Obstetrics & Gynaecology - Often Repeated Easy Questions.
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Contents ▼ 2012 (37) ▼ June (2) HMP shunt - High Yield Topic Series Rings in biochemistry ► May
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Dysgerminoma of ovary does not produce
- A.
Placental alkaline phosphatase
- B.
Lactate dehydrogenase
- C.
AFP
- D.
AFP and HCG.
Correct Answer
D. AFP and HCG.Explanation
Dysgerminomas produce Placebtal ALP and LDH only.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is
- A.
Choriocarcinoma
- B.
Dysgerminoma
- C.
Embryonal cell tumor
- D.
Malignant Teratoma
Correct Answer
B. DysgerminomaExplanation
Dysgerminoma is the most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary. It is a type of ovarian cancer that arises from the germ cells, which are responsible for producing eggs. Dysgerminomas are typically found in young women and are characterized by large, uniform cells with clear cytoplasm. They are highly sensitive to chemotherapy and have a good prognosis when diagnosed and treated early. Choriocarcinoma, embryonal cell tumor, and malignant teratoma are also germ cell tumors of the ovary, but they are less common than dysgerminoma.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Initial treatment of rectovaginal fistula Should be
- A.
Colostomy
- B.
Colporrhaphy
- C.
Anterior resection
- D.
Primary repair
Correct Answer
A. ColostomyExplanation
colostomy will reduce fecal contamination during and after surgery. thus reduces infection.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is
- A.
1.5 cm
- B.
2 cm
- C.
2.5 cm
- D.
3cm
Correct Answer
C. 2.5 cmExplanation
The risk of preterm delivery is increased if the cervical length is 2.5 cm. This means that if the cervix measures 2.5 cm or less, there is a higher likelihood of delivering the baby prematurely. A shorter cervical length is often associated with a weakened cervix, which can lead to the cervix opening too early and causing preterm labor. Monitoring and measuring cervical length is an important tool in identifying women at risk for preterm delivery and allowing for appropriate interventions to prevent or manage preterm birth.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Most common cause of PPH (many times asked)
- A.
Uterine atonicity
- B.
Coagulopathy
- C.
Trauma
- D.
Infection
Correct Answer
A. Uterine atonicityExplanation
Uterine atonicity is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). This refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. When the uterus fails to contract, the blood vessels that were connected to the placenta remain open, causing continuous bleeding. This can occur due to a variety of reasons, such as prolonged labor, multiple pregnancies, or the use of certain medications. Prompt recognition and management of uterine atonicity are crucial to prevent severe bleeding and its associated complications.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Lambda sign or twin peak sign indicates
- A.
Monochorionicity
- B.
Dichorionicity
- C.
Both
- D.
None
Correct Answer
B. DichorionicityExplanation
The presence of a lambda sign or twin peak sign indicates dichorionicity. This means that the pregnancy involves two separate chorionic sacs, indicating the presence of two separate embryos. Monochorionicity, on the other hand, refers to a pregnancy with only one chorionic sac, indicating the presence of identical twins. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is dichorionicity.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Most common cause of tubal block in lndia is
- A.
Gonorrhea infection
- B.
Bacterial vaginosis
- C.
Tuberculosis
- D.
Chlamydia infection
Correct Answer
C. TuberculosisExplanation
Tuberculosis is the most common cause of tubal block in India. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which primarily affects the lungs but can also spread to other parts of the body. In the case of tubal block, tuberculosis can lead to inflammation and scarring of the fallopian tubes, causing them to become blocked. This can result in infertility or difficulty in conceiving. Tuberculosis is a significant health issue in India, and its prevalence contributes to it being the most common cause of tubal block in the country.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Surgical procedure with highest incidence of ureteric injury is
- A.
Vaginal hysterectomy
- B.
Abdominal hysterectomy
- C.
Anterior colporrhaphy
- D.
Wertheim’s hysterectomy
Correct Answer
D. Wertheim’s hysterectomyExplanation
Wertheim's hysterectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the uterus and surrounding structures, including the upper part of the vagina, lymph nodes, and supporting ligaments. This procedure is commonly performed for the treatment of cervical cancer. Due to the complexity of the surgery and the involvement of various structures, there is a higher risk of ureteric injury during Wertheim's hysterectomy compared to other surgical procedures mentioned. The proximity of the ureters to the cervix and the need to dissect the lymph nodes in close proximity to the ureters increase the chances of inadvertent injury.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Clue cells are seen in
- A.
Syphilis
- B.
Bacterial vaginosis
- C.
Trichomoniasis
- D.
Chlamydial infection
Correct Answer
B. Bacterial vaginosisExplanation
Clue cells are epithelial cells that are covered with bacteria, making them appear granular or stippled under a microscope. They are a characteristic finding in bacterial vaginosis, a common vaginal infection caused by an imbalance in the normal vaginal flora. In bacterial vaginosis, there is an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria, such as Gardnerella vaginalis, which can adhere to the vaginal epithelial cells and form a biofilm. The presence of clue cells is a key diagnostic feature of bacterial vaginosis and helps differentiate it from other vaginal infections like syphilis, trichomoniasis, and chlamydial infection.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Strawberry Vagina is seen in
- A.
Syphilis
- B.
Bacterial vaginosis
- C.
Trichomoniasis
- D.
Chlamydial infection
Correct Answer
C. TrichomoniasisExplanation
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. One of the symptoms of trichomoniasis is the presence of a strawberry-like appearance in the vaginal area. This is due to inflammation and irritation of the vaginal walls caused by the infection. Therefore, the correct answer is Trichomoniasis.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Most common cause of Bartholin's abscesses
- A.
Syphilis
- B.
Bacterial vaginosis
- C.
Trichomoniasis
- D.
Gonococci
Correct Answer
D. GonococciExplanation
Gonococci is the correct answer because it is a bacteria that commonly causes Bartholin's abscesses. Bartholin's abscesses occur when the Bartholin's glands, located on either side of the vaginal opening, become infected and blocked. Gonococci bacteria can enter the glands through sexual contact and cause inflammation and infection. This can lead to the formation of an abscess, which is a painful, swollen lump. Prompt diagnosis and treatment of gonococci infection is important to prevent complications and further spread of the bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Treatment of choice for Bartholin's abscesses
- A.
Excision
- B.
Marsupialization
- C.
I&D
- D.
Any of the above
Correct Answer
B. MarsupializationExplanation
Marsupialization is the preferred treatment for Bartholin's abscesses. This procedure involves creating a small opening in the abscess to allow for drainage and prevent reoccurrence. It is a less invasive option compared to excision and is often effective in relieving symptoms and preventing further complications. Excision involves removing the entire Bartholin's gland and may be considered in cases of recurrent abscesses or when malignancy is suspected. Incision and drainage (I&D) may be performed as an emergency procedure to relieve pain and remove pus, but it is not a definitive treatment for Bartholin's abscesses.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Pregnancy should not be allowed in
- A.
ASD
- B.
Aortic stenosis
- C.
Mitral stenosis
- D.
Eisenmenger’s complex
Correct Answer
D. Eisenmenger’s complexExplanation
Eisenmenger's complex is a condition where there is a reversal of blood flow in the heart due to a defect in the heart's structure. This condition can lead to severe complications during pregnancy, such as increased strain on the heart and decreased oxygen supply to the fetus. Therefore, pregnancy should not be allowed in individuals with Eisenmenger's complex to avoid potential harm to both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Hepatitis infection that is fulminant in in pregnancy
- A.
C
- B.
D
- C.
E
- D.
F
Correct Answer
C. EExplanation
C - chronicity & Carcinoma | E - fulminant in pregnancy| D - Defective virusRate this question:
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- 15.
Carbohydrate Antigen - 125 is a marker of
- A.
Colon cancer
- B.
Ovarian cancer
- C.
Brain cancer
- D.
Breast cancer
Correct Answer
B. Ovarian cancerExplanation
Carbohydrate Antigen - 125 (CA-125) is a protein that is often elevated in patients with ovarian cancer. It is used as a tumor marker to help diagnose and monitor the progression of ovarian cancer. Elevated levels of CA-125 may indicate the presence of ovarian cancer, although it is not specific to this type of cancer and can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Therefore, CA-125 is particularly useful in combination with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies to aid in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Hormone Replacement Threapy does not prevent
- A.
Flushing
- B.
Coronary heart disease
- C.
Vaginal atrophy
- D.
Osteoporosis
Correct Answer
B. Coronary heart diseaseExplanation
Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves taking hormones to replace the ones that the body no longer produces after menopause. While HRT has been found to have several benefits, such as reducing symptoms of menopause and preventing osteoporosis, it does not prevent coronary heart disease. Coronary heart disease is a condition that occurs when the blood vessels supplying the heart become narrowed or blocked, leading to a reduced blood flow and potentially causing a heart attack. HRT may have some effects on the cardiovascular system, but it is not considered a preventive measure for coronary heart disease.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which one is NOT a physiological change in pregnancy ?
- A.
↑ stroke volume
- B.
↑ intravascular volume
- C.
↑ peripheral vascular resistance
- D.
↑ cardiac output
Correct Answer
C. ↑ peripHeral vascular resistanceExplanation
During pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body to support the growing fetus. These changes include an increase in stroke volume, intravascular volume, and cardiac output. However, an increase in peripheral vascular resistance is not a physiological change that occurs in pregnancy. Peripheral vascular resistance refers to the resistance to blood flow in the blood vessels, and during pregnancy, there is actually a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance to ensure adequate blood flow to the developing fetus.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Red degeneration of myoma is most common during
- A.
1st trimester
- B.
2nd trimester
- C.
3rd trimester
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 2nd trimesterExplanation
Red degeneration of myoma is most common during the 2nd trimester of pregnancy. Red degeneration refers to the degeneration of a uterine fibroid, also known as a myoma, during pregnancy. This degeneration occurs due to a lack of blood supply to the fibroid, leading to bleeding and necrosis. The 2nd trimester is the period when the fibroid grows rapidly, and the increased blood flow to the uterus can cause red degeneration to occur. Therefore, the 2nd trimester is the most common time for red degeneration of myoma to happen.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Drug useful in preventing vertical transmission of HIV
- A.
Nevirapine
- B.
Stavudine
- C.
Lamivudine
- D.
Abacavir
Correct Answer
A. NevirapineExplanation
Nevirapine is a drug that is commonly used in the prevention of vertical transmission of HIV, which refers to the transmission of the virus from an infected mother to her child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding. Nevirapine belongs to a class of antiretroviral drugs called non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), which work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme that the virus needs to replicate. By preventing viral replication, nevirapine helps reduce the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Vertical transmission of HIV is more common during
- A.
1st trimester
- B.
2nd trimester
- C.
3rd trimester
- D.
During labour
Correct Answer
D. During labourExplanation
Vertical transmission of HIV refers to the transmission of the virus from an HIV-positive mother to her child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding. During labour, there is an increased risk of transmission as the baby passes through the birth canal, which may contain the virus. The risk of transmission is further increased if the mother's viral load is high or if she has not received appropriate antiretroviral therapy. Therefore, during labour is the most common time for vertical transmission of HIV to occur.Rate this question:
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- 21.
X ray of a premature baby with bullous lesions showed periostitis, next diagnostic work up is
- A.
ELISA for HIV
- B.
PCR for Tuberculosis
- C.
HbSAg for mother
- D.
VDRL for mother & baby
Correct Answer
D. VDRL for mother & babyExplanation
The presence of bullous lesions in a premature baby's X-ray, along with periostitis, suggests the possibility of congenital syphilis. VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test is used to detect syphilis antibodies in the blood. Therefore, performing VDRL tests for both the mother and baby would be the appropriate next diagnostic workup to confirm or rule out syphilis infection in this case.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Acetyl cholinesterase enzyme in amniotic fluid is diagnostic of
- A.
Open spina bifida
- B.
Osteogenesis imperfecta
- C.
Omphalocele
- D.
Spina bifida occulta
Correct Answer
A. Open spina bifidaExplanation
The presence of acetyl cholinesterase enzyme in the amniotic fluid is indicative of open spina bifida. Open spina bifida is a neural tube defect characterized by the incomplete closure of the spine during fetal development. The enzyme is released into the amniotic fluid when there is a defect in the spinal cord, allowing it to leak out. Therefore, the detection of acetyl cholinesterase in the amniotic fluid can be used as a diagnostic marker for open spina bifida.Rate this question:
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Oct 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 04, 2012Quiz Created by
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