Heart Disease And Chronic Stable Angina: Quiz!

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  • 1/16 Questions

    Which of the following may be precipitated by exertion or emotional stress and relieved by rest?

    • Chronic stable angina
    • Unstable angina
    • NSTEMI
    • STEMI
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About This Quiz


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Heart Disease And Chronic Stable Angina: Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following does NOT contribute to myocardial oxygen supply?

    • Contractility

    • Coronary blood flow

    • Oxygen availability

    • Oxygen extraction

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractility
    Explanation
    The pathophysiology of IHD is due to a disruption in the balance of myocardial oxygen supply and demand. The supply side consists of coronary blood flow, oxygen availability, and oxygen extraction. The demand side consists of heart rate, contractility, and wall tension.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following would be the goal heart rate when titrating the dose of a beta-blocker?

    • 50 bpm

    • 60 bpm

    • 65 bpm

    • 70 bpm

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 bpm
    Explanation
    Beta-blockers are titrated in order to achieve a heart rate of 55-60 bpm. However, the caveat here is that in some cases, adverse effects may cause the target to be changed for individual patients. An example of this could be symptomatic hypotension. Remember from A&P that cardiac output (CO)= Heart rate (HR) x Stroke volume (SV). Furthermore, Blood pressure (BP)= CO x vascular resistance. Therefore, since CO affects BP and HR affects CO...by lowering HR we are essentially lowering BP and this may become problematic for some patients.

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  • 4. 

    In which instance may clopidogrel indicated for the treatment of IHD?

    • Aspirin is contraindicated

    • The patient has had a previous MI

    • The patient has symptomatic peripheral artery disease (PAD)

    • All of the above are instances in which clopidogrel is indicated

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above are instances in which clopidogrel is indicated
    Explanation
    Clopidogrel is indicated for monotherapy in patients who cannot take aspirin. In addition to this, dual therapy with ASA and clopidogrel may be used in patients who are at "high risk" (previous MI, previous ischemic stroke, or symptomatic PAD).

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is a relative contraindication to beta-blocker therapy?

    • Acute decompensated heart failure

    • Bronchospastic disease

    • Preexisting high-degree AV block

    • Severe bradycardia

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchospastic disease
    Explanation
    The bronchospastic disease is the only relative contraindication to beta-blockers listed here. All other options are examples of absolute contraindications to beta-blocker therapy.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is the MAJOR reason for the "dose free" intervals in long-acting nitrates?

    • Bradycardia

    • Dyspepsia

    • Tachycardia

    • Tachyphylaxis

    Correct Answer
    A. Tachyphylaxis
    Explanation
    Tachyphylaxis is the correct answer. Remember that this means there is an acute decrease in response to the drug.

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  • 7. 

    Which beta-blocker has NOT been proven to prevent MI/mortality?

    • Bisoprolol

    • Carvedilol

    • Metoprolol succinate

    • Metoprolol tartrate

    Correct Answer
    A. Metoprolol tartrate
    Explanation
    Remember, metoprolol SUCCINATE (the extended-release form of the drug), NOT metoprolol TARTRATE (the immediate-release form of the drug) has been shown to prevent MI/mortality in studies.

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  • 8. 

    According to the Focused 2014 update, if revascularization is indicated (the patient has diabetes and multivessel CAD), which of the following is true?

    • CABG is preferred in most cases to PCI

    • PCI is preferred in most cases to CABG

    • Both CABG and PCI have equal efficacy

    Correct Answer
    A. CABG is preferred in most cases to PCI
    Explanation
    CABG is generally recommended in preference to PCI to improve survival in patients with diabetes mellitus and multivessel CAD for which revascularization is likely to improve survival (3-vessel CAD or complex 2-vessel CAD involving the proximal LAD), particularly if a LIMA graft can be anastomosed to the LAD artery, provided the patient is a good candidate for surgery (Level of Evidence: B)

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following INCORRECTLY describes an NSTEMI

    • New onset

    • Occlusive thrombus

    • Occurring at rest

    • ST segment depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Occlusive thrombus
    Explanation
    NSTEMI has a NON-occlusive thrombus. This, along with the ST-segment depression (vs. elevation) is the major difference between an NSTEMI and STEMI.

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  • 10. 

    Ranolazine would be prescribed as a substitute if initial treatment with which agent failed?

    • ACE inhibitors

    • Beta-blockers

    • Calcium channel blockers

    • Nitrates

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta-blockers
    Explanation
    Ranolazine is used as a substitute for beta-blockers. This is used in the course of therapy if beta-blockers are contraindicated, ineffective, or cause too many adverse effects. Remember that in some cases if there is no contraindication or overwhelming adverse effects of beta-blockers, ranolazine may be used in addition to beta-blocker therapy if monotherapy is ineffective.

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  • 11. 

    Which class of medications and/or medication are associated with a decrease in anginal symptoms? 

    • ACEi/ARB

    • Aspirin

    • Beta blockers

    • Calcium channel blockers

    • Nitrates

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Beta blockers
    A. Calcium channel blockers
    A. Nitrates
    Explanation
    Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and nitrates all decrease symptoms of angina. Ranolazine also decreases symptoms. Of note, beta-blockers are the only agents listed that decrease both mortality AND symptoms.

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  • 12. 

    Which PDE5 inhibitor requires at least 48 hours of separation between it and nitrate dosing to avoid an increased risk of hypotension?

    • Sildenafil

    • Tadalafil

    • Vardenafil

    • All PDE5 inhibitors require only 24 hours separation

    Correct Answer
    A. Tadalafil
    Explanation
    Due to the longer elimination half-life of tadalafil (15-35 hours), the recommended interval of separation of this drug is longer than that of sildenafil and vardenafil.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following are risk factors for IHD?

    • Dyslipidemia

    • Family history of CVD

    • Family history of DM

    • Hypertension

    • Obesity

    • Physical inactivity

    • Smoking

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Dyslipidemia
    A. Family history of CVD
    A. Hypertension
    A. Obesity
    A. Physical inactivity
    A. Smoking
    Explanation
    All of the above are correct except for a family history of diabetes. While diabetes itself is a risk factor for IHD, this is due to the pathophysiology of the disease. Therefore, someone with a family history of the disease would not be at an increased risk of IHD unless they had developed diabetes themselves.

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  • 14. 

    Which class of medications and/or medication are associated with a decrease in mortality? 

    • ACEi/ARB

    • Aspirin

    • Beta blockers

    • Calcium channel blockers

    • Nitrates

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ACEi/ARB
    A. Aspirin
    A. Beta blockers
    Explanation
    ACEI/ARBs, Aspirin, and beta-blockers have all been shown to decrease mortality in studies. Other agents that have been shown to have this same effect are clopidogrel and statins.

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  • 15. 

    A diabetic patient presents to your clinic with hypertension and IHD, due to compelling indications, which medication(s) should the patient receive? 

    • ACEi

    • Beta-blocker

    • Calcium channel blocker

    • Diuretic

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ACEi
    A. Beta-blocker
    Explanation
    As mentioned in question 6, beta-blockers provide both a decrease in mortality and symptoms and provides a rationale for use with HTN and IHD because it also helps to treat HTN. In patients with DM and HTN, ACEi is used to provide a nephroprotective effect. In addition to that, ACEi provides a decrease in mortality associated with IHD and help to treat HTN.

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  • 16. 

    Which DDI may be a cause for concern and therefore should be addressed with the physician? 

    • Simvastatin 10mg and amlodipine

    • Simvastatin 20mg and amlodipine

    • Simvastatin 40mg and amlodipine

    • Simvastatin 10mg and diltiazem

    • Simvastatin 20mg and diltiazem

    • Simvastatin 40mg and diltiazem

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Simvastatin 40mg and amlodipine
    A. Simvastatin 20mg and diltiazem
    A. Simvastatin 40mg and diltiazem
    Explanation
    Concomitant use of simvastatin no greater than 20mg is recommended with amlodipine. Concomitant use of simvastatin no greater than 10mg is recommended with non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers. Using more than this amount can increase the risk of rhabdomyolysis and other muscle toxicities.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 26, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 26, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 02, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Cardtrick
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