Volume One Ure CDC Simulation
(295).webp "Volume One Ure CDC Simulation - Quiz")
for 3S051
- 1.
Working toghether in Joint Warfare constitutes what concept?
- A.
Team
- B.
Adult
- C.
Child
- D.
Group
Correct Answer
A. TeamExplanation
Joint warfare is a team warfare. Effective integration of joint forces exposes no weak points or seams to an adversary.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Competent joint war fighters must be skilled in thinking about all of the following except
- A.
Having a joint perspective
- B.
Conducting force shaping training
- C.
Applying strategic and operational art
- D.
Thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities
Correct Answer
B. Conducting force shaping trainingExplanation
Competent joint war fighters must be skilled in thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities, applying strategic and operational art, and having a joint perspective.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which value does not have special impact on the conduct of joint operations?
- A.
Integrity
- B.
Competency
- C.
Physical Courage
- D.
Excellence in all we do
Correct Answer
D. Excellence in all we doExplanation
There are five values, while not specific to joint operations, which have special impact on the conduct of joint operations: integrity, competency, physical courage, moral courage, and teamwork.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which goal is achieved as the result of effective unified action?
- A.
Base
- B.
Global
- C.
National
- D.
Developing
Correct Answer
C. NationalExplanation
The result of effective unified action is unity of effort to achieve national goalsRate this question:
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- 5.
Which term is not used in reference to unified action in the military?
- A.
Integration
- B.
Coordination
- C.
Familiarization
- D.
Synchronization
Correct Answer
C. FamiliarizationExplanation
The term unified action in military usage broadly refers to the synchronization, coordination, and integrationRate this question:
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- 6.
The secretary of the military department operates that department under all of the following except
- A.
Control
- B.
Planning
- C.
Authority
- D.
Direction
Correct Answer
B. PlanningExplanation
The President and the Secretary of Defense exercise authority and control of the armed forces through two distinct branches of the chain of command. One branch runs from the president, through SecDef, to the combatant commanders (CCDR) for missions and forces assigned to their command. The other branch, used for purposes other than operational direction of forces assigned to their commands.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The commanders of geographic commands are each assigned a geographic
- A.
Deputy commander
- B.
Assistant commander
- C.
Area of responsibility
- D.
Temporary duty location
Correct Answer
C. Area of responsibilityExplanation
The commanders of geographic commands, US Central Command, US European Command, US Pacific Command, US Southern Command, and US Northern Command, and the US Africa Command are each assigned a geographic area of responsibility (AOR) within which their missions are accomplished with assigned and attached forces.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is not a functional command?
- A.
United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM)
- B.
United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM)
- C.
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
- D.
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
Correct Answer
B. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM)Explanation
Personnel don't have their own command :^)Rate this question:
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- 9.
Unity of command means that all forces operate under
- A.
A single commander
- B.
A joint force commander
- C.
The Secretary of the Army
- D.
The Secretary of the Air Force
Correct Answer
A. A single commanderExplanation
Unity of command means all forces operate under a single commander with the requisite authority to direct all forces employed in pursiut of a common purpose.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What authorizations were reduced during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 to save money?
- A.
Programs
- B.
Manpower
- C.
Equipment
- D.
Additional Duties
Correct Answer
B. ManpowerExplanation
However, Program Budget Decision 720 (PBD 720) reductions levied an additional 1882 authorizations cut on the personnel community. Personnel = manpower :^)Rate this question:
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- 11.
Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 enabled reductions at base level to deliver quality service to meet what delivery goal?
- A.
Tactical
- B.
National
- C.
Strategic
- D.
Operational
Correct Answer
C. StrategicExplanation
PBD 720 introduced the need for an immediately available AF interim solution to enable our reduced numbers of personnel service providers at the base level to deliver quality service that meets our strategic delivery goal.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The information technology solution provided to commanders to support their personnel needs is better known as?
- A.
Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)
- B.
Personnel service delivery model (PSDM)
- C.
Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM)
- D.
Automated records management system (ARMS)
Correct Answer
C. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM)Explanation
blsdm -> blizzard -> commander -> can be cold -> only if you're badRate this question:
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- 13.
Which element is not a part of the new Military Personnel Section (MPS) structure?
- A.
Customer Support
- B.
Career Development
- C.
Career Enhancement
- D.
Force management operations
Correct Answer
C. Career EnhancementExplanation
The element that is not a part of the new Military Personnel Section (MPS) structure is Career Enhancement. This is because the other options - Customer Support, Career Development, and Force management operations - are all related to the functions and responsibilities of the MPS. However, Career Enhancement does not align with the core objectives and activities of the MPS, and therefore, it is not included in the new structure.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Manpower, Personnel, and Services were not organized to...
- A.
Reduce overhead
- B.
Minimize overtime
- C.
Achieve efficiencies
- D.
Maximize customer service
Correct Answer
B. Minimize overtimeExplanation
Manpower, Personnel, and Services were not organized to minimize overtime because the question is asking for the purpose or goal of their organization. Minimizing overtime is not a primary objective for this group, as it is not mentioned or implied in the question. The question is asking for the main reason or purpose for organizing this group, and minimizing overtime is not related to that.Rate this question:
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- 15.
During Phase I of Mission Support Squadron testing (MSS) each organization was realigned and consolidated into how many flights?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
During Phase I of Mission Support Squadron testing (MSS), each organization was realigned and consolidated into 5 flights. This suggests that the realignment and consolidation process resulted in the creation of 5 separate flights within the squadron.Rate this question:
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- 16.
How many flights compromise the Force Support Squadron (FSS)?
- A.
Two
- B.
Three
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
D. FiveExplanation
The correct answer is five because the question asks how many flights compromise the Force Support Squadron (FSS). The word "compromise" suggests that the FSS is made up of multiple flights, and the answer five indicates that there are five flights in the squadron.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The standardized Force Support Squadron (FSS) structure was compromised of all the following flights except...
- A.
Force Management
- B.
Force developent
- C.
Sustainment services
- D.
Community Services
Correct Answer
A. Force ManagementExplanation
The standardized Force Support Squadron (FSS) structure includes flights such as Force Management, Force Development, Sustainment Services, and Community Services. The question asks for the flight that is not included in this structure. The correct answer is Force Management.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Within the Personnel Services Delivery (PSD) plan, what group of personnel absorbed some of the work formerly done in the Military Personnel Flight (MPF)?
- A.
Total Force contact center (TSFC)
- B.
Air Force personnel center (AFPC)
- C.
Commander's action group (CAG)
- D.
Commander's support staff (CSS)
Correct Answer
D. Commander's support staff (CSS)Explanation
The Commander's support staff (CSS) absorbed some of the work formerly done in the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) within the Personnel Services Delivery (PSD) plan.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC), when personnel specialists were asked a question they could not answer, they contacted the...
- A.
Numbered Air Force(NAF)
- B.
Major Command (MAJCOM)
- C.
Military personnel section chief
- D.
Manpower and personnel flight commander
Correct Answer
B. Major Command (MAJCOM)Explanation
Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC), personnel specialists would contact the Major Command (MAJCOM) when they were unable to answer a question. The MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing multiple Numbered Air Forces (NAFs) and has authority over a specific area of military operations. Therefore, they would have the necessary knowledge and resources to provide guidance and assistance to the personnel specialists. The TFSC was introduced as a centralized resource to provide support and answer questions, eliminating the need for personnel specialists to contact the MAJCOM directly.Rate this question:
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- 20.
If you are in the rank of E-6 or below and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel can not answer...
- A.
A trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your question
- B.
The person will take a message and call you back within 12 hours
- C.
The person will take a message and call you back within 48 hours
- D.
The person will locate a subject matter expert (SME) to answer your question
Correct Answer
A. A trouble ticket is submitted with your name and your questionExplanation
When someone who is in the rank of E-6 or below has a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel cannot answer, the correct procedure is to submit a trouble ticket with their name and question. This allows the issue to be documented and tracked, ensuring that it receives the necessary attention and follow-up. By submitting a trouble ticket, the individual can expect a response or resolution to their question in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which group is not serviced by the Military Personnel Section (MPS) personnelist?
- A.
Air Force (AF) Retirees
- B.
AF Dependents
- C.
AF active duty members
- D.
Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members
Correct Answer
D. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard membersExplanation
The Military Personnel Section (MPS) personnelist does not service Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members. This implies that the MPS personnelist is responsible for providing services to Air Force (AF) Retirees, AF Dependents, and AF active duty members.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The Military Personnel Section (MPS) is based on what concept?
- A.
Streamlining
- B.
Transformation
- C.
Do more with less
- D.
Learning organization
Correct Answer
D. Learning organizationExplanation
Knowledge is power!Rate this question:
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- 23.
The difference between the new concept of the Military Personnel Section (MPS) and the old concept of the Military Personnel Section (MPS) is, rather than assign specific individuals to specific tasks...
- A.
The base training manager will assist the personnelist
- B.
Each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area
- C.
Manning assistance will be requested to assist the personnelist with the task
- D.
Each personnelist is responsible for learning manpower, personnel, and services tasks
Correct Answer
B. Each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their areaExplanation
Rather than assigning specific individuals to given tasks or passing a task to the most knowledgeable person, each personnelist would be responsible for learning all tasks in their area/element.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Once Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 hit the ground running, many of the daily operations of the commander's support staff (CSS) was...
- A.
Dissolved
- B.
Streamlined
- C.
Reassigned to individual's amongst the squadron
- D.
Reassigned to the most knowledgeable base agencies.
Correct Answer
C. Reassigned to individual's amongst the squadronExplanation
Once PBS 720 was implemented, many of the daily,operations of the CSS were reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which personnel action is not required to be completed by commander-appointed individuals?
- A.
Allocation notices
- B.
Decoration Processing
- C.
Performance feedback notices
- D.
Enlisted/officer performance reports
Correct Answer
B. Decoration ProcessingExplanation
Once PBD 720 was implemented, many of the daily operations of CSS were reassigned to individuals amongst the squadron. Daily operations include: Enlisted performance report/Officer performance report, performance feedback notices, allocation notices, decoration (DECOR6) rips, medical and dental scheduling, physical health assessment (PHA) scheduling, fitness program, etc.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many personnel activities are there?
- A.
Two
- B.
Three
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
A. TwoExplanation
There are two personnel activities. Geographically separated unit and satellite personnel activity.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which office is responsible for the personnel activities?
- A.
Customer support element
- B.
Military personnel section
- C.
Commander's support staff
- D.
Force management operations element
Correct Answer
B. Military personnel sectionExplanation
The Military personnel section is responsible for personnel activities. This office handles various tasks related to personnel management, such as recruitment, training, assignments, promotions, and records keeping. They ensure that the military personnel are properly managed and supported throughout their careers. This section plays a crucial role in maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the military workforce.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A unit is considered a Geographically Seperated UNit if it is not within what driving time (one way) of it's servicing Military Personnel Section (MPS)?
- A.
One hour
- B.
Two hours
- C.
Three hours
- D.
Four hours
Correct Answer
A. One hourExplanation
A GSU is a unit that is not within ONE hour driving time (one way) of it's servicing MPSRate this question:
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- 29.
Who determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the Satellite Personnel Activity (SPA)?
- A.
Major command commander
- B.
Numbered Air Force commander
- C.
Manpower and Personnel flight commander
- D.
Headquarters Air Force personnel center commander
Correct Answer
A. Major command commanderExplanation
The host MPS commander determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the SPA.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When AF population foes not warrant a Military Personnel Section (MPS), what authority may request to establish a SPA?
- A.
Major Command (MAJCOM)
- B.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)
- C.
Force support squadron commander (FSS/CC)
- D.
Manpower and personnel flight commander (FSM)
Correct Answer
A. Major Command (MAJCOM)Explanation
When the AF does not warrant an establishment of a MPS, the MAJCOM may request to establish a SPA with final approval form AFPC.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The classification structure was designed to ensure the Air Force consisted of the proper number of people, with the proper level of what?
- A.
Authority
- B.
Experience
- C.
Knowledge
- D.
Responsibility
Correct Answer
D. ResponsibilityExplanation
The classification structure was designed to ensure the Air Force consisted of the proper number of people, with the proper level of responsibility. This means that the structure was put in place to ensure that each individual within the Air Force had the appropriate level of responsibility assigned to them based on their skills, qualifications, and job roles. This ensures that tasks and duties are properly delegated and that the organization functions efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The duties and responsibilities of each rank were designed to ensure each person at each rank had the proper level
- A.
Duties
- B.
Experience
- C.
Knowledge
- D.
Responsibilities
Correct Answer
C. KnowledgeExplanation
Each rank within an organization has specific duties and responsibilities that need to be fulfilled. In order to effectively carry out these tasks, individuals at each rank must possess the required knowledge. This knowledge includes understanding the processes, procedures, and protocols necessary to perform their duties effectively. Without the necessary knowledge, individuals may not be able to fulfill their responsibilities adequately, leading to inefficiencies and potential errors. Therefore, having the appropriate knowledge is crucial for each person at each rank to carry out their duties and responsibilities effectively.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which criteria for career progression is not provided by the classification system?
- A.
Promotion
- B.
Retention
- C.
Upgrade
- D.
Award
Correct Answer
A. PromotionExplanation
The classification system also provides concise award, upgrade, and retention criteria for career progression.Rate this question:
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- 34.
An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a
- A.
Listing of experience needed to qualify for position
- B.
Grouping of people with precise skills and qualifications
- C.
Listing of training classes needed to qualify for a position
- D.
Grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications
Correct Answer
D. Grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualificationsExplanation
An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications. This means that individuals with the same AFSC have similar job requirements and qualifications. It allows for efficient organization and management of personnel within the Air Force, as individuals with the same AFSC can be assigned to similar roles and responsibilities based on their skills and qualifications.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty can be found in the
- A.
Recruiter's Directory
- B.
Enlisted Classification Directory
- C.
Enlisted Force Structure Directory
- D.
Retraining Classification Directory
Correct Answer
B. Enlisted Classification DirectoryExplanation
The Enlisted Classification Directory is the correct answer because it is a comprehensive resource that provides a list of duties and responsibilities for enlisted specialties. This directory is used to classify and categorize enlisted personnel based on their job roles and functions. It serves as a reference guide for recruiters, military personnel, and anyone interested in understanding the specific duties associated with different enlisted specialties.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify positions or persons not elsewhere identified?
- A.
Reporting identifiers
- B.
Special duty identifiers
- C.
Air Force specialty codes
- D.
Special experience identifiers
Correct Answer
A. Reporting identifiersExplanation
Reporting identifiers are used to identify positions or persons not identified elsewhere in the classification structure.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify positions or persons not elsewhere identified?
- A.
Reporting identifiers
- B.
Special duty identifiers
- C.
Air Force specialty codes
- D.
Special experience identifiers
Correct Answer
D. Special experience identifiersExplanation
Special experience identifiers are used within the classification structure to identify positions or persons that are not identified elsewhere. These identifiers are specific to individuals who have unique skills, qualifications, or experiences that are not covered by other identifiers such as reporting identifiers, special duty identifiers, or Air Force specialty codes.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Within the classification structure, what identifier is used to identify manpower positions and persons performing duties not within a specific career field?
- A.
Reporting identifiers
- B.
Special duty identifiers
- C.
Air Force specialty codes
- D.
Special experience identifiers
Correct Answer
B. Special duty identifiersExplanation
Special duty identifiers are used to identify monpower positions and persons performing duties not clearly within a specific career field.Rate this question:
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- 39.
An individual's ineligibility to retain the desired specialty code, will be characterized as
- A.
Disqualified
- B.
Released
- C.
Revoked
- D.
Denied
Correct Answer
A. DisqualifiedExplanation
If an individual is deemed ineligible to retain the desired specialty code, it means they are not qualified or suitable for that particular code. They may have failed to meet the necessary requirements or criteria, resulting in their disqualification.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When declared disqualified for reasons within control, prior to initiating retraining, what must the commander consider?
- A.
Reenlistment eligibility
- B.
Career intent
- C.
Separation
- D.
Manning
Correct Answer
C. SeparationExplanation
Commanders must consider separation for all airmen before initiating retrainingRate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is not an example of disqualification within a member's control?
- A.
A medical condition
- B.
Loss of security clearance
- C.
Drug or alcohol abuse
- D.
Failure to progress in training
Correct Answer
A. A medical conditionExplanation
A medical condition is not an example of disqualification within a member's control because it is typically beyond their ability to prevent or influence. Unlike the other options, such as loss of security clearance, drug or alcohol abuse, and failure to progress in training, a medical condition is often unforeseen and involuntary. It is not a result of the member's actions or choices, making it an exception to the concept of disqualification within their control.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is not a specific duty of the personnelist career field?
- A.
Performs personnel actions
- B.
Creates, maintains, and audits personnel records
- C.
Conducts interview to determine individual interests
- D.
Advises officers and airmen on military personnel issues and programs
Correct Answer
C. Conducts interview to determine individual interestsExplanation
The personnelist career field involves performing personnel actions, creating, maintaining, and auditing personnel records, and advising officers and airmen on military personnel issues and programs. However, conducting interviews to determine individual interests is not listed as a specific duty of the personnelist career field.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Responsibilities of the personnelist does not include having to...
- A.
Administer the casualty program
- B.
Update computerized personnel data
- C.
Oversee personnel activities and functions
- D.
Record information in unit, field, and Personnel Data Systems
Correct Answer
C. Oversee personnel activities and functionsExplanation
The responsibilities of a personnelist include administering the casualty program, updating computerized personnel data, and recording information in unit, field, and Personnel Data Systems. However, overseeing personnel activities and functions is not a part of their responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 44.
United State documents that contain foreign government information are marked on the
- A.
Front cover only
- B.
Front cover or first page
- C.
Middle of the front cover
- D.
Fornt cover or back cover
Correct Answer
B. Front cover or first pageExplanation
United State documents that contain foreign government information are marked on the front cover or first page. This is done to ensure that the information is easily visible and identifiable. By marking the front cover or first page, it alerts readers and handlers that the document contains foreign government information that may be sensitive or classified. This helps in maintaining the confidentiality and proper handling of such documents.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The first marking in the subject line of an email will be the overall classification of the Email. Which symbol is not used for this section
- A.
(S) for secret
- B.
(TS) for top secret
- C.
(C) for confidential
- D.
(U) for unclassified
Correct Answer
B. (TS) for top secretExplanation
The given question asks about the symbol that is not used for the overall classification of an email. The correct answer is (TS) for top secret. This is because the question states that the first marking in the subject line of an email will be the overall classification, and the symbols (S), (C), and (U) are mentioned as options for secret, confidential, and unclassified respectively. However, the symbol (TS) is not mentioned as an option, indicating that it is not used for the overall classification of an email.Rate this question:
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- 46.
When classified documents are removed from secured storage, they are kept under constant surveillance, which standard form (SF) cover sheets shall be placed on all documents?
- A.
SF 701, SF 702, SF 703
- B.
SF 701, SF 703, SF 704
- C.
SF 702, SF 703, SF 704
- D.
SF 703, SF 704, SF 705
Correct Answer
D. SF 703, SF 704, SF 705Explanation
The following classified document cover sheets shall be placed on all classified documents not in a secure storage:Rate this question:
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- 47.
A one-time verbal attestation for all military and civilians with a top secret (TS) eligibility or access to a specially controlled access category or compartment is given under the authority of
- A.
Secretary of defense
- B.
The department of defense
- C.
The secretary of the air force
- D.
The department of the air force
Correct Answer
A. Secretary of defenseExplanation
The correct answer is Secretary of defense. This is because the Secretary of Defense has the authority to grant a one-time verbal attestation for all military and civilians with a top secret (TS) eligibility or access to a specially controlled access category or compartment. The other options, such as the Department of Defense or the Department of the Air Force, do not have the direct authority to grant this attestation.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When a person refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement for access to classified information, the commander (or equivalent) or staff agency chief does all of the following except...
- A.
Initiates a security incident report
- B.
Denies the individual access to classified information
- C.
Initiates action to establish a Security Information File
- D.
Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed
Correct Answer
D. Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signedExplanation
When a person refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement for access to classified information, the commander (or equivalent) or staff agency chief does all of the following except grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed. The commander or staff agency chief may initiate a security incident report to document the refusal, deny the individual access to classified information until the agreement is signed, and initiate action to establish a Security Information File. However, they would not grant temporary access to classified information as it would go against the purpose of the nondisclosure agreement.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Personnel requiring access to secure rooms containing classified information can enter...
- A.
With the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for classified information
- B.
With only a secret security clearance even if the information needed is marked top secret
- C.
Without an escort as long as he or she shows identification
- D.
With only a letter from his or her commander
Correct Answer
A. With the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for classified informationExplanation
Personnel requiring access to secure rooms containing classified information can enter with the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for classified information. This means that individuals must not only have the necessary security clearance, but also a legitimate reason to access the classified information in order to be granted entry. Merely having a secret security clearance or a letter from a commander is not sufficient to gain access to the secure rooms. Additionally, individuals cannot enter without an escort as long as they show identification.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?
- A.
The material may get confiscated
- B.
You will bring attention to yourself
- C.
The foreign government may want to take it from you
- D.
The material may not be important enough to hand carry
Correct Answer
A. The material may get confiscatedExplanation
When hand carrying sensitive material, it is important to consider your environment because the material may get confiscated. This is because different countries have different regulations and restrictions on what can be brought into their borders. If the material is deemed sensitive or prohibited, it may be confiscated by customs or security officials. Therefore, being aware of your environment and the potential risks can help prevent the loss or confiscation of the sensitive material.Rate this question:
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