Online GPAT Mock Test-01 Developed By Dr. Anwar Shaikh

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Pharmacy_2003
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  • 1/26 Questions

    Pyrogens causes

    • Increase in body temperature
    • Pus formation
    • Decrease in acidity
    • Rashes over body
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Online GPAT Mock Test-01 Developed By Dr. Anwar Shaikh - Quiz
About This Quiz

Read the instructions carefully.
Test duration is 10 mins. Containg 25 questions. 05 Mark for each right answer and -1 mark for each wrong answer.
Internet on mobile must remain on during the test.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is not the component of white blood cells.

    • Neutrophils

    • Platelets

    • Monocytes

    • Basophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelets
    Explanation
    Platelets are not a component of white blood cells. Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are small cell fragments that are involved in blood clotting. They are produced in the bone marrow and play a crucial role in stopping bleeding by forming clots at the site of injury. White blood cells, on the other hand, are responsible for fighting off infections and diseases. The components of white blood cells include neutrophils, monocytes, and basophils, which are all involved in the immune response. Therefore, platelets do not belong to the category of white blood cells.

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  • 3. 

    Compounds containing same molecular formula but different structures are known as

    • Isotopes

    • Isomers

    • Isochores

    • Isobars

    Correct Answer
    A. Isomers
    Explanation
    Isomers are compounds that have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements. These structural differences can result in different chemical and physical properties for the isomers. Isomers can exist in different forms, such as structural isomers, where the atoms are arranged in a different order, or stereoisomers, where the atoms are arranged in the same order but have different spatial arrangements. Isomers are important in chemistry as they can have different reactivities and biological activities, even though they have the same molecular formula.

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  • 4. 

    The drug penicillins inhibits

    • Cell wall synthesis

    • Protein synthesis

    • DNA/RNA replication

    • Blocks metabolic pathways

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell wall synthesis
    Explanation
    Penicillins are a class of antibiotics that specifically target and inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell walls. Bacterial cell walls are crucial for maintaining the structural integrity and protection of the bacteria. By inhibiting cell wall synthesis, penicillins weaken the bacterial cell wall, making it more susceptible to damage and ultimately leading to the death of the bacteria. This mechanism of action is what makes penicillins effective in treating bacterial infections.

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  • 5. 

    LAL can detect

    • Endotoxin

    • Exotoxin

    • Enterotoxin

    • Neurotoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Endotoxin
    Explanation
    LAL (Limulus amebocyte lysate) is a test used to detect the presence of endotoxins, which are toxins produced by certain bacteria. Endotoxins are a component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and can cause harmful effects when released into the bloodstream. The LAL test utilizes the clotting properties of horseshoe crab blood to detect the presence of endotoxins. Therefore, LAL can accurately detect the presence of endotoxins in a sample.

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  • 6. 

    N-acetyl-P-benzoquinone imine, a metabolite of paracetamole causes

    • Gastri irritation

    • Hepatic necrosis

    • Constipation

    • Peripheral neuropathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatic necrosis
    Explanation
    N-acetyl-P-benzoquinone imine, a metabolite of paracetamol, is known to cause hepatic necrosis. This means that it can lead to liver damage and cell death in the liver. Paracetamol is a commonly used medication for pain relief and fever reduction, but excessive or prolonged use can result in the accumulation of this toxic metabolite, leading to liver toxicity. Therefore, it is important to use paracetamol within the recommended dosage and duration to avoid the risk of hepatic necrosis.

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  • 7. 

    DPCO is issued under which act

    • Drugs and cosmetic Act

    • Essential Commodity Act

    • Patent Act

    • RTI act

    Correct Answer
    A. Drugs and cosmetic Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Drugs and Cosmetic Act. The Drugs and Cosmetic Act is the legislation under which the Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) is issued. The DPCO is a regulatory measure that allows the government to control and regulate the prices of essential drugs in order to make them affordable and accessible to the general public. This act also regulates the import, manufacture, distribution, and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India.

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  • 8. 

    What are your experiences about pharmacareer app and This ONLINE test. (as it is a MOCK test) next time a test of 125 question of 500 marks will be conducted (04 marks for each correct and -1 for wrong).

    • Excellent

    • Good

    • Average

    • Poor not to be conducted next time

    Correct Answer
    A. Excellent
    Explanation
    The given answer "Excellent" suggests that the person's experience with the pharmacareer app and the online test was extremely positive. They most likely found the app easy to use and navigate, and the online test was well-designed and comprehensive. The person may have performed exceptionally well in the test, scoring high marks and feeling confident about their knowledge and skills in the field. Overall, their experience was outstanding, indicating that they would highly recommend the app and would be willing to take another test in the future.

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  • 9. 

    For import of drugs specified in "schedule X a license in which form will a licence be required

    • Form-10

    • Form-10A

    • Form-10B

    • Form-B

    Correct Answer
    A. Form-10A
    Explanation
    In India, Schedule X drugs are classified as highly potent and addictive drugs that require strict control and regulation. To import drugs specified in Schedule X, a license is required. The correct form for obtaining this license is Form-10A. This form is specifically designed for the import of Schedule X drugs and ensures that the importation process is closely monitored and regulated to prevent misuse or illegal distribution of these drugs.

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  • 10. 

    Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity are selective toxicities of

    • Penicilins

    • Cephalosporins

    • Aminoglycosides

    • Quinolones

    Correct Answer
    A. Aminoglycosides
    Explanation
    Aminoglycosides have the selective toxicities of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity refers to the potential damage to the inner ear, leading to hearing loss and balance problems. Nephrotoxicity, on the other hand, refers to the potential damage to the kidneys, which can result in impaired kidney function. These specific toxicities are associated with aminoglycoside use, making it the correct answer. Penicillins, cephalosporins, and quinolones do not typically exhibit these specific toxicities.

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  • 11. 

    A fastidious organism must be grown on

    • Synthetic medium

    • Differential medium

    • General purpose medium

    • Enriched medium

    Correct Answer
    A. Enriched medium
    Explanation
    Enriched medium is the correct answer because a fastidious organism refers to a microorganism that has very specific nutritional requirements for growth. Enriched medium contains additional nutrients and growth factors that are specifically added to support the growth of these organisms. This type of medium provides the necessary components that may be lacking in other types of media, such as synthetic, differential, or general purpose medium, to ensure optimal growth conditions for fastidious organisms.

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  • 12. 

    Diazepam is a drug of choice used in the management of 

    • Insomnia

    • Schizopherenia

    • Status epilepticus

    • Narcolepsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Status epilepticus
    Explanation
    Diazepam is a drug of choice used in the management of status epilepticus. Status epilepticus is a medical emergency characterized by prolonged seizures or multiple seizures without full recovery of consciousness between them. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, which helps to calm excessive electrical activity in the brain. It is commonly used to stop or prevent seizures in status epilepticus cases due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in suppressing seizure activity.

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  • 13. 

    In a row of 50 students M is 8th from left and H is 20th from right. How many students are there between M and H.

    • 22

    • 23

    • 24

    • 21

    Correct Answer
    A. 22
    Explanation
    In a row of 50 students, M is 8th from the left and H is 20th from the right. To find out the number of students between M and H, we need to subtract the position of M from the total number of students and then subtract the position of H. Therefore, the number of students between M and H is 50 - 8 - 20 = 22.

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  • 14. 

    The antidot BAL is used to reduce toxicity of 

    • Iron

    • Pesticides

    • Barbiturates

    • Mercury

    Correct Answer
    A. Mercury
    Explanation
    The antidote BAL is used to reduce the toxicity of mercury. BAL, also known as dimercaprol, is a chelating agent that binds to heavy metals like mercury, forming a complex that can be excreted from the body. It is commonly used in cases of mercury poisoning to help remove the toxic metal from the bloodstream and tissues, reducing its harmful effects on the body.

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  • 15. 

    The mechanism of action of doxorubicin is 

    • It inhibits DNA polymerase

    • It stabilizes DNA-Topoisomerase-II

    • It interferes with regeneration of lipid career by blocking its phosporylation

    • It disrupts microtubule function

    Correct Answer
    A. It stabilizes DNA-Topoisomerase-II
    Explanation
    Doxorubicin stabilizes DNA-Topoisomerase-II. DNA-Topoisomerase-II is an enzyme responsible for unwinding DNA during replication and transcription. Doxorubicin binds to the DNA-Topoisomerase-II complex and prevents it from resealing the DNA strands after unwinding, leading to the formation of DNA breaks. This ultimately inhibits DNA replication and transcription, resulting in the inhibition of cell division and the death of rapidly dividing cells, such as cancer cells.

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  • 16. 
    - ProProfs

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. C
  • 17. 

    Schedule M provides details fora) Company premisesb) cleaning of equipmentsc) House keepingd) none of above

    • A only

    • B and c

    • A,b and c

    • D only

    Correct Answer
    A. A,b and c
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a,b and c. Schedule M provides details for company premises, cleaning of equipment, and housekeeping. This means that the schedule includes information and guidelines for maintaining and managing the company's premises, cleaning and maintaining equipment, and ensuring proper housekeeping practices are followed.

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  • 18. 

    Diazonium ions are

    • Weakly electrophilic

    • Strongly electrophilic

    • Weakly neucleophilic

    • Strongly nucleophilic

    Correct Answer
    A. Weakly electrophilic
    Explanation
    Diazonium ions are weakly electrophilic because they have a positive charge on the nitrogen atom, making it electron-deficient. This makes the diazonium ion more likely to accept electrons from a nucleophile, rather than donate electrons, which is characteristic of electrophiles. Therefore, diazonium ions are considered weak electrophiles.

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  • 19. 

    Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has cell-mediated (delayed) type of action.

    • Type I Hypersensitivity

    • Type II Hypersensitivity

    • Type III Hypersensitivity

    • Type IV Hypersensitivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Type IV Hypersensitivity
    Explanation
    Type IV Hypersensitivity is the correct answer because it involves a cell-mediated (delayed) immune response. Unlike the other types of hypersensitivity reactions, which are antibody-mediated, Type IV Hypersensitivity is characterized by the activation of T cells and the release of cytokines. This type of reaction typically takes 24-72 hours to develop after exposure to the antigen, hence the term "delayed" type of action. Examples of Type IV Hypersensitivity include contact dermatitis, tuberculin skin test reactions, and graft rejection.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following are not essential amino acids(a) Threonine(b) Tryptophan(c) Tyrosine(d) Gutamine

    • A and b

    • B and c

    • A and c

    • C and d

    Correct Answer
    A. C and d
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c and d. Tyrosine and glutamine are not essential amino acids. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained through diet. Threonine and tryptophan, on the other hand, are essential amino acids as they cannot be produced in sufficient quantities by the body.

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  • 21. 

    The confirmation of AIDS is done by one of the following tests.

    • ELISA

    • Western Blot

    • PCR Test

    • Southern blot

    Correct Answer
    A. Western Blot
    Explanation
    The Western Blot test is used to confirm the presence of AIDS. This test detects specific antibodies in the blood that are associated with the HIV virus. It is often used as a follow-up test after a positive ELISA result to ensure accuracy. PCR test is used to detect the presence of the virus itself, while Southern blot is not commonly used for HIV diagnosis. Therefore, the Western Blot test is the most appropriate choice for confirming AIDS.

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  • 22. 

    Dry heat is often used to sterilize

    • Bacterial media

    • Saline solution

    • Oily Materials

    • Hospital Blankets

    Correct Answer
    A. Oily Materials
    Explanation
    Dry heat is often used to sterilize oily materials because dry heat can effectively penetrate and destroy microorganisms, including bacteria, present in oily substances. Unlike moist heat, dry heat does not rely on water or steam to kill the microorganisms. Instead, it uses high temperatures to denature proteins and disrupt the cellular structure of the bacteria, ensuring their complete destruction. This makes dry heat an ideal method for sterilizing oily materials, as it can eliminate any potential contaminants without causing damage or degradation to the substance being sterilized.

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  • 23. 

    In dry powder inhalation lactose is used as(a) Filler(b) Thinner(c) Carrier(d) None of the above

    • A and b

    • A and c

    • C only

    • D only

    Correct Answer
    A. A and b
    Explanation
    In dry powder inhalation, lactose is used as a filler and a thinner. As a filler, lactose helps to bulk up the powder and provide stability. As a thinner, lactose helps to improve the flow properties of the powder, making it easier to dispense and inhale. Therefore, both options a and b are correct.

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  • 24. 

    The time a drug takes to reach an effective concentration or steady state level depends on its

    • Plasma Protein binding

    • Plasma Cocentration in circulation

    • Rate of elimination from the body

    • Rate of absorption in the body

    Correct Answer
    A. Rate of elimination from the body
    Explanation
    The time a drug takes to reach an effective concentration or steady state level depends on its rate of elimination from the body. This is because the rate of elimination determines how quickly the drug is cleared from the body, which in turn affects the concentration of the drug in the bloodstream. If the rate of elimination is slow, it will take longer for the drug to reach an effective concentration. Conversely, if the rate of elimination is fast, the drug will be cleared from the body more rapidly and may not reach an effective concentration.

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  • 25. 

    Match the followingFatty acid                            No. of double bonds(a) Oleic acid                          (i) 4(b) Linolenic acid                     (ii) 2(c) Linoleic acid                       (iii) 3(d) Arachidonic acid                 (iv) 1

    • (a)-iv (d)-i (c)-ii (d)-iii

    • (a)-iv (d)-iii (c)-i (d)-ii

    • (a)-iii (d)-iv (c)-ii (d)-i

    • (a)-iv (d)-iii (c)-ii (d)-i

    Correct Answer
    A. (a)-iv (d)-iii (c)-ii (d)-i
    Explanation
    Oleic acid has 1 double bond, Arachidonic acid has 4 double bonds, Linoleic acid has 2 double bonds, and Linolenic acid has 3 double bonds. Therefore, the correct matching is (a)-iv (d)-iii (c)-ii (d)-i.

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  • 26. 
    - ProProfs

    Correct Answer
    A.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 06, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Pharmacy_2003
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