1.
Which characteristics are that of a gingival pocket (pseudo-pocket)/normal sulcus?
Correct Answer
B. Base of pocket is at the CEJ
Explanation
A gingival pocket (pseudo-pocket)/normal sulcus is characterized by the base of the pocket being at the CEJ (cementoenamel junction). This means that the pocket does not extend beyond the level of the CEJ and is confined within the gingival tissue. This is in contrast to a true periodontal pocket, where the base of the pocket is apical to the alveolar crest.
2.
Which characteristics are that of a suprabony pocket?
Correct Answer
B. Base of pocket is coronal to alveolar crest
Explanation
A suprabony pocket is characterized by the base of the pocket being coronal to the alveolar crest. This means that the bottom of the pocket is located above the level of the alveolar crest, which is the bony ridge that surrounds and supports the teeth. This condition is typically associated with periodontal disease, where the gum tissue pulls away from the tooth, forming a pocket. The pocket depth is measured from the gingival margin to the base of the pocket, and in the case of a suprabony pocket, this measurement would be above the level of the alveolar crest.
3.
Which of the following characteristics reflect that of an infrabony pocket?
Correct Answer
C. Base of pocket is apical to the alveolar crest
Explanation
An infrabony pocket is characterized by having its base located apical to the alveolar crest. This means that the bottom of the pocket is positioned below the level of the surrounding bone, indicating a deeper pocket. This condition is often associated with advanced periodontal disease, where the destruction of the supporting bone results in the formation of a pocket below the normal level of the alveolar crest.
4.
All of the following parts of the periodontium are affected by occlusal trauma except one. Which one Is the exception?
Correct Answer
C. Gingiva
Explanation
Occlusal trauma refers to excessive forces applied to the teeth during biting and chewing. These forces can cause damage to the periodontium, which includes the periodontal ligament, alveolar bone, gingiva, and cementum. However, the exception in this case is the gingiva. While occlusal trauma can cause damage to the other parts of the periodontium, it typically does not directly affect the gingiva. The gingiva is more commonly affected by factors such as poor oral hygiene, inflammation, and periodontal diseases.
5.
Which one of the following definitions pertains to primary occlusal trauma?
Correct Answer
B. Excessive occlusal force with adequate bone support
Explanation
Primary occlusal trauma refers to excessive occlusal force, meaning that there is more force being applied to the teeth and supporting structures than they can tolerate. However, in primary occlusal trauma, the bone support is still adequate, meaning that the bone surrounding the teeth is healthy and able to withstand the excessive force. This is different from secondary occlusal trauma, where the occlusal force is normal, but the bone support is reduced.
6.
From the following list, select the items associated with occlusal trauma.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Tooth mobility
B. Tooth migration
C. Pain on chewing
Explanation
Occlusal trauma refers to the damage caused to teeth and their supporting structures due to excessive force during biting and chewing. Tooth mobility, tooth migration, and pain on chewing are all associated with occlusal trauma. Tooth mobility refers to the looseness or movement of a tooth within its socket, which can be caused by the excessive force exerted on the tooth. Tooth migration refers to the shifting or movement of a tooth from its original position, which can also occur due to the trauma caused by excessive biting forces. Pain on chewing is a common symptom experienced by individuals with occlusal trauma, as the excessive force can cause discomfort and sensitivity.
7.
From the following list, select the items associated with primary occlusal trauma
Correct Answer(s)
A. RadiograpHic widening of the PDL space
E. Presence of wear facets
F. Increasing mobility of teeth
G. Occlusal restoration in hyperocclusion
Explanation
Primary occlusal trauma refers to excessive force on the teeth caused by factors such as bruxism or malocclusion. This can result in various dental changes. Radiographic widening of the PDL (periodontal ligament) space is a sign of increased stress on the teeth. The presence of wear facets indicates that the teeth are grinding against each other, which is a common consequence of occlusal trauma. Increasing mobility of teeth is another indication of excessive force. Occlusal restoration in hyperocclusion refers to the need for dental work due to an improper bite, which can contribute to occlusal trauma.
8.
Occlusal trauma in combination with chronic inflammatory periodontitis may result in greater tooth mobility and alveolar bone loss because occlusal trauma causes periodontal pocket formation.
Correct Answer
B. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
Explanation
The statement is correct because occlusal trauma in combination with chronic inflammatory periodontitis can indeed lead to increased tooth mobility and alveolar bone loss. However, the reason is not correct because occlusal trauma does not directly cause periodontal pocket formation. Periodontal pocket formation is primarily caused by the inflammatory response to bacterial plaque and calculus accumulation in the periodontal tissues.
9.
A patient complains of soreness in the jaw on waking in the morning. She is having stressful problems at work. She complains that some of her lower teeth are "wearing down". Which one of the following conditions does this patient most likely have?
Correct Answer
B. Parafunctional habit
Explanation
The patient most likely has a parafunctional habit. Parafunctional habits are repetitive movements or actions of the jaw that are not related to normal functions such as eating or speaking. These habits, often caused by stress or anxiety, can lead to soreness in the jaw and wearing down of the teeth. In this case, the patient's stressful problems at work suggest that she may be clenching or grinding her teeth during sleep, leading to the symptoms described.
10.
From the following list, select the items associated with secondary occlusal trauma.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Tooth with advanced bone loss
B. Mastication
C. Tongue thrusting
Explanation
Secondary occlusal trauma refers to excessive forces on teeth that are already compromised due to factors such as advanced bone loss. Mastication, which is the process of chewing, can contribute to secondary occlusal trauma by exerting excessive forces on the teeth. Tongue thrusting, which is the habit of pushing the tongue against the teeth during swallowing or at rest, can also cause excessive forces on the teeth and contribute to secondary occlusal trauma. However, a tooth with adequate periodontium (supporting structures) would not be associated with secondary occlusal trauma as it is not compromised. Fremitus, which refers to abnormal tooth mobility, can be a sign of secondary occlusal trauma.
11.
A patient has returned for a 2-week follow-up visit after periodontal surgery complaining of tooth mobility. There was no mobility before the surgery was done. Which one of the following should be explained to the patient?
Correct Answer
B. Mobility will decrease in time
Explanation
After periodontal surgery, it is common for patients to experience temporary tooth mobility. This is due to the healing process and the adjustment of the surrounding tissues. As the tissues heal and stabilize, the tooth mobility will decrease over time. Therefore, it is important to reassure the patient that this is a normal part of the healing process and that the mobility will improve with time.
12.
Which one of the following conditions is best treated with a night guard?
Correct Answer
D. Clenching and grinding
Explanation
Clenching and grinding is best treated with a night guard because it helps to protect the teeth from the excessive forces and pressure caused by these habits. A night guard acts as a cushion and prevents the teeth from grinding against each other, reducing the risk of tooth damage, tooth wear, and jaw pain. It also helps to relax the jaw muscles and alleviate symptoms associated with clenching and grinding, such as headaches and facial pain.
13.
At which one of the following areas is the width of attached gingiva greatest?
Correct Answer
C. Maxillary lateral incisors
Explanation
The width of attached gingiva refers to the amount of gum tissue that is firmly attached to the underlying bone. In general, the width of attached gingiva is greatest in the anterior region of the mouth, particularly around the incisors. Therefore, the correct answer is maxillary lateral incisors.
14.
Which one of the following structures directly attaches the junctional epithelium to the enamel?
Correct Answer
C. Basal lamina
Explanation
The basal lamina directly attaches the junctional epithelium to the enamel. The basal lamina is a thin layer of extracellular matrix that separates the epithelium from the underlying connective tissue. It provides structural support and acts as a barrier between the epithelium and connective tissue. In the case of the junctional epithelium, the basal lamina attaches it to the enamel surface, forming a tight seal to protect the underlying tissues from bacterial invasion. Desmosomes and hemidesmosomes are cell junctions involved in cell-to-cell and cell-to-matrix adhesion, respectively. Gingival fibers are collagen fibers that provide support to the gingival tissue.
15.
From the following list, select the items associated with the attachment apparatus-
Correct Answer(s)
B. Cementum
C. Alveolar and supporting bone
D. Periodontal ligament
Explanation
The attachment apparatus refers to the structures that support and hold the teeth in place within the oral cavity. The cementum is a specialized calcified tissue that covers the root of the tooth and helps anchor it to the alveolar bone. The alveolar and supporting bone refers to the bone that surrounds and supports the teeth within the dental arch. The periodontal ligament is a fibrous connective tissue that attaches the cementum to the alveolar bone, providing stability and shock absorption during chewing and biting. Therefore, cementum, alveolar and supporting bone, and periodontal ligament are all associated with the attachment apparatus.
16.
Which one of the following structures is involved in the attachment of gingiva to the tooth surface?
Correct Answer
B. Dentogingival unit
Explanation
The dentogingival unit is involved in the attachment of the gingiva to the tooth surface. It refers to the anatomical structures that connect the tooth to the gingiva, including the junctional epithelium, connective tissue fibers, and the gingival fibers. These structures help to maintain the stability and integrity of the gingiva around the tooth.
17.
From the following list, select the items associated with biologic width
Correct Answer(s)
C. Junctional epithelium
D. Gingival connective tissue attachment
Explanation
Biologic width refers to the space between the base of the gingival sulcus and the crestal alveolar bone. It includes both the junctional epithelium, which attaches the gingiva to the tooth surface, and the gingival connective tissue attachment, which connects the gingiva to the tooth's cementum. The other listed items, such as the sulcular epithelium, PDL fibers, and crestal alveolar bone, are not directly associated with biologic width.
18.
From the following list, select the items associated with the junctional epithelium.
Correct Answer(s)
C. Few cells thick
E. Surrounds the tooth
F. Continuous with the free gingiva
G. Contributes to attachment of the gingiva of the tooth
Explanation
The junctional epithelium is a few cells thick and surrounds the tooth. It is continuous with the free gingiva and contributes to the attachment of the gingiva of the tooth. The junctional epithelium does not have a vascular or lymph supply, and it does not contain a lamina propria.
19.
Arteries that supply blood and lymphatics to the free gingiva originate from all of the following parts of the periodontium except one. Which one is the exception?
Correct Answer
D. Cementum
Explanation
The arteries that supply blood and lymphatics to the free gingiva originate from all parts of the periodontium except the cementum. The cementum is a hard tissue that covers the root surface of the tooth, and it does not have direct blood vessels or lymphatics. The blood supply to the free gingiva mainly comes from the supraperiosteal arteries, which are located in the connective tissue just beneath the gingiva. The periodontal ligament (PDL) and alveolar bone also contribute to the blood supply of the free gingiva.
20.
All of the following structures are avascular except one. Which one is the exception?
Correct Answer
D. Lamina propria
Explanation
The correct answer is lamina propria. The lamina propria is a layer of connective tissue found in mucous membranes, such as those lining the digestive tract. It contains blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and immune cells, making it vascular. Enamel, cementum, and junctional epithelium are all avascular structures.
21.
It is highly unlikely (infrequent) that an individual with advanced attachment loss at one point in time will again experience rapid attachment loss (> 3 mm) within the next 3 years. This patient will go into disease remission for the rest of his/her lifetime.
Correct Answer
A. The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
Explanation
The first statement is true because it states that it is highly unlikely for an individual with advanced attachment loss to experience rapid attachment loss again within the next 3 years. This implies that the individual is not likely to have further deterioration of their condition in the near future. However, the second statement is false because it states that the patient will go into disease remission for the rest of their lifetime, which is an overly optimistic and unsupported claim.
22.
Which of the following best measures the severity of periodontal disease in a population?
Correct Answer
C. Indices
Explanation
Indices are the best measure of the severity of periodontal disease in a population. Indices are standardized tools used by dental professionals to assess and quantify the extent and severity of periodontal disease. They provide a systematic and objective way to measure parameters such as gingival inflammation, plaque accumulation, and periodontal pocket depth. By using indices, dental professionals can accurately evaluate the severity of periodontal disease in a population and track its progression over time.
23.
From the following list, select the items associated with gingivitis
Correct Answer(s)
A. Occurs primarily in children
C. Bone loss does not occur
F. Risk factors include poor oral hygiene and endocrine conditions
Explanation
Gingivitis is a common gum disease that primarily occurs in children. It is characterized by inflammation of the gums, but it does not result in bone loss. Risk factors for gingivitis include poor oral hygiene practices and certain endocrine conditions. These factors can contribute to the growth of pathogenic bacteria and the formation of calculus, which further worsen the condition. However, extensive attachment loss, which refers to the detachment of the gums from the teeth, is not typically associated with gingivitis. Overall, the correct answer options accurately describe the characteristics and risk factors of gingivitis.
24.
Which one of the following healing responses is seen in gingivitis after periodontal debridement?
Correct Answer
C. Reduction of inflammation
Explanation
After periodontal debridement, the healing response seen in gingivitis is the reduction of inflammation. Periodontal debridement involves the removal of plaque and tartar from the teeth and gums, which helps to reduce the inflammation in the gingival tissues. This process allows the gums to heal and become healthier, leading to a reduction in inflammation. The other options mentioned, such as the formation of new bone, cementum, and periodontal ligament, formation of new cementum and PDL, and reattachment of the alveolar mucosa, are not typically seen in the healing response of gingivitis after periodontal debridement.
25.
Which one of the following healing responses is seen in periodontitis after periodontal debridement
Correct Answer
D. Repair with a long junctional epithelium
Explanation
After periodontal debridement, the healing response seen in periodontitis is repair with a long junctional epithelium. This occurs when the epithelial cells migrate along the root surface and form a new attachment, but it is not as strong or functional as the original attachment. This healing response helps to stabilize the periodontal tissues and prevent further progression of the disease.
26.
Which one of the following definitions explains an apparent gain in clinical attachment after periodontal debridement?
Correct Answer
D. Gingival recession, bone fill, and establishment of a new PDL attachment
27.
Which of the following helps determine success after periodontal debridement (reevaluation)?
Correct Answer
D. Tissue response
Explanation
Tissue response helps determine success after periodontal debridement (reevaluation). This is because the goal of periodontal debridement is to remove calculus and bacteria from the teeth and gums, and the success of this procedure is reflected in the response of the surrounding tissues. If the tissues show signs of healing, such as reduced inflammation and improved attachment, it indicates that the debridement was effective. Therefore, tissue response is an important factor in determining the success of periodontal debridement.
28.
Which one of the following benefits is seen after subgingival debridement?
Correct Answer
A. Disruption of gram-negative microbial flora
Explanation
Subgingival debridement refers to the removal of plaque and calculus from below the gum line. This procedure helps disrupt the gram-negative microbial flora, which is associated with periodontal disease. By removing the harmful bacteria, subgingival debridement promotes a healthier oral environment and reduces the risk of further gum inflammation and damage.
29.
Cells coming from which one of the following structures is required for successful periodontal regeneration?
Correct Answer
A. PDL
Explanation
The periodontal ligament (PDL) is required for successful periodontal regeneration. The PDL is a specialized connective tissue that connects the tooth root to the alveolar bone. It contains various cell types, including fibroblasts, cementoblasts, and osteoblasts, which are essential for the regeneration of periodontal tissues. These cells play a crucial role in the formation of new periodontal ligament fibers, cementum, and alveolar bone, which are necessary for the successful regeneration of the periodontium.
30.
Guided Tissue regeneration (GTR) focuses on the isolation or exclusion of what type of tissue cells?
Correct Answer
A. Junctional epithelial and gingival connective tissue
Explanation
GTR focuses on the isolation or exclusion of junctional epithelial and gingival connective tissue. This technique aims to create a barrier that prevents the migration of these specific tissue cells, allowing for the regeneration of other tissues such as alveolar bone and sulcular epithelium. By excluding junctional epithelial and gingival connective tissue, GTR promotes the growth of desired tissues and facilitates the regeneration process.
31.
Which of the following is one of the 3 ways to treat a pocket? (Non-surgical)
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
All of the options mentioned (mechanical, brush and floss; scaling and root planing; chemotherapeutic agents) are non-surgical ways to treat a pocket. Mechanical methods such as brushing and flossing help remove plaque and bacteria from the pocket. Scaling and root planing involve deep cleaning of the tooth and root surfaces to remove tartar and smooth the root surface. Chemotherapeutic agents, such as antimicrobial mouth rinses or gels, can be used to kill bacteria and reduce inflammation in the pocket. Therefore, all of the above options are valid ways to treat a pocket non-surgically.
32.
___________ instruments are beneficial for plaque and deposit removal, with lavage.
Correct Answer
C. Ultrasonic
Explanation
Ultrasonic instruments are beneficial for plaque and deposit removal, with lavage. Ultrasonic instruments use high-frequency sound waves to create vibrations that help break up and remove plaque and deposits from teeth and gums. These instruments also have a built-in water irrigation system, which helps flush out debris and keep the area clean during the procedure. This makes ultrasonic instruments an effective and efficient tool for dental professionals in maintaining oral hygiene.
33.
___________ instruments are the ideal shape to adapt to root surfaces
Correct Answer
A. Curette
Explanation
Curettes are the ideal shape to adapt to root surfaces because they have a curved and rounded design that allows for better access and adaptation to the irregularities and contours of the root surface. This shape helps in effectively removing plaque, calculus, and debris from the root surface during dental procedures, promoting better oral hygiene and preventing further damage or infection. The curved shape of a curette also allows for better control and precision during the cleaning process.
34.
Upon completion of non-surgical therapy, evaluation of treatment should occur after at a ____ week interval, nonresponsive areas should be referred.
Correct Answer
C. 4
Explanation
After completing non-surgical therapy, it is recommended to evaluate the treatment after a 4-week interval. If there are any areas that do not show improvement or are nonresponsive to the therapy, it is advisable to refer them for further evaluation or alternative treatments.
35.
Non-surgical therapy can reduce pocket depths substantially when there has been little bone loss, possibly ___to ___ mm leaving a long junctional epithelium
Correct Answer
D. 2-3
Explanation
Non-surgical therapy refers to non-invasive treatments for periodontal disease. It can effectively reduce pocket depths, which are spaces between the gum and tooth where bacteria can accumulate. When there has been little bone loss, non-surgical therapy can reduce pocket depths by 2-3 mm. This reduction in pocket depths indicates that the treatment is successful in eliminating bacteria and promoting the healing of the gums. Therefore, the correct answer is 2-3.
36.
When complete removal of debris is not possible with non-surgical removal, _________ surgery may be indicated.
Correct Answer
B. Flap
Explanation
When complete removal of debris is not possible with non-surgical removal, flap surgery may be indicated. Flap surgery involves lifting a section of tissue to gain access to the underlying area for cleaning and removal of debris. This procedure allows for better visibility and access to thoroughly clean the affected area, making it an appropriate choice when non-surgical methods are insufficient.
37.
Check the following goals of non-surgical periodontal therapy.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Reduce or eliminate size of periodontal pocket by tissue shrinkage or reattachment
D. Reduce mobility
F. Reverse bacterial flora (gram - to gram +)
G. Control the pocket environment
H. Reduce gingival inflammation, even if surgical procedures are indicated
Explanation
The goals of non-surgical periodontal therapy include reducing or eliminating the size of periodontal pockets by tissue shrinkage or reattachment, reducing mobility, reversing the bacterial flora from gram-negative to gram-positive, controlling the pocket environment, and reducing gingival inflammation, even if surgical procedures are indicated. This means that the therapy aims to improve the health of the periodontal tissues by reducing pocket size, improving tooth stability, changing the bacterial composition, and controlling inflammation, regardless of whether surgical intervention is necessary.
38.
If we refer a patient to a periodontist, why must we still see them too?
Correct Answer
C. Periodontists don't check for cavities
Explanation
Referring a patient to a periodontist does not eliminate the need for the patient to continue seeing their regular dentist. While periodontists specialize in treating gum diseases and other issues related to the gums and supporting structures of the teeth, they do not typically check for cavities. Regular dentists are responsible for monitoring overall oral health, including checking for cavities and addressing other dental concerns. Therefore, even if a patient is referred to a periodontist, they still need to see their regular dentist for comprehensive dental care.
39.
After non-surgical periodontal therapy healing of the Junctional Epithelium takes _____ , but the connective tissue takes several _____.
Correct Answer
C. 1 week, months
Explanation
After non-surgical periodontal therapy, the Junctional Epithelium takes approximately 1 week to heal, while the connective tissue takes several months to heal.
40.
Which of the following limits the effectiveness of nonsurgical periodontal debridement procedures? (POTENTIAL BOARDS QUESTION)
Correct Answer
A. Probing depths greater than 5 mm
Explanation
Probing depths greater than 5 mm limit the effectiveness of nonsurgical periodontal debridement procedures because it indicates the presence of deep periodontal pockets. These deep pockets are difficult to clean thoroughly with nonsurgical techniques, such as scaling and root planing. Deeper pockets provide a favorable environment for bacteria to thrive and can lead to continued inflammation and disease progression. Therefore, addressing these deep pockets may require surgical interventions or additional treatments to achieve optimal periodontal health.
41.
Which of the following limits the effectiveness of nonsurgical periodontal debridement procedures? (POTENTIAL BOARDS QUESTION)
Correct Answer
C. Too dull instruments
Explanation
Too dull instruments limit the effectiveness of nonsurgical periodontal debridement procedures because they are unable to effectively remove plaque and calculus from the teeth and gums. Dull instruments do not have sharp edges, which are necessary to efficiently scrape off the buildup of bacteria and debris. As a result, the procedure may not be thorough, leading to incomplete cleaning and ineffective treatment of periodontal disease.
42.
Which of the following limits the effectiveness of nonsurgical periodontal debridement procedures? (POTENTIAL BOARDS QUESTION) Many times we don't have a good response to-
Correct Answer
D. Posterior teeth
Explanation
Nonsurgical periodontal debridement procedures are limited in their effectiveness in treating posterior teeth. This is because posterior teeth are harder to access and clean compared to anterior teeth and lingual surfaces. The anatomy and positioning of the posterior teeth make it challenging to thoroughly remove plaque and calculus, leading to reduced effectiveness of nonsurgical periodontal debridement procedures in these areas.
43.
If a person has _______ when the bone level has dropped, this limits the effectiveness of nonsurgical periodontal debridement procedures.
Correct Answer
furcations
Explanation
When a person has furcations, it means that the bone level around the roots of their teeth has dropped. This creates openings or spaces between the roots, which can be difficult to clean during nonsurgical periodontal debridement procedures. The effectiveness of these procedures is limited because it is challenging to thoroughly remove plaque and tartar from these furcation areas. Therefore, the presence of furcations hinders the success of nonsurgical periodontal debridement in maintaining optimal oral health.
44.
What is the purpose of a gingival curettage?
Correct Answer
A. To remove granulation tissue
Explanation
Gingival curettage is a dental procedure performed to remove granulation tissue, which is a type of tissue that forms as a result of chronic inflammation. This tissue can hinder the healing process and contribute to further inflammation and infection. By removing the granulation tissue, the dentist aims to promote proper healing and reduce inflammation in the gum tissue. This procedure is often recommended for patients with periodontal disease or other gum-related issues.
45.
After non-surgical periodontal therapy, the greatest amount of healing takes place within-
Correct Answer
C. 3-6 weeks
Explanation
After non-surgical periodontal therapy, the greatest amount of healing takes place within 3-6 weeks. This is because it takes time for the gums and surrounding tissues to recover and regenerate after the therapy. The initial inflammation and swelling subside, and the gums start to reattach to the teeth, reducing pocket depths and improving overall gum health. It is important to wait for this healing period to ensure the success of the therapy and maintain good oral hygiene practices during this time.
46.
_______ is a well-known anti-microbial
Correct Answer
B. 0.4% stannous fluoride
Explanation
0.4% stannous fluoride is a well-known anti-microbial. Stannous fluoride is a compound that is commonly used in oral care products, such as toothpaste and mouthwash, due to its antimicrobial properties. It helps to prevent the growth of bacteria in the mouth and reduce the risk of dental issues, such as cavities and gum disease. The 0.4% concentration of stannous fluoride in the answer option indicates the strength of the compound in the product, making it an effective antimicrobial agent for oral hygiene.
47.
Localized rinses are not as effective because they do not get into the pocket, need to irrigate
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Localized rinses are not as effective because they do not get into the pocket and need to irrigate. This suggests that localized rinses, which are designed to target specific areas, may not be able to reach deep enough into the pocket to effectively clean and treat the area. Therefore, irrigation, which involves flushing the area with a solution, may be necessary to ensure thorough cleaning and treatment.
48.
Which of the following is a potential issue with tetracycline?
Correct Answer
B. Causes permanent discoloration in fetus teeth
Explanation
Tetracycline is known to cause permanent discoloration in the teeth of a fetus. This occurs when the medication is taken by a pregnant woman during the second half of her pregnancy. Tetracycline can cross the placenta and accumulate in the developing teeth of the fetus, leading to a yellow or gray-brown discoloration that is permanent and cannot be reversed. It is important for pregnant women to avoid taking tetracycline to prevent this potential issue.
49.
Patients with aggressive periodontitis and other forms of perio (other than mild to moderate chronic periodontitis) should be . . .
Correct Answer
A. Referred to a periodontist
Explanation
Patients with aggressive periodontitis and other forms of perio require specialized treatment and management. A periodontist is a dental specialist who has advanced training in diagnosing and treating gum diseases, including aggressive periodontitis. They have expertise in performing surgical procedures, such as gum grafts and pocket reduction surgery, which may be necessary for these patients. Referring these patients to a periodontist ensures that they receive the specialized care and interventions needed to effectively manage their condition.
50.
The radiographic evaluation of alveolar bone loss associated with periodontitis is based on the status of which one of the following structures?
Correct Answer
A. Interdental septum
Explanation
The radiographic evaluation of alveolar bone loss associated with periodontitis is based on the status of the interdental septum. The interdental septum is the bone between the teeth, and its condition can indicate the presence and extent of bone loss caused by periodontitis. By assessing the interdental septum on radiographs, dentists can determine the severity of the disease and plan appropriate treatment.