Online GPAT Mock Test-01 Developed By Dr. Anwar Shaikh
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Read the instructions carefully.
Test duration is 10 mins. Containg 25 questions. 05 Mark for each right answer and -1 mark for each wrong answer.
Internet on mobile must remain on during the test.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Diazonium ions are
- A.
Weakly electrophilic
- B.
Strongly electrophilic
- C.
Weakly neucleophilic
- D.
Strongly nucleophilic
Correct Answer
A. Weakly electropHilicExplanation
Diazonium ions are weakly electrophilic because they have a positive charge on the nitrogen atom, making it electron-deficient. This makes the diazonium ion more likely to accept electrons from a nucleophile, rather than donate electrons, which is characteristic of electrophiles. Therefore, diazonium ions are considered weak electrophiles.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not the component of white blood cells.
- A.
Neutrophils
- B.
Platelets
- C.
Monocytes
- D.
Basophils
Correct Answer
B. PlateletsExplanation
Platelets are not a component of white blood cells. Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are small cell fragments that are involved in blood clotting. They are produced in the bone marrow and play a crucial role in stopping bleeding by forming clots at the site of injury. White blood cells, on the other hand, are responsible for fighting off infections and diseases. The components of white blood cells include neutrophils, monocytes, and basophils, which are all involved in the immune response. Therefore, platelets do not belong to the category of white blood cells.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has cell-mediated (delayed) type of action.
- A.
Type I Hypersensitivity
- B.
Type II Hypersensitivity
- C.
Type III Hypersensitivity
- D.
Type IV Hypersensitivity
Correct Answer
D. Type IV HypersensitivityExplanation
Type IV Hypersensitivity is the correct answer because it involves a cell-mediated (delayed) immune response. Unlike the other types of hypersensitivity reactions, which are antibody-mediated, Type IV Hypersensitivity is characterized by the activation of T cells and the release of cytokines. This type of reaction typically takes 24-72 hours to develop after exposure to the antigen, hence the term "delayed" type of action. Examples of Type IV Hypersensitivity include contact dermatitis, tuberculin skin test reactions, and graft rejection.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The confirmation of AIDS is done by one of the following tests.
- A.
ELISA
- B.
Western Blot
- C.
PCR Test
- D.
Southern blot
Correct Answer
B. Western BlotExplanation
The Western Blot test is used to confirm the presence of AIDS. This test detects specific antibodies in the blood that are associated with the HIV virus. It is often used as a follow-up test after a positive ELISA result to ensure accuracy. PCR test is used to detect the presence of the virus itself, while Southern blot is not commonly used for HIV diagnosis. Therefore, the Western Blot test is the most appropriate choice for confirming AIDS.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity are selective toxicities of
- A.
Penicilins
- B.
Cephalosporins
- C.
Aminoglycosides
- D.
Quinolones
Correct Answer
C. AminoglycosidesExplanation
Aminoglycosides have the selective toxicities of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity refers to the potential damage to the inner ear, leading to hearing loss and balance problems. Nephrotoxicity, on the other hand, refers to the potential damage to the kidneys, which can result in impaired kidney function. These specific toxicities are associated with aminoglycoside use, making it the correct answer. Penicillins, cephalosporins, and quinolones do not typically exhibit these specific toxicities.Rate this question:
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- 6.
N-acetyl-P-benzoquinone imine, a metabolite of paracetamole causes
- A.
Gastri irritation
- B.
Hepatic necrosis
- C.
Constipation
- D.
Peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer
B. Hepatic necrosisExplanation
N-acetyl-P-benzoquinone imine, a metabolite of paracetamol, is known to cause hepatic necrosis. This means that it can lead to liver damage and cell death in the liver. Paracetamol is a commonly used medication for pain relief and fever reduction, but excessive or prolonged use can result in the accumulation of this toxic metabolite, leading to liver toxicity. Therefore, it is important to use paracetamol within the recommended dosage and duration to avoid the risk of hepatic necrosis.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The time a drug takes to reach an effective concentration or steady state level depends on its
- A.
Plasma Protein binding
- B.
Plasma Cocentration in circulation
- C.
Rate of elimination from the body
- D.
Rate of absorption in the body
Correct Answer
C. Rate of elimination from the bodyExplanation
The time a drug takes to reach an effective concentration or steady state level depends on its rate of elimination from the body. This is because the rate of elimination determines how quickly the drug is cleared from the body, which in turn affects the concentration of the drug in the bloodstream. If the rate of elimination is slow, it will take longer for the drug to reach an effective concentration. Conversely, if the rate of elimination is fast, the drug will be cleared from the body more rapidly and may not reach an effective concentration.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Diazepam is a drug of choice used in the management of
- A.
Insomnia
- B.
Schizopherenia
- C.
Status epilepticus
- D.
Narcolepsy
Correct Answer
C. Status epilepticusExplanation
Diazepam is a drug of choice used in the management of status epilepticus. Status epilepticus is a medical emergency characterized by prolonged seizures or multiple seizures without full recovery of consciousness between them. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, which helps to calm excessive electrical activity in the brain. It is commonly used to stop or prevent seizures in status epilepticus cases due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in suppressing seizure activity.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The mechanism of action of doxorubicin is
- A.
It inhibits DNA polymerase
- B.
It stabilizes DNA-Topoisomerase-II
- C.
It interferes with regeneration of lipid career by blocking its phosporylation
- D.
It disrupts microtubule function
Correct Answer
B. It stabilizes DNA-Topoisomerase-IIExplanation
Doxorubicin stabilizes DNA-Topoisomerase-II. DNA-Topoisomerase-II is an enzyme responsible for unwinding DNA during replication and transcription. Doxorubicin binds to the DNA-Topoisomerase-II complex and prevents it from resealing the DNA strands after unwinding, leading to the formation of DNA breaks. This ultimately inhibits DNA replication and transcription, resulting in the inhibition of cell division and the death of rapidly dividing cells, such as cancer cells.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The antidot BAL is used to reduce toxicity of
- A.
Iron
- B.
Pesticides
- C.
Barbiturates
- D.
Mercury
Correct Answer
D. MercuryExplanation
The antidote BAL is used to reduce the toxicity of mercury. BAL, also known as dimercaprol, is a chelating agent that binds to heavy metals like mercury, forming a complex that can be excreted from the body. It is commonly used in cases of mercury poisoning to help remove the toxic metal from the bloodstream and tissues, reducing its harmful effects on the body.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Dry heat is often used to sterilize
- A.
Bacterial media
- B.
Saline solution
- C.
Oily Materials
- D.
Hospital Blankets
Correct Answer
C. Oily MaterialsExplanation
Dry heat is often used to sterilize oily materials because dry heat can effectively penetrate and destroy microorganisms, including bacteria, present in oily substances. Unlike moist heat, dry heat does not rely on water or steam to kill the microorganisms. Instead, it uses high temperatures to denature proteins and disrupt the cellular structure of the bacteria, ensuring their complete destruction. This makes dry heat an ideal method for sterilizing oily materials, as it can eliminate any potential contaminants without causing damage or degradation to the substance being sterilized.Rate this question:
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- 12.
LAL can detect
- A.
Endotoxin
- B.
Exotoxin
- C.
Enterotoxin
- D.
Neurotoxin
Correct Answer
A. EndotoxinExplanation
LAL (Limulus amebocyte lysate) is a test used to detect the presence of endotoxins, which are toxins produced by certain bacteria. Endotoxins are a component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and can cause harmful effects when released into the bloodstream. The LAL test utilizes the clotting properties of horseshoe crab blood to detect the presence of endotoxins. Therefore, LAL can accurately detect the presence of endotoxins in a sample.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The drug penicillins inhibits
- A.
Cell wall synthesis
- B.
Protein synthesis
- C.
DNA/RNA replication
- D.
Blocks metabolic pathways
Correct Answer
A. Cell wall synthesisExplanation
Penicillins are a class of antibiotics that specifically target and inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell walls. Bacterial cell walls are crucial for maintaining the structural integrity and protection of the bacteria. By inhibiting cell wall synthesis, penicillins weaken the bacterial cell wall, making it more susceptible to damage and ultimately leading to the death of the bacteria. This mechanism of action is what makes penicillins effective in treating bacterial infections.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A fastidious organism must be grown on
- A.
Synthetic medium
- B.
Differential medium
- C.
General purpose medium
- D.
Enriched medium
Correct Answer
D. Enriched mediumExplanation
Enriched medium is the correct answer because a fastidious organism refers to a microorganism that has very specific nutritional requirements for growth. Enriched medium contains additional nutrients and growth factors that are specifically added to support the growth of these organisms. This type of medium provides the necessary components that may be lacking in other types of media, such as synthetic, differential, or general purpose medium, to ensure optimal growth conditions for fastidious organisms.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Pyrogens causes
- A.
Increase in body temperature
- B.
Pus formation
- C.
Decrease in acidity
- D.
Rashes over body
Correct Answer
A. Increase in body temperatureExplanation
Pyrogens are substances that can cause an increase in body temperature. These substances can stimulate the body's immune response, leading to the release of chemicals called cytokines, which in turn can raise the body's temperature. This increase in body temperature is known as fever and is a common response to infection or inflammation. Pyrogens can be produced by bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens, and their presence can help the body fight off these infections. Therefore, the correct answer is "Increase in body temperature."Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following are not essential amino acids(a) Threonine(b) Tryptophan(c) Tyrosine(d) Gutamine
- A.
A and b
- B.
B and c
- C.
A and c
- D.
C and d
Correct Answer
D. C and dExplanation
The correct answer is c and d. Tyrosine and glutamine are not essential amino acids. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained through diet. Threonine and tryptophan, on the other hand, are essential amino acids as they cannot be produced in sufficient quantities by the body.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Match the followingFatty acid No. of double bonds(a) Oleic acid (i) 4(b) Linolenic acid (ii) 2(c) Linoleic acid (iii) 3(d) Arachidonic acid (iv) 1
- A.
(a)-iv (d)-i (c)-ii (d)-iii
- B.
(a)-iv (d)-iii (c)-i (d)-ii
- C.
(a)-iii (d)-iv (c)-ii (d)-i
- D.
(a)-iv (d)-iii (c)-ii (d)-i
Correct Answer
D. (a)-iv (d)-iii (c)-ii (d)-iExplanation
Oleic acid has 1 double bond, Arachidonic acid has 4 double bonds, Linoleic acid has 2 double bonds, and Linolenic acid has 3 double bonds. Therefore, the correct matching is (a)-iv (d)-iii (c)-ii (d)-i.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In dry powder inhalation lactose is used as(a) Filler(b) Thinner(c) Carrier(d) None of the above
- A.
A and b
- B.
A and c
- C.
C only
- D.
D only
Correct Answer
A. A and bExplanation
In dry powder inhalation, lactose is used as a filler and a thinner. As a filler, lactose helps to bulk up the powder and provide stability. As a thinner, lactose helps to improve the flow properties of the powder, making it easier to dispense and inhale. Therefore, both options a and b are correct.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Compounds containing same molecular formula but different structures are known as
- A.
Isotopes
- B.
Isomers
- C.
Isochores
- D.
Isobars
Correct Answer
B. IsomersExplanation
Isomers are compounds that have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements. These structural differences can result in different chemical and physical properties for the isomers. Isomers can exist in different forms, such as structural isomers, where the atoms are arranged in a different order, or stereoisomers, where the atoms are arranged in the same order but have different spatial arrangements. Isomers are important in chemistry as they can have different reactivities and biological activities, even though they have the same molecular formula.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Schedule M provides details fora) Company premisesb) cleaning of equipmentsc) House keepingd) none of above
- A.
A only
- B.
B and c
- C.
A,b and c
- D.
D only
Correct Answer
C. A,b and cExplanation
The correct answer is a,b and c. Schedule M provides details for company premises, cleaning of equipment, and housekeeping. This means that the schedule includes information and guidelines for maintaining and managing the company's premises, cleaning and maintaining equipment, and ensuring proper housekeeping practices are followed.Rate this question:
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- 21.
For import of drugs specified in "schedule X a license in which form will a licence be required
- A.
Form-10
- B.
Form-10A
- C.
Form-10B
- D.
Form-B
Correct Answer
B. Form-10AExplanation
In India, Schedule X drugs are classified as highly potent and addictive drugs that require strict control and regulation. To import drugs specified in Schedule X, a license is required. The correct form for obtaining this license is Form-10A. This form is specifically designed for the import of Schedule X drugs and ensures that the importation process is closely monitored and regulated to prevent misuse or illegal distribution of these drugs.Rate this question:
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- 22.
- A.
![Online GPAT Mock Test-01 Developed By Dr. Anwar Shaikh - Quiz]()
- B.
![Online GPAT Mock Test-01 Developed By Dr. Anwar Shaikh - Quiz]()
- C.
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- D.
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Correct Answer
D. -
- 23.
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
C. C -
- 24.
In a row of 50 students M is 8th from left and H is 20th from right. How many students are there between M and H.
- A.
22
- B.
23
- C.
24
- D.
21
Correct Answer
A. 22Explanation
In a row of 50 students, M is 8th from the left and H is 20th from the right. To find out the number of students between M and H, we need to subtract the position of M from the total number of students and then subtract the position of H. Therefore, the number of students between M and H is 50 - 8 - 20 = 22.Rate this question:
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- 25.
DPCO is issued under which act
- A.
Drugs and cosmetic Act
- B.
Essential Commodity Act
- C.
Patent Act
- D.
RTI act
Correct Answer
A. Drugs and cosmetic ActExplanation
The correct answer is Drugs and Cosmetic Act. The Drugs and Cosmetic Act is the legislation under which the Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) is issued. The DPCO is a regulatory measure that allows the government to control and regulate the prices of essential drugs in order to make them affordable and accessible to the general public. This act also regulates the import, manufacture, distribution, and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What are your experiences about pharmacareer app and This ONLINE test. (as it is a MOCK test) next time a test of 125 question of 500 marks will be conducted (04 marks for each correct and -1 for wrong).
- A.
Excellent
- B.
Good
- C.
Average
- D.
Poor not to be conducted next time
Correct Answer
A. ExcellentExplanation
The given answer "Excellent" suggests that the person's experience with the pharmacareer app and the online test was extremely positive. They most likely found the app easy to use and navigate, and the online test was well-designed and comprehensive. The person may have performed exceptionally well in the test, scoring high marks and feeling confident about their knowledge and skills in the field. Overall, their experience was outstanding, indicating that they would highly recommend the app and would be willing to take another test in the future.Rate this question:
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