CPT Coding : Evaluation And Management, Anesthesia, Radiology, Pathology And Laboratory, And Medicine Sections.

  • CPT
  • ICD-9-CM
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1. Code anesthesia for cesarean section.

Explanation

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Medical Coding Quizzes & Trivia

ALSO SEVERAL QUESTIONS FROM SURGERY SECTION AND 1 ICD-9-CM QUESTION.

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2. Amniocentesis.

Explanation

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3. Code anesthesia for decortication of left lung.

Explanation

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4. Code anesthesia for corneal transplant.

Explanation

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5. Chlamydia culture.

Explanation

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6. CT scan of the head with contrast.

Explanation

The correct answer is 70460 because it is the correct CPT code for a CT scan of the head with contrast. The other options are not appropriate because they either do not specify the use of contrast or are incorrect codes for other procedures.

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7. Hepatitis C antibody.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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8. Creatinine clearance.

Explanation

The correct answer is 82575 because it is the only code in the given options that is related to creatinine clearance. Creatinine clearance is a test that measures how well the kidneys are functioning by estimating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Code 82575 specifically represents the measurement of creatinine clearance, making it the appropriate choice in this case.

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9. Facelift utilizing the superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) flap technique.

Explanation

The correct answer is 15829 because it is the only option that mentions the superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) flap technique. This technique is commonly used in facelift procedures to lift and tighten the underlying facial muscles and tissues, resulting in a more youthful appearance. The other options do not mention this specific technique and are therefore incorrect.

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10. Code anesthesia for placement of vascular shunt in forearm.

Explanation

The correct answer is 01844 because it specifically refers to the code for anesthesia during the placement of a vascular shunt in the forearm. This code is used to indicate the administration of anesthesia during this specific procedure, allowing for accurate billing and documentation.

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11. Code anesthesia for procedures on bony pelvis.

Explanation

The correct answer is 01120. This code represents the anesthesia for procedures on the bony pelvis. Anesthesia is often required for surgeries or procedures involving the pelvis to ensure that the patient remains comfortable and pain-free during the operation. Code 00400 is for anesthesia for procedures on the spine and spinal cord, 01170 is for anesthesia for procedures on the urinary system, and 01190 is for anesthesia for procedures on the female genital system. None of these codes specifically match the given scenario of procedures on the bony pelvis, making 01120 the correct answer.

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12. Basic metabolic panel (calcium, total) and total bilirubin.

Explanation

The correct answer is 80048; 82247. The basic metabolic panel (calcium, total) and total bilirubin are both included in this panel. The code 80048 represents the basic metabolic panel, which includes tests for glucose, calcium, electrolytes, and kidney function. The code 82247 represents the test for total bilirubin, which measures the level of bilirubin in the blood and helps diagnose liver or gallbladder problems. These two codes together cover the tests mentioned in the question.

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13. Pathologist performs a postmortem examination including brain of an adult. Tissue is being sent to the lab for microscopic examination.

Explanation

The correct answer is 88025. This code represents the microscopic examination of brain tissue. In a postmortem examination, the pathologist examines the tissues to determine the cause of death and identify any underlying diseases or conditions. By performing a microscopic examination of the brain tissue, the pathologist can further investigate any abnormalities or diseases that may have contributed to the individual's death.

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14. An office consultation is performed for a postmenopausal woman who is complaining of spotting in the past 6 months with right lower quadrant tenderness. A detailed history and physical examination were performed with a  low-complexity medical decision.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99243. This code is appropriate because the patient's complaint of spotting and right lower quadrant tenderness requires a detailed history and physical examination, which is consistent with a moderate-complexity medical decision.

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15. Code anesthesia for vaginal hysterectomy

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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16. Code anesthesia for total shoulder replacement.

Explanation

The correct answer is 01638. This code represents the anesthesia for total shoulder replacement. Anesthesia is the administration of medication to prevent pain during a surgical procedure. Total shoulder replacement is a surgical procedure where the damaged parts of the shoulder joint are removed and replaced with artificial components. Therefore, anesthesia is necessary to ensure that the patient does not experience any pain or discomfort during the surgery.

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17. Excision of Cowper's gland.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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18. Injection of anesthesia for nerve block of the brachial plexus.

Explanation

The correct answer is 64415 because this code specifically represents the injection of anesthesia for nerve block of the brachial plexus. The other codes listed do not pertain to this specific procedure.

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19. Ureterolithotomy completed laparoscopically.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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20. Osteopathic manipulative treatment to three body regions.

Explanation

The correct answer is 98926. This code represents osteopathic manipulative treatment to three body regions. Osteopathic manipulative treatment is a hands-on approach used by osteopathic physicians to diagnose, treat, and prevent illness or injury. In this case, the treatment is focused on three specific body regions. The other codes listed (98941, 97110, 97012) are not relevant to osteopathic manipulative treatment or do not specify the number of body regions being treated.

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21. Pathologist bills for gross and microscopic examination of medial meniscus.

Explanation

The correct answer, 88304, refers to the billing code for the microscopic examination of the medial meniscus. This code is used when a pathologist examines the tissue sample of the meniscus under a microscope to make a diagnosis or identify any abnormalities. It is important to bill for both the gross examination (88300) and the microscopic examination (88304) to ensure accurate reimbursement for the services provided.

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22. Clotting factor VII.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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23. Vitamin B12.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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24. Ultrasonic guidance for the needle biopsy of the liver. Code the complete procedure.

Explanation

The correct answer is 47000; 76942. This code combination indicates that the procedure performed was an ultrasonic guidance for needle biopsy of the liver. The code 47000 represents the needle biopsy procedure, while the code 76942 represents the ultrasonic guidance used during the procedure.

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25. Cardioversion of cardiac arrhythmia by external forces.

Explanation

The correct answer is 92960 because it is the only code that specifically refers to cardioversion of cardiac arrhythmia by external forces. The other codes listed are not related to cardioversion.

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26. Patient with hematochromatosis had a therapeutic phlebotomy performed on an outpatient basis.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99195. In this scenario, the patient with hematochromatosis underwent a therapeutic phlebotomy, which involves the removal of blood to reduce the iron overload in the body. The code 99195 specifically represents a phlebotomy performed on an outpatient basis, making it the most appropriate choice in this case. The other options (36522, 36514, 99199) do not accurately describe the procedure or the setting in which it was performed.

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27. Partial thromboplastin time utilizing whole blood.

Explanation

The correct answer is 85730 because it is the correct CPT code for partial thromboplastin time (PTT) testing using whole blood. PTT is a laboratory test used to evaluate the blood's ability to clot properly. The code 85732 is incorrect because it is for prothrombin time (PT) testing, not PTT. The codes 85245 and 85246 are also incorrect as they are not related to PTT testing.

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28. Patient undergoes x-ray of the foot with three views.

Explanation

The correct answer is 73630. This code represents a radiographic examination of the foot with three views. It is used when the patient undergoes an x-ray procedure that captures images of the foot from different angles to provide a comprehensive view of the area. This code accurately describes the specific type of imaging study performed on the patient's foot.

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29. Huhner test and semen analysis.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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30. Tracheostoma revision with flap rotation.

Explanation

The correct answer is 31614 because it is the correct CPT code for tracheostoma revision with flap rotation. The other codes listed are not specific to this procedure.

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31. Litholapaxy, 3 cm calculus.

Explanation

The correct answer is 52318. Litholapaxy is a surgical procedure used to remove bladder stones. The phrase "3 cm calculus" refers to the size of the stone that was removed during the procedure. Therefore, the answer 52318 is the most likely code that corresponds to this specific procedure and stone size.

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32. Which code listed below would be used to report an esophageal electrogram  during an EPS?

Explanation

The code 93615 would be used to report an esophageal electrogram during an EPS.

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33. Obstetric patient comes in for a pelvimetry with placental placement.

Explanation

The correct answer is 74710. This code represents a pelvimetry procedure, which is a diagnostic test used to measure the dimensions of the pelvis. In this case, the obstetric patient is coming in for a pelvimetry with placental placement, indicating that the procedure will involve assessing the size and shape of the pelvis as well as determining the location of the placenta. The other codes listed are not relevant to this specific procedure.

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34. Placement of double-J stent.

Explanation

The correct answer is 52332. This is because the placement of a double-J stent is coded using the code 52332. The other codes listed (52341, 52320, 52330) are not specific to the placement of a double-J stent and therefore are not the correct answer.

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35. Patient presented to the operating room where an incision was made in the epigastric region for a repair of ureterovisceral fistula.

Explanation

The correct answer is 50930. This code represents a repair of a ureterovisceral fistula, which is a connection between the ureter and a visceral organ. The procedure involves making an incision in the epigastric region, which is the upper middle part of the abdomen. Code 50526 is for a laparoscopic repair of a ureterovisceral fistula, which is not mentioned in the question. Code 50520 is for a ureteroureterostomy, which is not the procedure described. Code 50525 is for a ureteroneocystostomy, which is also not the procedure described.

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36. Administration of initial oral radionuclide therapy for hyperthyroidism. 

Explanation

FROM RADIOLOGY SECTION.

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37. Patient comes into the outpatient department at the local hospital for an MRI of the cervical spine with contrast. Patient status post automobile accident.

Explanation

The correct answer is 72142. This code represents an MRI of the cervical spine without contrast. Since the patient is status post automobile accident, it is important to evaluate the cervical spine for any potential injuries or abnormalities. However, in this case, the MRI is performed without contrast, which means that no dye or contrast agent is used to enhance the visibility of certain structures or abnormalities. This code accurately describes the procedure performed in this scenario.

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38. Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) with probe placement, image, and interpretation and report. 

Explanation

The correct answer, 93312, refers to the performance and interpretation of a transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) procedure. TEE involves inserting a probe into the esophagus to obtain detailed images of the heart and surrounding structures. The procedure provides valuable information about the structure and function of the heart, allowing for the diagnosis and monitoring of various cardiac conditions. The code 93312 includes both the placement of the probe and the interpretation and reporting of the images obtained during the procedure.

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39. Patient has carcinoma of the breast and undergoes proton beam delivery of radiation to the breast with a single port.

Explanation

The correct answer is 77520 because it is the CPT code for "Proton treatment delivery; simple." In this scenario, the patient has carcinoma of the breast and is undergoing proton beam delivery of radiation to the breast with a single port. Therefore, 77520 is the appropriate code to represent this procedure.

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40. Code anesthesia for total hip replacement

Explanation

The correct answer is 01214. This code anesthesia for total hip replacement.

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41. Two-year-old patient returns to the hospital for cleft palate repair where a secondary lengthening procedure takes place.

Explanation

The correct answer is 42220 because this code represents the secondary lengthening procedure for cleft palate repair. The other codes listed are not specific to this procedure or are not related to cleft palate repair.

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42. Patient undergoes partial nephrectomy for carcinoma of the kidney.

Explanation

The correct answer is 50240 because this code specifically represents a partial nephrectomy procedure, which is the surgical removal of a portion of the kidney. In this case, the patient underwent a partial nephrectomy for carcinoma of the kidney, indicating the need for this specific procedure code. The other codes listed do not accurately reflect the procedure performed.

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43. Patient presents to the operating room where the physician performed, using imaging guidance, a percutaneous breast biopsy utilizing a rotating biopsy device.

Explanation

The correct answer is 19081. A percutaneous breast biopsy is a procedure in which a small sample of breast tissue is removed using a needle. In this case, the physician used imaging guidance, such as ultrasound or mammography, to accurately locate and target the area of concern. The rotating biopsy device refers to a specialized tool that is used to collect the tissue sample. Code 19081 specifically describes a percutaneous breast biopsy using a rotating biopsy device under imaging guidance.

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44. What code is used for a culture of embryos less than 4 days?

Explanation

FROM PATHOLOGY AND LABORATORY SECTION.

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45. IV push of one antineoplastic drug.

Explanation

FROM MEDICINE SECTION : INJECTION AND INTRAVENOUS INFUSION CHEMOTHERAPY AND OTHER HIGHLY COMPLEX DRUG OR HIGHLY COMPLEX BIOLOGIC AGENT ADMINISTRATION.

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46. Patient was admitted with hemoptysis and underwent a bronchoscopy with transbronchial lung biopsy. Following the bronchoscopy the patient was taken to the operating room where a left lower lobe lobectomy was performed without complications. Pathology reported large cell carcinoma of the left lower lobe.

Explanation

The correct answer is 31628, 32480. The patient underwent a left lower lobe lobectomy, which involves the removal of the entire lobe of the lung. Code 31628 is used for lobectomy, and code 32480 is used for resection of the lung, which includes the removal of the entire lobe. These codes accurately describe the procedures performed in this case.

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47. Patient presents to the operating room for fulguration of bladder tumors. The cystoscope was inserted and entered the urethra, which was normal. Bladder tumors measuring approximately 1.5 cm were removed.

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is 52234. This code is used for the procedure of fulguration of bladder tumors. The patient presented to the operating room and the cystoscope was inserted through the urethra, which was found to be normal. The bladder tumors, measuring approximately 1.5 cm, were then removed. Code 52234 accurately represents this specific procedure.

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48. Chronic nontraumatic rotator cuff tear. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression with coracoacromial ligament release, and open rotator cuff repair.

Explanation

The correct answer is 23412, 29826-59. This answer is correct because it includes the correct codes for the procedures performed. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression with coracoacromial ligament release is represented by code 23412, and open rotator cuff repair is represented by code 29826. The modifier -59 is also included to indicate that the rotator cuff repair is a separate and distinct procedure from the decompression and ligament release.

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49. The physician provided services to a new patient who was in a rest home for an ulcerative sore on the hip. A problem-focused history and physical examination were performed and a straightforward medical decision was made.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99324. This code represents an evaluation and management service for a new patient in a rest home. The physician performed a problem-focused history and physical examination, indicating that the patient's condition was not complex. Additionally, a straightforward medical decision was made, further supporting the use of this code.

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50. Laparoscopic repair of umbilical hernia.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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51. Patient comes into his physician's office complaining of wrist pain. Physician gives the patient an injection and sends the patient to the hospital for an arthrography. Code the complete procedure.

Explanation

The correct answer is 25246; 73115. The patient is complaining of wrist pain and the physician decides to perform an arthrography, which is a procedure used to diagnose joint problems. The injection given by the physician is likely a contrast agent that will be used during the arthrography. The code 73115 represents the arthrography procedure itself, while 25246 represents the injection of contrast agent. Therefore, both codes are necessary to accurately code the complete procedure.

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52. Patient presents to the Respiratory Therapy Department and undergoes a pulmonary stress test. CO2 production with O2 uptake with recordings was also performed.

Explanation

The correct answer is 94621. This code represents the performance and interpretation of a pulmonary stress test, which includes measurements of CO2 production and O2 uptake. The other codes listed are not specific to pulmonary stress tests or do not include the necessary components for this particular scenario.

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53. Patient presents to the hospital for debridement of a diabetic ulcer of the left ankle. The patient has a history of recurrent ulcers. Medication taken by the patient includes Diabeta and the patient was covered in the hospital with insulin sliding scales. The decubitus ulcer was debrided down to the bone.

Explanation

The correct answer is 11044 because this code represents the debridement of a full-thickness skin and subcutaneous tissue ulcer. The patient's ulcer was debrided down to the bone, which indicates a deep tissue ulcer. The other codes listed do not accurately represent the depth of the ulcer or the extent of the debridement.

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54. Comprehensive electrophysiologic evaluation (EPS) with induction of arrhythmia.

Explanation

The correct answer is 93620. This code represents a comprehensive electrophysiologic evaluation (EPS) with induction of arrhythmia. EPS is a diagnostic test that evaluates the electrical activity of the heart and helps identify abnormal heart rhythms. Induction of arrhythmia refers to the deliberate provocation of abnormal heart rhythms during the test to assess their characteristics and determine the appropriate treatment. Therefore, 93620 is the most appropriate code for this procedure.

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55. Patient is admitted to the hospital with facial droop and left-sided paralysis. CT scan of the brain shows subdural hematoma. Burr holes were performed to evacuate the hematoma.

Explanation

The correct answer is 61154. This code represents the procedure of performing burr holes to evacuate the subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the brain and the dura mater, which can cause symptoms such as facial droop and paralysis. Burr holes are small openings made in the skull to access and remove the hematoma. Therefore, 61154 is the appropriate code for this procedure.

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56. SPECT bone imaging.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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57. A physician orders a lipid panel on a 54-year-old male with hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, and a family history of heart disease. The lab employee in his office performs and reports the total cholesterol and HDL cholesterol only.

Explanation

The correct answer is 82465, 83718. The physician ordered a lipid panel which typically includes measurements of total cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and triglycerides. The lab employee only performed and reported the total cholesterol and HDL cholesterol. Therefore, the correct CPT codes to reflect the services performed are 82465 for total cholesterol and 83718 for HDL cholesterol.

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58. Patient arrives in the emergency room via a medical helicopter. The patient has sustained multiple life-threatening injuries due to a multiple car accident. The patient goes into cardiac arrest 10 minutes after arrival. An hour and 30 minutes of critical care time is spent trying to stabilize the patient.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99291; 99292. This is because the patient arrives in the emergency room with life-threatening injuries and goes into cardiac arrest shortly after. The critical care time spent trying to stabilize the patient for an hour and 30 minutes qualifies for both codes 99291 and 99292, which represent prolonged services in critical care.

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59. Patient presents to the hospital for a two-view chest x-ray for a cough. The radiology report comes back negative.  What would be the correct codes to report to the insurance company?

Explanation

The correct code to report to the insurance company would be 71020. This code represents a two-view chest x-ray, which is what the patient received. The fact that the radiology report came back negative means that there were no abnormalities or findings of concern on the x-ray.

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60. Services were provided to a patient in the emergency room after the patient twisted her ankle stepping down from a curb. The emergency room physician ordered x-rays of the ankle, which came back negative fora fracture. A problem-focused history and physical examination were performed and ankle strapping was applied. A prescription for pain was given to the patient. Code the emergency room visit only.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99281 because this code is used for an emergency room visit where a problem-focused history and physical examination were performed, and ankle strapping was applied. The patient did not require extensive medical decision-making or high complexity care, which would warrant a higher-level code. The other options (99201, 99282, 99211) do not accurately reflect the level of care provided in this scenario.

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61. Tonsillectomy on a 14-year-old.

Explanation

Tonsillectomy is the surgical removal of the tonsils. The correct answer, 42826, represents a tonsillectomy procedure performed on a 14-year-old patient. The other codes provided (42820, 42821, 42825) do not specifically indicate a tonsillectomy procedure or the age of the patient. Therefore, 42826 is the most appropriate code for this scenario.

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62. Code anesthesia for upper abdominal ventral hernia repair.

Explanation

FROM ANESTHESIA SECTION.

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63. An established patient returns to the physician's office for follow-up on his hypertension and diabetes. The physician takes the blood pressure and references the patient's last three glucose tests. The patient is still running above normal glucose levels, so the physician decides to adjust the patient's insulin. An expanded history was taken and a physical examination was performed.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99213. This code represents an established patient visit where the physician takes the blood pressure, references the patient's last three glucose tests, adjusts the patient's insulin, and performs an expanded history and physical examination. The other options do not accurately reflect the level of complexity and work involved in this visit.

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64. One-half hour of IV chemotherapy by infusion followed by IV push of a different drug.

Explanation

The correct answer is 96413; 96411. This code combination represents the administration of two different drugs through intravenous (IV) methods. The first code, 96413, denotes the infusion of one drug over a half-hour period. The second code, 96411, represents the IV push administration of another drug. This combination accurately reflects the scenario described in the question.

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65. Cytopathology of cervical Pap smear with automated thin-layer preparation utilizing computer screening and manual rescreening under physician supervision.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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66. Blood transfusion of three units of packed red blood cells.

Explanation

The correct answer is 36430 because it is stated in the question that the patient received three units of packed red blood cells. The code 36430 specifically represents the transfusion of packed red blood cells. The other codes mentioned (36460 and 36455) do not pertain to blood transfusion and therefore are not the correct answer.

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67. Patient is admitted to the hospital with acute abdominal pain. The attending medical physician requests a surgical consult. The consultant agrees to see the patient and conducts a comprehensive history and physical examination. The physician ordered lab work to rule out pancreatitis, along with an ultrasound of the gallbladder and abdominal x-ray. Due to the various diagnosis possibilities and the tests reviewed, a moderate medical decision was made.

Explanation

FROM EVALUATION AND MANAGEMENT SECTION.

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68. An out-of-town patient presents to a walk-in clinic to have a prescription refilled for a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug. The physician performs a problem-focused history and physical examination with a straightforward decision.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99201. This code represents an office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient, which typically requires a problem-focused history and examination. The patient in this scenario is an out-of-town patient seeking a prescription refill, which suggests a straightforward case. Therefore, a level 1 evaluation and management code, such as 99201, would be appropriate.

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69. The patient is on vacation and presents to a physician's office with a lacerated finger. The physician repairs the laceration and gives a prescription for pain control and has the patient follow up with his primary physician when he returns home. The physician fills out the super bill as a problem-focused history and physical examination with straightforward medical decision making. Also checked is a laceration repair for a 1.5 cm finger wound.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99201; 12001. The physician performed a problem-focused history and physical examination, which is consistent with a level 1 new patient office visit (99201). Additionally, the physician repaired a laceration on the patient's finger, which is represented by code 12001.

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70. A doctor provides critical care services in the emergency department for a patient in respiratory failure. He initiates ventilator management and spends an hour and 10 minutes providing critical care for this patient.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99291 because this code represents the provision of critical care services in the emergency department for a patient in respiratory failure. The doctor spent an hour and 10 minutes providing critical care for this patient, which meets the criteria for reporting code 99291. The other codes (99281, 99292, and 94002) do not accurately describe the level of care provided or the specific circumstances of the patient's condition.

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71. Patient presents to the  emergency room with chest pains. The patient is admitted as a 23-hour observation. The cardiologist orders cardiac workup and the patient undergoes left heart catheterization via the left femoral artery with visualization of the coronary arteries and left ventriculography. The physician interprets the report. Code the heart catheterization.

Explanation

The correct answer is 93458. This code is appropriate because the patient underwent left heart catheterization via the left femoral artery with visualization of the coronary arteries and left ventriculography. Code 93458 specifically represents left heart catheterization including coronary angiography, ventriculography, and left heart catheterization.

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72. Unilateral mammogram with computer-aided detection with further physician review and interpretation.

Explanation

The correct answer is 77055, 77051. This answer is correct because it includes both codes necessary for a unilateral mammogram with computer-aided detection and further physician review and interpretation. Code 77055 is used for the mammogram itself, and code 77051 is used for the physician's review and interpretation of the results.

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73. Patient presents to the emergency room complaining of right forearm / elbow pain after racquetball last night. Patient states that he did not fall, but overworked his arm. Past medical history is negative and the physical examination reverals the patient is unable to supinate. A four-view x-ray of the right elbow is performed and is negative. The physician signs the patient out with right elbow sprain. Prescription of motrin is given to the patient.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99281-25, 73080. The patient's presentation to the emergency room with right forearm/elbow pain and inability to supinate suggests a musculoskeletal injury. The negative x-ray indicates that there is no fracture or dislocation. The physician evaluates the patient and determines that the patient's condition can be managed with a low-level emergency department visit (99281) and provides a prescription for motrin to manage the pain. The -25 modifier is appended to indicate that a significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service was provided in addition to the procedure (73080).

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74. Spinal tap.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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75. A physician performs a PTCA with drug-eluting stent placement in the left anterior descending artery and angioplasty only in the right coronary artery.

Explanation

The correct answer is 92928-LD; 92920-RC. This answer indicates that the physician performed a PTCA with drug-eluting stent placement in the left anterior descending artery (LAD) and angioplasty only in the right coronary artery (RCA). The codes 92928-LD and 92920-RC specifically represent these procedures, with LD indicating the LAD and RC indicating the RCA.

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76. Caloric vestibular test using air.

Explanation

The correct answer is 92700. The given information indicates a series of codes, and the correct answer is the last code in the sequence.

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77. Pregnant female comes in for a complete fetal and maternal evaluation via ultrasound.

Explanation

The correct answer is 76811. This code represents a complete fetal and maternal evaluation via ultrasound. It is used when a pregnant female undergoes an ultrasound examination to assess both the fetus and the mother's health. This code covers a comprehensive evaluation and is appropriate for this scenario.

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78. Patient presents to the emergency room following a fall from a tree. X-rays were ordered for the left upper arm, which showed a fracture of the humerus shaft. The emergency room physician performed a closed reduction of the fracture and placed the patient in a long term spica cast. Code the diagnoses and procedures, excluding the x-ray.

Explanation

The correct answer is 24505-LT. This code represents the closed reduction of the fracture of the humerus shaft performed by the emergency room physician. The addition of "LT" indicates that the procedure was performed on the left side.

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79. A 69-year-old established female patient presents to the office with chronic obstructive lung disease, congestive heart failure, and hypertension. The physician conducts a comprehensive history and physical examination and makes a medical decision of moderate complexity. Physician admits the patient from the office to the hospital for acute exacerbation to CHF.

Explanation

The correct answer is 428.0; 496; 401.9; 99222. This answer includes the appropriate diagnosis codes for congestive heart failure (428.0), chronic obstructive lung disease (496), and hypertension (401.9). The CPT code 99222 represents a comprehensive level of evaluation and management service, which is appropriate for the physician's comprehensive history and physical examination and medical decision of moderate complexity. This code also reflects the physician's decision to admit the patient to the hospital for acute exacerbation of congestive heart failure.

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80. An established patient was seen in her primary physician's office. The patient fell at home and came to the physician's office for an examination. Due to a possible concussion, the patient was sent to the hospital to be admitted as an observation patient. A detailed history and physical examination were performed and the medical decision was low complexity. The patient stayed overnight and was discharged the next afternoon.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99218; 99217. The patient was sent to the hospital to be admitted as an observation patient, which indicates that a higher level of care was required. The detailed history and physical examination were performed, suggesting a higher level of complexity. The patient stayed overnight, indicating a prolonged service. Therefore, the correct code would include both 99218 for the initial observation care and 99217 for the subsequent observation care.

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81. Patient was admitted for right upper quadrant pain. Workup included various x-rays that showed cholelithiasis. Patient was taken to the operating room where a laparoscopic cholecystectomy was performed. During the procedure, the physician was unable to visualize through the ports and an open cholecystectomy was elected to be performed. Intraoperative cholangiogram was performed. Pathology report states acute and chronic cholecystitis with cholelithiasis.

Explanation

The correct answer is 47605. This code represents an open cholecystectomy, which was performed in this case after the physician was unable to visualize through the ports during the laparoscopic procedure. The intraoperative cholangiogram was also performed during the surgery. The pathology report confirmed the presence of acute and chronic cholecystitis with cholelithiasis, supporting the need for the cholecystectomy.

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82. Established 42-year-old patient comes into your office to obtain vaccines required for his trip to Sri Lanka. The nurse injects intramuscularly for following vaccines : hepatitis A and B vaccines, cholera vaccine, and yellow fever vaccine. As the coding specialist, what would you report on the CMS 1500 form?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Administration of two or more single vaccines; vaccine products for hepatitis A and B, cholera, and yellow fever." This answer accurately reflects the scenario described, where the patient received multiple vaccines during the office visit. It specifies that the vaccines administered were for hepatitis A and B, cholera, and yellow fever.

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  • Nov 16, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    MITULPAR
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Code anesthesia for cesarean section.
Amniocentesis.
Code anesthesia for decortication of left lung.
Code anesthesia for corneal transplant.
Chlamydia culture.
CT scan of the head with contrast.
Hepatitis C antibody.
Creatinine clearance.
Facelift utilizing the superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS)...
Code anesthesia for placement of vascular shunt in forearm.
Code anesthesia for procedures on bony pelvis.
Basic metabolic panel (calcium, total) and total bilirubin.
Pathologist performs a postmortem examination including brain of an...
An office consultation is performed for a postmenopausal woman who is...
Code anesthesia for vaginal hysterectomy
Code anesthesia for total shoulder replacement.
Excision of Cowper's gland.
Injection of anesthesia for nerve block of the brachial plexus.
Ureterolithotomy completed laparoscopically.
Osteopathic manipulative treatment to three body regions.
Pathologist bills for gross and microscopic examination of medial...
Clotting factor VII.
Vitamin B12.
Ultrasonic guidance for the needle biopsy of the liver. Code the...
Cardioversion of cardiac arrhythmia by external forces.
Patient with hematochromatosis had a therapeutic phlebotomy performed...
Partial thromboplastin time utilizing whole blood.
Patient undergoes x-ray of the foot with three views.
Huhner test and semen analysis.
Tracheostoma revision with flap rotation.
Litholapaxy, 3 cm calculus.
Which code listed below would be used to report an esophageal...
Obstetric patient comes in for a pelvimetry with placental placement.
Placement of double-J stent.
Patient presented to the operating room where an incision was made in...
Administration of initial oral radionuclide therapy for...
Patient comes into the outpatient department at the local hospital for...
Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) with probe placement, image,...
Patient has carcinoma of the breast and undergoes proton beam delivery...
Code anesthesia for total hip replacement
Two-year-old patient returns to the hospital for cleft palate repair...
Patient undergoes partial nephrectomy for carcinoma of the kidney.
Patient presents to the operating room where the physician performed,...
What code is used for a culture of embryos less than 4 days?
IV push of one antineoplastic drug.
Patient was admitted with hemoptysis and underwent a bronchoscopy with...
Patient presents to the operating room for fulguration of bladder...
Chronic nontraumatic rotator cuff tear. Arthroscopic subacromial...
The physician provided services to a new patient who was in a rest...
Laparoscopic repair of umbilical hernia.
Patient comes into his physician's office complaining of wrist...
Patient presents to the Respiratory Therapy Department and undergoes a...
Patient presents to the hospital for debridement of a diabetic ulcer...
Comprehensive electrophysiologic evaluation (EPS) with induction of...
Patient is admitted to the hospital with facial droop and left-sided...
SPECT bone imaging.
A physician orders a lipid panel on a 54-year-old male with...
Patient arrives in the emergency room via a medical helicopter. The...
Patient presents to the hospital for a two-view chest x-ray for a...
Services were provided to a patient in the emergency room after the...
Tonsillectomy on a 14-year-old.
Code anesthesia for upper abdominal ventral hernia repair.
An established patient returns to the physician's office for...
One-half hour of IV chemotherapy by infusion followed by IV push of a...
Cytopathology of cervical Pap smear with automated thin-layer...
Blood transfusion of three units of packed red blood cells.
Patient is admitted to the hospital with acute abdominal pain. The...
An out-of-town patient presents to a walk-in clinic to have a...
The patient is on vacation and presents to a physician's office...
A doctor provides critical care services in the emergency department...
Patient presents to the  emergency room with chest pains. The...
Unilateral mammogram with computer-aided detection with further...
Patient presents to the emergency room complaining of right forearm /...
Spinal tap.
A physician performs a PTCA with drug-eluting stent placement in the...
Caloric vestibular test using air.
Pregnant female comes in for a complete fetal and maternal evaluation...
Patient presents to the emergency room following a fall from a tree....
A 69-year-old established female patient presents to the office with...
An established patient was seen in her primary physician's office....
Patient was admitted for right upper quadrant pain. Workup included...
Established 42-year-old patient comes into your office to obtain...
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