A.

      Check Disk

    • B.

      Disk Quotas

    • C.

      Task Scheduler

    • D.

      Disk Defragmenter

    Correct Answer
    A. Check Disk
    Explanation
    Check Disk is an error-checking tool that allows you to monitor the file system for errors. It scans the file system and checks for any issues or inconsistencies, such as bad sectors, cross-linked files, or file system errors. By running Check Disk, you can identify and fix these errors, ensuring the integrity and stability of the file system.

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  • 26. 

    (208) Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?

    • A.

      Least Significant Digit (LSD)

    • B.

      Most Significant Digit (MSD)

    • C.

      Exponent

    • D.

      Radix

    Correct Answer
    B. Most Significant Digit (MSD)
    Explanation
    The leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value represents the most significant digit (MSD). In a numbering system, the most significant digit holds the highest value and contributes the most to the overall value of the number. It determines the scale and magnitude of the number. The MSD is important in understanding the order of magnitude and comparing numbers.

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  • 27. 

    (209) What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?

    • A.

      Preventive Controls

    • B.

      List of critical devices

    • C.

      Recovery Strategies

    • D.

      Emergency Action Plans

    Correct Answer
    B. List of critical devices
    Explanation
    Each organization should have a list of critical devices that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters. This list helps identify the most important devices that need to be protected and ensures that appropriate preventive controls, recovery strategies, and emergency action plans are in place for these devices. By having a clear understanding of the critical devices, organizations can effectively allocate resources and prioritize their efforts to minimize the impact of disasters on these systems.

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  • 28. 

    (210) Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?

    • A.

      Incremental

    • B.

      Differential

    • C.

      Daily

    • D.

      Normal

    Correct Answer
    D. Normal
    Explanation
    At the end of the week, a normal backup would be used to save all the selected data on the systems. A normal backup is a full backup that copies all the selected data regardless of whether it has changed or not. This ensures that all the data is backed up and can be restored in case of any data loss or system failure. Incremental backups only save the data that has changed since the last backup, differential backups save the data that has changed since the last full backup, and daily backups save the data that has changed since the last backup, regardless of its type.

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  • 29. 

    (210) Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Normal

    • C.

      Incremental

    • D.

      Differential

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    A daily backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours. This type of backup ensures that any changes made to files during the day are captured and saved. It is typically used for regular backups to ensure that the most recent versions of files are protected.

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  • 30. 

    (211) What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?

    • A.

      Domain

    • B.

      Forest

    • C.

      Schema

    • D.

      Tree

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain
    Explanation
    A domain is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information. In a domain, all user accounts, security policies, and resources are managed by a central authority called a domain controller. This allows for centralized administration and authentication across the network, ensuring that users can access the resources they need and that security measures are enforced consistently.

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  • 31. 

    (211) Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?

    • A.

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) servers

    • B.

      Domain name service (DNS) servers

    • C.

      Domain controllers

    • D.

      Global catalog servers

    Correct Answer
    C. Domain controllers
    Explanation
    A copy of the active directory database resides on domain controllers. Domain controllers are servers that store and manage the active directory database, which contains information about all the objects in a domain, such as users, groups, and computers. This database is crucial for the functioning of the domain, as it allows for authentication, authorization, and other directory services. Therefore, domain controllers are responsible for maintaining and replicating the active directory database across the network.

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  • 32. 

    (211) What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?

    • A.

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)

    • B.

      Domain controller

    • C.

      Global catalog

    • D.

      Member

    Correct Answer
    C. Global catalog
    Explanation
    A global catalog server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest. It stores a partial replica of every object in the forest, allowing users to search for objects and access information quickly. This server is responsible for handling queries across domains in a multi-domain environment. It helps in speeding up the search process by providing a centralized location for accessing directory information.

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  • 33. 

    (211) What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?

    • A.

      Access control lists

    • B.

      Access policy objects

    • C.

      Group policy objects

    • D.

      Group rules sets

    Correct Answer
    C. Group policy objects
    Explanation
    Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are a set of rules that can be set to affect Active Directory leaf objects. GPOs are used to control what can be done by a user in an Active Directory environment. They allow administrators to manage and enforce various settings, such as security policies, software installation, and user preferences, across multiple computers and users within a domain. By applying GPOs, administrators can ensure consistent and centralized control over the configuration and behavior of Active Directory objects.

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  • 34. 

    (212) Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?

    • A.

      Command Line Interface

    • B.

      Graphical User Interface

    • C.

      Menu Driven Interface

    • D.

      Palo Alto Research Center User Interface

    Correct Answer
    B. GrapHical User Interface
    Explanation
    A Graphical User Interface (GUI) is friendlier for the average user to use compared to other types of interfaces. GUIs use icons, menus, and visual indicators to allow users to interact with the system easily. This interface provides a more intuitive and visually appealing way for users to navigate and perform tasks, eliminating the need to remember complex commands or understand technical language. GUIs are widely used in operating systems, applications, and websites, making them familiar to most users and reducing the learning curve.

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  • 35. 

    (212) Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?

    • A.

      Windows

    • B.

      Icons

    • C.

      Menus

    • D.

      Programs

    Correct Answer
    D. Programs
    Explanation
    Most graphical user interfaces are composed of windows, icons, and menus, which are essential elements for interacting with the system. However, programs are not considered an element of the graphical user interface itself, but rather the applications or software that run within the interface. Programs are separate entities that can be launched and run within the interface, but they are not inherent components of the interface itself.

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  • 36. 

    (212) Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?

    • A.

      Automatic

    • B.

      Attended

    • C.

      Unattended

    • D.

      Remote

    Correct Answer
    B. Attended
    Explanation
    Loading a software patch onto a computer while sitting at it suggests that the process requires human intervention and supervision. This type of software patch is known as an "attended" patch, as it involves the user actively participating in the installation process.

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  • 37. 

    (212) Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?

    • A.

      Automatic

    • B.

      Local

    • C.

      Manual

    • D.

      Unattended

    Correct Answer
    D. Unattended
    Explanation
    An unattended patch would utilize a remote installation service (RIS) because it can be installed without any user intervention. RIS allows for the remote installation of operating systems or software, making it ideal for unattended patches that can be deployed across multiple systems without the need for manual installation.

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  • 38. 

    (213) Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?

    • A.

      Name Servers

    • B.

      Resolvers

    • C.

      Resource Records

    • D.

      Forward Lookup Zone

    Correct Answer
    A. Name Servers
    Explanation
    Name Servers contain a database of associated names and IP addresses. They are responsible for storing and managing the domain name system information. When a user enters a domain name into a web browser, the Name Servers are queried to find the corresponding IP address for that domain name. They maintain the database of all registered domain names and their corresponding IP addresses, allowing for the translation of human-readable domain names into machine-readable IP addresses.

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  • 39. 

    (213) Which query is made by one name server to another name server?

    • A.

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) query

    • B.

      Domain Name Service (DNS) query

    • C.

      Recursive query

    • D.

      Non-recursive query

    Correct Answer
    D. Non-recursive query
    Explanation
    A non-recursive query is made by one name server to another name server. In a non-recursive query, the name server being queried does not provide the complete answer to the query, but instead refers the querying server to another name server that may have the answer. This process continues until the querying server receives a complete answer or reaches a timeout. Non-recursive queries are commonly used in DNS resolution to efficiently distribute the workload among multiple name servers.

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  • 40. 

    (214) Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?

    • A.

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

    • B.

      Domain Name Service (DNS)

    • C.

      Active Directory (AD)

    • D.

      DHCP Server

    Correct Answer
    A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
    Explanation
    Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a software program that manages the allocation of IP addresses for a network. It automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network, eliminating the need for manual configuration. DHCP also provides other network configuration information, such as subnet mask and default gateway, to the devices. This allows for efficient management and administration of IP addresses within a network.

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  • 41. 

    (214) The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a

    • A.

      Pool

    • B.

      Range

    • C.

      Scope

    • D.

      Zone

    Correct Answer
    C. Scope
    Explanation
    A DHCP server manages a group of IP addresses known as a scope. A scope is a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to devices on a network. The DHCP server is responsible for dynamically assigning IP addresses to devices within the scope as they connect to the network.

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  • 42. 

    (214) What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Five

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is responsible for assigning IP addresses and network configuration settings to devices on a network. The minimum number of scopes a DHCP server can have is one. A scope is a range of IP addresses that the server can assign to devices. Having at least one scope is necessary for the DHCP server to function properly and allocate IP addresses to connected devices.

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  • 43. 

    (214) According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?

    • A.

      15 days

    • B.

      30 days

    • C.

      45 days

    • D.

      60 days

    Correct Answer
    B. 30 days
    Explanation
    According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, a noncritical workstation will have a lease of 30 days applied to them. This means that the workstation will be assigned an IP address for a period of 30 days before it needs to renew the lease.

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  • 44. 

    (215) What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?

    • A.

      Domain Name Service (DNS)

    • B.

      Internet Information Services (IIS)

    • C.

      Remote Installation Services (RIS)

    • D.

      Web

    Correct Answer
    C. Remote Installation Services (RIS)
    Explanation
    Remote Installation Services (RIS) is the correct answer because it allows network administrators to install upgrades on multiple client computers simultaneously from a centralized location. This service simplifies the process of deploying software updates or operating system upgrades across a network, saving time and effort for administrators.

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  • 45. 

    (216) Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?

    • A.

      FTP Server

    • B.

      Internet Services Manager

    • C.

      Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

    • D.

      Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

    Correct Answer
    D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
    Explanation
    Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is not a component of Internet Information Services (IIS). IIS is a web server software package developed by Microsoft that provides various services for hosting websites and applications. The other options listed, such as FTP Server, Internet Services Manager, and Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP), are all components or features commonly associated with IIS. SNMP, on the other hand, is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices and is not directly related to IIS.

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  • 46. 

    (217) What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?

    • A.

      Domain Name Service (DNS)

    • B.

      Internet Information Services (IIS)

    • C.

      Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

    • D.

      Remote Installation Services (RIS)

    Correct Answer
    C. Microsoft Management Console (MMC)
    Explanation
    The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a component of Windows that unifies and simplifies day-to-day system management tasks. It provides a centralized platform for managing various aspects of the operating system, such as user accounts, system settings, and network configurations. With the MMC, administrators can access and control multiple management tools and utilities from a single interface, making it easier to perform routine system management tasks efficiently.

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  • 47. 

    (217) Which type of group manages user’s rights assignments and access permissions?

    • A.

      Universal

    • B.

      Distribution

    • C.

      Security

    • D.

      Access

    Correct Answer
    C. Security
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Security." Security groups are used to manage user's rights assignments and access permissions. They are used to grant or deny access to resources such as files, folders, and network resources. By assigning users to security groups, administrators can easily manage and control access to various resources within an organization.

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  • 48. 

    (217) Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?

    • A.

      Anonymous Logon

    • B.

      Everyone

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Interactive

    Correct Answer
    D. Interactive
    Explanation
    The special identity "Interactive" represents users who are currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer. This identity is used to differentiate users who are physically present at the computer and interacting with it directly, as opposed to users accessing the computer remotely or through a network connection.

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  • 49. 

    (218) What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?

    • A.

      Rights

    • B.

      Permissions

    • C.

      Access Control Lists

    • D.

      Hardware Configuration

    Correct Answer
    B. Permissions
    Explanation
    Permissions define the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource. Permissions determine what actions can be taken on a resource, such as read, write, or execute. They specify the level of access that a user or group has to a resource and help enforce security policies. By assigning appropriate permissions, organizations can control who can access and manipulate resources, ensuring that only authorized individuals have the necessary privileges. Access control lists and other mechanisms are used to implement and manage permissions effectively.

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  • 50. 

    (218) A feature of networking that enables individuals to designate resources they want other users to be able to access through the network is called

    • A.

      Rights

    • B.

      Sharing

    • C.

      Permissions

    • D.

      Access Control Lists

    Correct Answer
    B. Sharing
    Explanation
    Sharing is a feature of networking that allows individuals to designate resources they want other users to be able to access through the network. This feature enables users to share files, folders, printers, and other resources with specific individuals or groups on the network. By granting access to these resources, users can collaborate, exchange information, and work together more efficiently. This feature is commonly used in home networks, office networks, and cloud-based platforms to facilitate file sharing and collaboration among users.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 01, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Henckel
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