Organ Pathology - Handout 2-6
Pathology is the causal study of pathogens, their consequences, and the treatment as a result. The quiz below tests your knowledge on organ pathology. Do you think you have what it takes to take it up? Find out below.
- 1.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of benign tumors?
- A.
Slow growing
- B.
Non encapsulated
- C.
Expansile growth
- D.
Well differentiated
Correct Answer
B. Non encapsulatedExplanation
Benign tumors are typically encapsulated, meaning they are surrounded by a fibrous capsule that separates them from surrounding tissues. This encapsulation helps to contain the tumor and prevent it from spreading. Therefore, "Non encapsulated" is not a characteristic of benign tumors.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A cell has become cancerous, which phase of the cell cycle will it never again enter?
- A.
S
- B.
G1
- C.
M
- D.
G0
Correct Answer
D. G0Explanation
Once a cell becomes cancerous, it loses its ability to enter the G0 phase of the cell cycle. The G0 phase is a resting phase where cells temporarily stop dividing and can either remain in this phase or re-enter the cell cycle when necessary. However, cancer cells continuously divide and multiply without control, bypassing the G0 phase. Therefore, a cancerous cell will never again enter the G0 phase.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Overproduction of which of the following will cause a decrease in apoptosis?
- A.
Bcl2
- B.
BAX
- C.
P53
Correct Answer
A. Bcl2Explanation
Overproduction of Bcl2 will cause a decrease in apoptosis. Bcl2 is an anti-apoptotic protein that inhibits cell death by blocking the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria, which is a key step in the apoptotic pathway. When Bcl2 is overproduced, it prevents the activation of pro-apoptotic proteins and promotes cell survival, leading to a decrease in apoptosis.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The more well differentiated a tumor cell is, the more aggressive it will most likely be.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The most aggressive cells are the most poorly differentiated.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A well differentiated tumor will most likely be given a low grade (G1) rating on the TNM scale
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Well differentiated is least aggressive type. Slide 47 shows the grading breakdownRate this question:
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- 6.
Your patient explains that their breast cancer is stage 3, you know this means...
- A.
The cancer may have spread to the liver (distant organ)
- B.
The cancer has not metastasized
- C.
The cancer is benign
- D.
The cancer may have spread to the lymph nodes (nearby site)
Correct Answer
D. The cancer may have spread to the lympH nodes (nearby site)Explanation
Slide 49Rate this question:
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- 7.
Breast Cancer in men
- A.
Is much less aggressive than breast cancer in women
- B.
Is diagnosed about half as much as breast cancer in women
- C.
Is equally as aggressive as breast cancer in women
- D.
Is much more aggressive than breast cancer in women
Correct Answer
D. Is much more aggressive than breast cancer in womenExplanation
Breast cancer in men is much more aggressive than breast cancer in women. This is because breast cancer in men is often diagnosed at a later stage, making it more difficult to treat. Additionally, men have less breast tissue than women, which means that the cancer is more likely to spread to the surrounding lymph nodes and other organs. Furthermore, the lack of awareness and screening for breast cancer in men leads to delayed diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, breast cancer in men is generally more aggressive and has a poorer prognosis compared to breast cancer in women.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following conditions would increase a patient's risk for developing breast cancer? (Select 2)
- A.
Taking oral contraceptives
- B.
Early menopause
- C.
Early menarche
- D.
Late menarche
Correct Answer(s)
A. Taking oral contraceptives
C. Early menarcheExplanation
Increased exposure to estrogen is correlated with increased risk of developing breast cancerRate this question:
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- 9.
A patient presents with a Roth Spot. Which of the following should you, as a clinician, rule out before proceeding with any other diagnosis?
- A.
Lymphoma
- B.
Aplastic anemia
- C.
Polycythemia
- D.
Leukemia
Correct Answer
D. LeukemiaExplanation
A Roth spot is a retinal hemorrhage with a white center, commonly associated with leukemia. It is caused by the infiltration of leukemic cells into the retinal vessels, leading to vessel damage and subsequent hemorrhage. Therefore, before proceeding with any other diagnosis, a clinician should rule out leukemia in a patient presenting with a Roth spot. This is because the presence of a Roth spot strongly suggests an underlying leukemia, and further investigations and management should be focused on confirming and treating this condition.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In a prostate screening, which blood PSA levels would be considered normal?
- A.
6 ng/ml
- B.
10 ng/ml
- C.
12 ng/ml
- D.
3 ng/ml
Correct Answer
D. 3 ng/ml -
- 11.
Which of the following are true regarding osteoblastic tumors? (Select 2)
- A.
They are bone forming tumors
- B.
They are bone destruction tumors
- C.
They are associated with breast cancer
- D.
They are associated with prostate cancer
Correct Answer(s)
A. They are bone forming tumors
D. They are associated with prostate cancerExplanation
Osteoblastic tumors are characterized by the formation of new bone tissue. They result in the abnormal growth of bone cells, leading to the production of excess bone. This excessive bone formation can cause bone deformities and thickening. Additionally, osteoblastic tumors are often associated with prostate cancer. Prostate cancer cells can spread to the bones and stimulate the activity of osteoblasts, leading to the formation of new bone tissue. Therefore, the correct answers are that osteoblastic tumors are bone forming tumors and they are associated with prostate cancer.Rate this question:
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- 12.
After moving to a higher elevation city, you would expect which of the following changes? (Select 2)
- A.
An increase in hematocrit
- B.
A decrease in hematocrit
- C.
An increase in erythropoietin production
- D.
A decrease in erythropoietin production
Correct Answer(s)
A. An increase in hematocrit
C. An increase in erythropoietin productionExplanation
Less O2 available = make more rbc to absorb as much as possible. Need erythropoietin to make RBCRate this question:
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- 13.
A patient with low blood iron, high transferrin, and low ferritin most likely has (Select 2)
- A.
Iron deficiency anemia
- B.
Megaloblastic anemia
- C.
Anemia of chronic disease
- D.
Koilonychia
Correct Answer(s)
A. Iron deficiency anemia
D. KoilonychiaExplanation
A patient with low blood iron, high transferrin, and low ferritin levels is most likely experiencing iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency anemia occurs when there is a lack of iron in the body, leading to decreased production of red blood cells. Low blood iron and low ferritin levels indicate a deficiency in iron, which is necessary for the production of red blood cells. High transferrin levels suggest that the body is trying to compensate for the low iron levels by increasing the transport of iron. Koilonychia, a condition characterized by spoon-shaped nails, can also be associated with iron deficiency anemia.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Your patient has megaloblastic anemia due to a B12 deficiency. You incorrectly assume its a folate deficiency and increase their dosage. Which of the following is true?
- A.
The megaloblastic anemia will be cured as folate compensates for Vit B12
- B.
They will still develop irreversible neurological issues
- C.
The patients tongue will probably be red and painful
- D.
Increased folate does not mask Vit B12 deficiency induced hematological symptoms
Correct Answer
B. They will still develop irreversible neurological issues -
- 15.
Which of the following is NOT true of anemia of chronic disease?
- A.
May be caused by excessive cytokine release
- B.
Can be treated with iron therapy
- C.
Erythroid precursors are unable to properly use iron
- D.
May have an increase in ferritin deposit
Correct Answer
B. Can be treated with iron therapyExplanation
Anemia of chronic disease cannot be treated with iron therapy. This is because in this type of anemia, the erythroid precursors are unable to properly use iron, meaning that even if iron is provided through therapy, it cannot be effectively utilized by the body. Instead, the treatment for anemia of chronic disease focuses on managing the underlying chronic condition and addressing any other contributing factors. Iron therapy is more effective for other types of anemia, such as iron deficiency anemia.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is not an anemia caused by an issue at the level of the stem cell?
- A.
MDS
- B.
Pure red cell aplasia
- C.
PNH
- D.
Aplastic anemia
Correct Answer
B. Pure red cell aplasiaExplanation
Pure red cell aplasia is at the level of the progenitor cellsRate this question:
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- 17.
If you have one alpha globin chain, what would be the disease?
- A.
Beta thalassemia minor
- B.
Hb h disease
- C.
Barts hydrops fetalis
- D.
Alpha thalassemia Major
Correct Answer
B. Hb h diseaseExplanation
If an individual has only one alpha globin chain, they would have Hb H disease. In this condition, there is a deficiency of alpha globin chains, leading to the formation of abnormal hemoglobin (Hb H) in the red blood cells. This can result in a range of symptoms, including anemia, jaundice, and an enlarged spleen. Hb H disease is a milder form of alpha thalassemia compared to alpha thalassemia major, which is characterized by the absence of all four alpha globin chains.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following is true of sickle cell anemia?
- A.
The substitution occurs on the alpha gene
- B.
All cells sickle at the same time
- C.
It is due to an amino acid substitution (valine replaces glutamate)
- D.
Patients with sickle cell are at an increased risk for malaria
Correct Answer
C. It is due to an amino acid substitution (valine replaces glutamate)Explanation
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by a specific amino acid substitution. In this condition, valine replaces glutamate in the hemoglobin protein, leading to the formation of abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells. This substitution occurs on the beta gene, not the alpha gene. It is important to note that not all cells sickle at the same time, as sickling is triggered by certain conditions such as low oxygen levels. Additionally, individuals with sickle cell anemia have a higher susceptibility to malaria due to the presence of abnormal red blood cells that are more easily infected by the malaria parasite.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is true of acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
- A.
It is the most common leukemia in adults
- B.
It may involve translocation of chromosomes (22 --> 9)
- C.
It is associated with Auer rods
- D.
Hairy cell leukemia falls under this category
Correct Answer
B. It may involve translocation of chromosomes (22 --> 9)Explanation
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a type of leukemia that primarily affects children, although it can also occur in adults. It is characterized by the proliferation of immature lymphoid cells in the bone marrow and blood. One of the genetic abnormalities commonly associated with ALL is the translocation of chromosomes 22 and 9, resulting in the fusion of the BCR and ABL genes. This translocation is known as the Philadelphia chromosome and is present in about 25% of adult ALL cases. The presence of this translocation is important for diagnosis and treatment decisions in ALL patients.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What MUST be present in order to diagnose AML?
- A.
Auer Rods
- B.
Reed-Sternberg cells
- C.
Bence Jones protein
- D.
Philadelphia Chromosome
Correct Answer
A. Auer RodsExplanation
Auer rods are needle-like structures that are found in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts, which are immature white blood cells. These rods are characteristic of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and are considered a diagnostic feature. Therefore, in order to diagnose AML, the presence of Auer rods must be observed in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How would you classify a NHL that is in the axillary nodes, the cervical nodes, and the lung?
- A.
Stage IIE
- B.
Stage IV
- C.
Stage IIIB
- D.
Stage IIA
- E.
Stage I
- F.
Stage IIIE
Correct Answer
A. Stage IIEExplanation
Because it is more than 1 node, it cannot be stage 1. Because all of the sites are on the same side of the diaphragm, it cannot be 3 or 4 and so it must be 2. Lastly, because it has spread from a nodal site (lymph nodes) to an extranodal site (lung), it is classified as "E". Therefore it is 2ERate this question:
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- 22.
In terms of the coagulation process, which of the following are true regarding platelets. (Select 2)
- A.
Platelet adhesion occurs on exposed collagen with the help of von Willebrand's factor
- B.
Once adhesion occurs, platelets release ADP and Thromboxane A2
- C.
Once adhesion occurs, platelets release PgI2
- D.
Platelet adhesion occurs on endothelial cells due to increased plasmin
Correct Answer(s)
A. Platelet adhesion occurs on exposed collagen with the help of von Willebrand's factor
B. Once adhesion occurs, platelets release ADP and Thromboxane A2Explanation
Platelet adhesion occurs on exposed collagen with the help of von Willebrand's factor. This is because von Willebrand's factor binds to both collagen and platelet receptors, facilitating platelet adhesion to the site of injury. Once adhesion occurs, platelets release ADP and Thromboxane A2. These substances help to recruit and activate more platelets, leading to the formation of a platelet plug at the site of injury.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The extrinsic coagulation pathway
- A.
Slower acting than the intrinsic pathway
- B.
The primary pathway for creating thrombin
- C.
Inhibited by Tissue Factor
- D.
Is less important (quantitatively) than the intrinsic pathway
Correct Answer
D. Is less important (quantitatively) than the intrinsic pathwayExplanation
The extrinsic coagulation pathway is considered less important (quantitatively) than the intrinsic pathway. This means that the intrinsic pathway plays a larger role in the overall process of blood clotting compared to the extrinsic pathway. While the extrinsic pathway is still necessary for proper coagulation, it is not as significant in terms of the amount of thrombin produced. Thrombin is a key enzyme in blood clot formation, and the primary pathway for its creation is the extrinsic pathway. However, the intrinsic pathway is responsible for producing a larger quantity of thrombin, making it more crucial in the coagulation process.Rate this question:
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- 24.
You want to decrease coagulation, which of the following would you increase? (Select 2)
- A.
Thrombin
- B.
Tissue Factor
- C.
PGI2
- D.
Thromboxane A2
- E.
Plasmin
Correct Answer(s)
C. PGI2
E. PlasminExplanation
To decrease coagulation, you would increase the levels of PGI2 and Plasmin. PGI2 (prostacyclin) is a vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation, which helps to prevent clot formation. Plasmin is an enzyme that breaks down fibrin, the protein responsible for clot formation. By increasing the levels of PGI2 and Plasmin, clot formation can be inhibited, leading to a decrease in coagulation.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Prothrombin time (PT) test
- A.
Is normal if it is 25-30 seconds
- B.
Tests the extrinsic coagulation pathway
- C.
Tests both intrinsic and extrinsic pathway
- D.
Is abnormal is less than 15 seconds
Correct Answer
B. Tests the extrinsic coagulation pathwayExplanation
The correct answer is "Tests the extrinsic coagulation pathway." The Prothrombin time (PT) test is used to evaluate the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot after a substance called thromboplastin is added. This pathway is responsible for the initiation of clotting in response to tissue injury or trauma. By measuring the PT, healthcare professionals can assess the function of factors involved in the extrinsic pathway, such as factors VII, X, V, and II (prothrombin).Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 29, 2016Quiz Created by
Eddy Sidra
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