3d052 CDC Vol 1 & 2 UREs (Comprehensive)
This is a combination of 3D052 Volume 1 & 2 UREs. This quiz is to help you study for your CDC exams. This should not be used as the only means of studying. You should also read through your CDCs in preparation for your exams.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
5
- D.
10
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
A computer network requires a minimum of two computers to function. This is because a network is a collection of interconnected devices that can communicate and share resources with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, and therefore, no network. Having at least two computers allows for data exchange, file sharing, and collaboration between the devices, making it the minimum requirement for a computer network.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
- A.
Read only memory (ROM)
- B.
Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- C.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
- D.
Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
Correct Answer
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)Explanation
The CMOS (Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. CMOS is a type of integrated circuit technology used in microprocessors, memory chips, and other digital logic circuits. It is sensitive to electrostatic discharge, which can occur when there is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electric potentials. This discharge can damage the CMOS circuitry, leading to malfunction or failure of the component. Therefore, it is important to handle CMOS components with caution and take necessary precautions to prevent electrostatic discharge.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(201) What is considered to be a computer’s main storage?
- A.
Random access memory (RAM)
- B.
Read only memory (ROM)
- C.
Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- D.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
Correct Answer
A. Random access memory (RAM)Explanation
Random access memory (RAM) is considered to be a computer's main storage because it is a type of volatile memory that allows the computer to store and access data quickly. It is used to hold the data and instructions that the computer needs to process in real-time. Unlike other types of storage such as ROM, BIOS, or CMOS, RAM can be read from and written to, making it ideal for temporary storage of data that is actively being used by the computer's processor.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(201) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
- A.
Read only memory (ROM)
- B.
Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- C.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
- D.
Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
Correct Answer
A. Read only memory (ROM)Explanation
Read only memory (ROM) is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains data even when the power is turned off. ROM is programmed during manufacturing and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. It is used to store firmware and software instructions that are essential for the computer to boot up and perform basic functions. Unlike random access memory (RAM), which is volatile and loses data when the power is turned off, ROM provides long-term storage of data that is necessary for the functioning of the computer system.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(201) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?
- A.
Cache
- B.
Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- C.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
- D.
Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
Correct Answer
B. Basic input/output system (BIOS)Explanation
The correct answer is Basic input/output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system into memory, and providing basic input/output services for the computer. It is stored on a chip on the motherboard and is the first software that runs when the computer is powered on.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(202) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
- A.
Cache
- B.
Buffer
- C.
Interface
- D.
Interrupt
Correct Answer
D. InterruptExplanation
An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event. It is a mechanism that allows hardware devices to communicate with the CPU and request immediate attention or interrupt the normal execution of the program. Interrupts are used to handle time-sensitive events, such as input/output operations or hardware errors, and ensure that they are promptly addressed by the CPU.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(202) Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?
- A.
Disk request
- B.
Utility resource
- C.
Priority interrupt
- D.
Integrated resource
Correct Answer
C. Priority interruptExplanation
The correct answer is priority interrupt. The priority interrupt is a controller component that interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU). This component is responsible for interrupting the normal execution of a program and redirecting the CPU's attention to a higher priority task. It ensures that critical tasks are given priority over less important ones, improving the efficiency and responsiveness of the system.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(202) Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
The floppy disk controller is typically assigned to IRQ line 6. IRQ lines are used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line, and in the case of the floppy disk controller, it is typically assigned to IRQ line 6. This allows the controller to communicate with the CPU and perform operations such as reading and writing data from and to the floppy disk.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(202) Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?
- A.
Driver
- B.
Parity bit
- C.
Data integrity
- D.
Error correction
Correct Answer
C. Data integrityExplanation
Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data is complete, accurate, and consistent, without any errors or corruption. Therefore, data integrity is the term used to describe that data is whole or complete.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(202) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
- A.
Fault
- B.
Parity
- C.
Interrupt
- D.
Asynchronous
Correct Answer
B. ParityExplanation
Parity is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity. It involves adding an extra bit to a group of bits to make the total number of ones either even or odd. By comparing the parity bit with the received data, errors can be detected. If the number of ones in the received data does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission. Therefore, parity is commonly used as a simple and effective method for detecting errors in data.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(202) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
- A.
Interrupt
- B.
Parity bit
- C.
Asynchronous
- D.
Data integrity
Correct Answer
B. Parity bitExplanation
A parity bit is a very simple example of an error detecting code. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to detect errors during transmission. The parity bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on the number of 1s in the data. If the number of 1s is even, the parity bit is set to 0, making the total number of 1s even. If the number of 1s is odd, the parity bit is set to 1, making the total number of 1s odd. During transmission, the receiver can check if the received data has an even number of 1s by comparing it to the parity bit. If they don't match, an error is detected.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(203) What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?
- A.
Network attached storage (NAS)
- B.
Storage area network (SAN)
- C.
Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
- D.
Array storage
Correct Answer
B. Storage area network (SAN)Explanation
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not. SANs use a dedicated network to connect the storage devices to the server, allowing for centralized storage management and improved performance. This enables multiple servers to access the storage devices simultaneously, providing a scalable and efficient solution for data storage and retrieval.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(203) What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?
- A.
Ease of replacing the hard drive
- B.
Ease of replacing network connectivity
- C.
Ease of replacing server
- D.
Multiple users can access the server at once
Correct Answer
C. Ease of replacing serverExplanation
A storage area network (SAN) architecture provides the advantage of ease of replacing servers. In a SAN, the storage devices are separate from the servers, allowing for easy replacement or upgrade of servers without disrupting the storage infrastructure. This means that if a server fails or needs to be upgraded, it can be replaced without affecting the storage system or causing downtime for users. This flexibility and scalability make SAN architecture a preferred choice for organizations that require high availability and easy server maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(203) What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?
- A.
Fibre channel
- B.
ATA over Ethernet (AoE)
- C.
Small computer system interface (SCSI)
- D.
Internet small computer system interface (iSCSI)
Correct Answer
A. Fibre channelExplanation
Fibre channel is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN). Fibre channel provides high-speed data transfer, low latency, and reliable connectivity, making it ideal for SAN environments. It allows for the simultaneous transfer of multiple data streams, ensuring efficient and fast storage access. Fibre channel also offers advanced features such as zoning and fabric services, which enhance security and manageability in SAN deployments. Overall, fibre channel provides the necessary performance and reliability required for SANs, making it the preferred choice for connecting storage devices in these networks.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(203) Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?
- A.
Storage area network (SAN)
- B.
Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
- C.
Network attached storage (NAS)
- D.
RHD
Correct Answer
C. Network attached storage (NAS)Explanation
Network attached storage (NAS) is a storage device that can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive. It allows multiple users to access and share files over a network. NAS devices are designed to provide centralized storage and file sharing capabilities, making it convenient for users to access and manage their data from any device connected to the network. Unlike storage area network (SAN) and redundant array of independent disks (RAID), NAS does not require specialized hardware or complex configurations, making it a more user-friendly option for network storage.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(204) Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?
- A.
Storage area network (SAN)
- B.
Network attached storage (NAS)
- C.
Small computer system interface (SCSI)
- D.
Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
Correct Answer
D. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)Explanation
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a storage technology that uses multiple hard drives to provide data storage reliability. It combines the drives into a single logical unit and distributes the data across the drives in different ways, such as mirroring or striping. This redundancy allows for data to be recovered in the event of a drive failure, ensuring that the stored data remains accessible and protected. Therefore, RAID is the storage device that provides data storage reliability using multiple hard drives.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(204) The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as __________
- A.
One single hard drive
- B.
A collection of hard drives
- C.
A single RAID array
- D.
A remote storage device
Correct Answer
A. One single hard driveExplanation
In a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array, the hard drives are presented to the server as one single hard drive. This means that the server sees the multiple physical hard drives as a single logical drive. This allows for improved performance and data redundancy, as the RAID controller manages the data across the multiple drives, distributing it evenly and providing backup in case of drive failure. The server is not aware of the individual drives, but rather interacts with them as if they were a single unit.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(204) Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?
- A.
Small computer system interface (SCSI)
- B.
Serial attached (SAS) SCSI
- C.
Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA)
- D.
Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe)
Correct Answer
A. Small computer system interface (SCSI)Explanation
SCSI technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) arrays that can be daisy chained. SCSI allows multiple devices to be connected in a chain, with each device having its own unique address. This allows for easy expansion and scalability of the RAID array. Additionally, SCSI offers high data transfer rates and supports multiple devices on a single SCSI bus, making it a suitable technology for RAID arrays.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(205) Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?
- A.
They are nearly self-documenting
- B.
They use English-like statements
- C.
Source codes that are written closest to machine language
- D.
Programs are transportable between computers with few changes
Correct Answer
C. Source codes that are written closest to machine languageExplanation
High-order languages are known for being nearly self-documenting, using English-like statements, and allowing programs to be easily transported between computers with few changes. However, they are not characterized by source codes that are written closest to machine language. High-order languages are designed to be more user-friendly and abstracted from the low-level details of the machine, making them easier to read and write for programmers.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(205) What best describes programming machine code?
- A.
Another term for firmware
- B.
Statements that correspond to complex actions
- C.
Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer
- D.
Source code that, when compiled, is appropriate for the computer
Correct Answer
C. Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computerExplanation
Programming machine code refers to instructions that are written in a format that the computer can understand and execute. These instructions are typically in a low-level language that directly corresponds to the hardware of the computer. Machine code is a binary representation of these instructions, which can be directly executed by the computer's processor. It is different from source code, which is written in a high-level programming language and needs to be compiled or interpreted before it can be executed. Therefore, the correct answer is "Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer."Rate this question:
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- 21.
(206) Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?
- A.
Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)
- B.
Extensible Markup Language (XML)
- C.
HyperText Markup Language (HTML)
- D.
Dynamic HTML (DHTML)
Correct Answer
C. HyperText Markup Language (HTML)Explanation
HTML is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page. It is the standard markup language for creating web pages and is used to structure content on the internet. HTML uses tags to define elements such as headings, paragraphs, links, images, and more, allowing web browsers to interpret and display the content correctly. It is widely supported by all web browsers, making it the most commonly used markup language for creating web pages.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(001) What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
- A.
Homogeneous network
- B.
Internetwork
- C.
Intranetwork
- D.
Local area network
Correct Answer
C. IntranetworkExplanation
An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that is restricted to authorized personnel only. It is a network that is designed for internal use within an organization and allows for secure communication and data sharing among employees. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is limited to a single organization. It is also different from a local area network (LAN), which refers to a network that covers a small geographical area such as an office building or campus. Therefore, the correct answer is intranetwork.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(001) What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
- A.
Internetwork
- B.
Intranetwork
- C.
Homogeneous network
- D.
Heterogeneous network
Correct Answer
C. Homogeneous networkExplanation
A homogeneous network is a type of network that is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices in the network are designed to work seamlessly together, as they are specifically designed to be compatible with each other. This can make network management and troubleshooting easier, as there is a consistent and unified system in place.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(001) What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
- A.
Internetwork
- B.
Intranetwork
- C.
Homogeneous network
- D.
Heterogeneous network
Correct Answer
D. Heterogeneous networkExplanation
A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software components from various manufacturers and developers. This can pose challenges in terms of compatibility and interoperability between different systems. However, it allows for greater flexibility and diversity in terms of technology choices and can support a wider range of applications and services.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(001) What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
- A.
Global area network (GAN)
- B.
Local area network (LAN)
- C.
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
- D.
Wide area network (WAN)
Correct Answer
B. Local area network (LAN)Explanation
A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It typically covers a small area such as a home, office building, or campus. LANs are commonly used to connect computers, printers, and other devices, allowing them to share resources and communicate with each other. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) which cover larger areas such as cities or countries, LANs are designed for localized use and offer high-speed connections. Therefore, LAN is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(001) What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN)
- B.
Local area network (LAN)
- C.
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
- D.
Wide area network (WAN)
Correct Answer
D. Wide area network (WAN)Explanation
A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region. Unlike local area networks (LANs) that are limited to a small area like a home or office, WANs cover larger areas such as cities, countries, or even continents. WANs use various technologies like leased lines, satellites, or the internet to connect multiple LANs or other WANs together, allowing for communication and data transfer over long distances. Therefore, a WAN is the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(001) What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN)
- B.
Local area network (LAN)
- C.
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
- D.
Wide area network (WAN)
Correct Answer
A. Global area network (GAN)Explanation
A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. This means that it allows for communication between networks that are located in different parts of the world. GANs are typically used by large multinational organizations or government agencies that need to connect their networks across multiple countries or continents. Unlike Local Area Networks (LANs) or Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs), which have more limited geographical coverage, GANs provide a wide area network (WAN) infrastructure that enables global connectivity.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(001) How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1000
Correct Answer
A. 2-10Explanation
A peer-to-peer network is a decentralized network where all devices are equal and can act as both clients and servers. In this type of network, the number of users is typically small, ranging from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are commonly used for small-scale applications or personal use, where a limited number of users need to share resources and communicate directly with each other. Having a small number of users ensures efficient and effective communication within the network without overwhelming the system.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(001) How many users are in a single-server network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1000
Correct Answer
B. 10-50Explanation
In a single-server network, the number of users typically falls within the range of 10-50. This means that there are between 10 and 50 users connected to the server in this type of network configuration. Having too few users (2-10) may not fully utilize the server's capabilities, while having too many users (50-250 or 250-1000) may overload the server, causing performance issues. Therefore, the optimal range for a single-server network is 10-50 users.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(001) How many users are in a multi-server network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1000
Correct Answer
C. 50-250Explanation
A multi-server network typically consists of multiple servers that are interconnected to provide various services and resources to users. The range of 50-250 users suggests that this network can accommodate a moderate number of users, indicating that it is larger than a small-scale network (2-10 users) or a medium-sized network (10-50 users). However, it is not as extensive as a large-scale network (250-1000 users) which would typically require more servers and resources to handle the higher user load.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(001) How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1000
Correct Answer
D. 250-1000Explanation
A multi-server high-speed backbone network is designed to handle a large amount of traffic and accommodate a significant number of users. The range of 250-1000 suggests that this network is capable of supporting a substantial user base. It is likely that this network is used in large organizations or institutions where a high-speed connection is essential for multiple users to access and transfer data simultaneously.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(001) What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
- A.
Local area network (LAN)
- B.
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
- C.
Multi-server high-speed backbone network
- D.
Enterprise network
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise networkExplanation
An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support the communication needs of a large organization or enterprise, allowing employees to share resources, collaborate, and access centralized data and applications. This type of network typically includes multiple sites, such as branch offices, headquarters, and data centers, and may use various technologies such as wide area network (WAN) connections, virtual private networks (VPNs), and cloud services to facilitate communication and data transfer between locations.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(002) What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
- A.
Media access control address
- B.
Network server name
- C.
Subnet mask address
- D.
Node serial number
Correct Answer
A. Media access control addressExplanation
A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) in a device. It is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. The MAC address is a 48-bit hexadecimal number and is usually represented in six groups of two digits, separated by colons or hyphens. It is used in the data link layer of the OSI model to ensure that data is transmitted to the correct destination on a local network.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(002) How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
B. 4Explanation
The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. Each octet consists of 8 bits, resulting in a total of 32 bits for the entire protocol. This division allows for the unique identification of IP addresses, which are represented as a series of four numbers separated by periods. Each number represents one octet, and the combination of all four octets forms the complete IP address.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(002) What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
- A.
01100000
- B.
01100110
- C.
00001100
- D.
10000001
Correct Answer
A. 01100000Explanation
The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000. This is because in binary, each digit represents a power of 2, and by converting the decimal number 96 to binary, we get the binary representation 01100000.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(002) What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120
- B.
0.10.230.0
- C.
131.10.230.0
- D.
255.255.255.0
Correct Answer
C. 131.10.230.0Explanation
The network id of an IP address is determined by the subnet mask. In this case, the subnet mask is /24, which means that the first 24 bits of the IP address are used to identify the network. The remaining 8 bits are used to identify the host within the network. Therefore, the network id is obtained by setting the host bits to zero, resulting in 131.10.230.0.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(002) What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120
- B.
0.10.230.0
- C.
131.10.230.0
- D.
255.255.255.0
Correct Answer
A. 0.0.0.120Explanation
The host id of an IP address is the portion of the IP address that identifies the specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address given is 131.10.230.120/24. The "/24" indicates that the first 24 bits of the IP address are the network portion, and the remaining 8 bits are the host portion. Therefore, the host id is 0.0.0.120, as it represents the last 8 bits of the IP address.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(002) How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
- A.
24
- B.
48
- C.
64
- D.
128
Correct Answer
C. 64Explanation
In an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask, typically 64 bits are covered. The subnet mask is used to divide an IPv6 address into network and host portions. With a 64-bit subnet mask, the first 64 bits of the IPv6 address are used to identify the network, while the remaining 64 bits are used for host identification. This allows for a large number of unique host addresses within a network.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(003) What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
- A.
10
- B.
29
- C.
30
- D.
33
Correct Answer
D. 33Explanation
Air Force Instruction (AFI) series 33 covers communications and information. This series provides guidance and procedures for the Air Force's communication and information systems, including telecommunications, computer networks, and information management. It establishes policies and standards to ensure effective and secure communication within the Air Force. AFI series 33 is essential for maintaining efficient and reliable communication systems throughout the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(003) What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
- A.
AFPD 33-1
- B.
AFI 33-112
- C.
AFI 33-115v1
- D.
AFI 29-2603v2
Correct Answer
C. AFI 33-115v1Explanation
AFI 33-115v1 provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for the management, operation, and security of the AF-GIG. It ensures that the Air Force's information systems and networks are properly maintained, protected, and utilized to support mission requirements. AFI 33-115v1 also establishes the roles and responsibilities of personnel involved in the AF-GIG and sets standards for information assurance, network operations, and information management.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(003) According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
The Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is considered to be in Tier 1 of the Air Force network structure.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(003) What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
- A.
Network control center (NCC)
- B.
Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)
- C.
Network operations center (NOSC)
- D.
Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)
Correct Answer
A. Network control center (NCC)Explanation
The network control center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and controlling network operations, ensuring the availability and performance of the network, and implementing security measures to protect the network and its users. The NCC is typically staffed with network technicians and administrators who are trained to handle network issues and provide support to base level customers.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(004) What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
- A.
Fault management server
- B.
Network management server
- C.
Performance management server
- D.
Security management server
Correct Answer
B. Network management serverExplanation
A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring and controlling network resources, identifying and resolving network issues, and optimizing network performance. It provides features like network monitoring, configuration management, performance analysis, and fault management. By centralizing network management tasks, it allows administrators to efficiently manage and troubleshoot the network, leading to improved efficiency and productivity.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(004) Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
- A.
Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed
- B.
Centralized, hybrid, and distributed
- C.
Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid
- D.
Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed
Correct Answer
A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributedExplanation
The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are performed by a central entity, such as a network operations center (NOC). In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels, with each level responsible for a specific aspect of network management. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities, such as local management systems or remote agents. These three architectures provide different approaches to managing and controlling network resources and operations.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(004) What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
- A.
Centralized
- B.
Distributed
- C.
Hierarchical
- D.
Hybrid
Correct Answer
A. CentralizedExplanation
A centralized network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from a central location. This allows for easier management and control of the network as all management functions are consolidated in one place.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(004) What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
- A.
Centralized
- B.
Distributed
- C.
Hierarchical
- D.
Hybrid
Correct Answer
C. HierarchicalExplanation
Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server is responsible for managing and controlling the network, while the client systems rely on the server for network management tasks. This architecture provides a clear hierarchy and centralized control, making it easier to manage and maintain the network.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(004) What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
- A.
Inactive
- B.
Interactive
- C.
Proactive
- D.
Reactive
Correct Answer
B. InteractiveExplanation
When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at the interactive level of network management activity. This level involves actively monitoring and addressing issues in real-time to ensure the smooth functioning of the network.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(004) What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
- A.
Inactive
- B.
Reactive
- C.
Interactive
- D.
Proactive
Correct Answer
D. ProactiveExplanation
When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that you are working at a proactive level of network management activity. Proactive network management involves anticipating and preventing issues before they occur by continuously monitoring and analyzing the network to identify potential problems and take preventive measures. This level of activity focuses on proactive measures to maintain network stability and minimize downtime.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(005) Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
- A.
Monitoring and analyzing
- B.
Monitoring and replacing
- C.
Monitoring and tuning
- D.
Analyzing and tuning
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring and tuningExplanation
Performance management involves monitoring the performance of systems, processes, or individuals and making necessary adjustments to improve performance. Monitoring refers to the continuous tracking and observation of performance indicators to identify any deviations or issues. Tuning involves making adjustments or optimizations to enhance performance based on the insights gained from monitoring. Therefore, the correct answer is "Monitoring and tuning" as these two functional categories are essential for effective performance management.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(005) Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
- A.
Tuning
- B.
Analyzing
- C.
Gathering
- D.
Monitoring
Correct Answer
D. MonitoringExplanation
Monitoring is the correct answer because it refers to the function of performance management that involves tracking historical data by monitoring activities on the network. Monitoring allows for the continuous observation and measurement of network performance, identifying any issues or abnormalities, and collecting data for analysis and optimization. It helps in ensuring that the network operates efficiently and effectively by keeping track of its performance over time.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 06, 2014Quiz Created by
Henckel
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