1.
Indicate which of the following are NOT ADEs of ocular decongestants.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Decreased IOP
F. Decreased blood glucose
G. Dry eye
Explanation
Ocular Effects:
- sting/burn after instillation
- mydriasis
- inc'd redenss
- punctate keratitis
- lacrimation
- inc'd IOP
PHENYL specific:
- rebound miosis
- dec'd mydriatic response in older pts
CDV Effects:
- palpitatesion & arrythmias
- coronary occlusion
- subarachnoid hemorrhage
- MI & CVA
Others:
- HA & brow ache
- sweating
- dizzy/nausea
- nervousness
- weakness
- drowsiness
- ELEVATION OF BLOOD GLUCOSE
2.
The maximum about of time one should use an ocular decongestant without seeing an eye doctor is ____hours.
Correct Answer(s)
48
Explanation
The maximum amount of time one should use an ocular decongestant without seeing an eye doctor is 48 hours. This is because prolonged use of ocular decongestants can lead to rebound congestion, where the blood vessels in the eyes become dependent on the medication and worsen the symptoms. It is important to consult an eye doctor if the symptoms persist beyond 48 hours to ensure proper treatment and avoid any potential complications.
3.
Pts with glaucoma should NOT use ocular decongestants without the advice of an eye doctor.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Patients with glaucoma should not use ocular decongestants without the advice of an eye doctor because these medications can increase intraocular pressure, which is already elevated in glaucoma. This can potentially worsen the condition and lead to further damage to the optic nerve. Therefore, it is important for glaucoma patients to consult with their eye doctor before using any ocular decongestants to ensure that it is safe for their specific condition.
4.
What is the concentration of phenyl that is used for ocular decongestants?
Correct Answer
B. 0.12%
Explanation
1-2 gtt upto QID x 48 hours max
5.
The PREG category for Phenyl is C. What is the PREG category for tetrahydrozoline?
Correct Answer
E. Undetermined
Explanation
The PREG category for tetrahydrozoline is undetermined because the given information does not provide any information about its PREG category.
6.
Which ocular decongestant is found in decongestant/anti-H combos?
Correct Answer
A. NapHazoline
Explanation
Anti-A Component: PHENIRAMINE or ANTAZOLINE
7.
Decongestant/Anti-A combos oftne include what type of vehicle to increase the viscosity of the solution (which increases contat time in the eye)?
Correct Answer
F. A & c
Explanation
Mneumonic: "I need to be HYDRated..give me some ALCOHOL"
8.
Topical Anti-As may produce what ADE?
Correct Answer
C. Angle closure
Explanation
p. 78 --> caution in pts with narrow angles or hx of glc
9.
Which of the following is contraindicated when using antihistamines?
Correct Answer
D. MAOIs
Explanation
MAOIs (Monoamine oxidase inhibitors) are contraindicated when using antihistamines. This is because MAOIs can inhibit the breakdown of histamine in the body, leading to an accumulation of histamine and potentially causing adverse effects such as increased sedation, drowsiness, and anticholinergic effects. It is important to avoid combining these medications to prevent potential interactions and side effects.
10.
The PREG category for antihistamines is ___.
Correct Answer
C
Explanation
The PREG category for antihistamines is not provided in the question. Therefore, it is not possible to determine the correct answer or provide an explanation.
11.
Antihistamines are often used (although not recommeded) as a sleeping aid (esp. in elderly) due to it's potentially sedating effects
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Antihistamines have sedating effects, which can make them effective for promoting sleep. While they are not recommended as a sleeping aid, they are often used in elderly individuals who may have difficulty sleeping. Therefore, the statement that antihistamines are often used as a sleeping aid, especially in the elderly, is true.
12.
Epinastine is a dual antihistamine & mast cell stabalizer. It has assocaited with increased risk of CNS effects and must be monitored closely.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Epinastine CANNOT cros the BB so there are minimal risks of CNS effects
13.
Mast cell stabalizers have various MOAs, including intristic vasconstrictor activity, antihistaminic and anti-inflammatoyr activity.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
p. 82 --> Stabalize MCSs by inhbitig the degranulation of sensitized MCs after exposure to specific antigen. This prevent the release of histamine and other mediators involved in allergic rxns (they do NOT have the
14.
Pure mast cell stabalizers are used for which type(s) of conjuctivitis?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Seasonal conjunctivitis
D. VKC
Explanation
Pure mast cell stabilizers are used for seasonal conjunctivitis and VKC (vernal keratoconjunctivitis). Mast cell stabilizers work by preventing the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells, which are involved in the allergic response. Seasonal conjunctivitis, also known as hay fever or allergic conjunctivitis, is an allergic reaction to airborne allergens such as pollen. VKC is a chronic allergic condition that primarily affects children and is characterized by inflammation of the conjunctiva. Therefore, pure mast cell stabilizers are effective in managing the symptoms of both seasonal conjunctivitis and VKC.
15.
Which mast cell stabalizer has the fastest onset of action?
Correct Answer
C. Nedocromil
Explanation
Nedocromil is the mast cell stabilizer with the fastest onset of action.
16.
Most mast cell stabalizers have a PREG category of B, however which of the following has PREG category C?
Correct Answer
D. Pemirolast
Explanation
Mneumonic: PemiroLAST is the LAST MCS you want to take if you're prego
17.
When should therapy with ophthalmic mast cell stabalizers be initiated?
Correct Answer
A. ?
18.
There are only a few oral corticosteroids that can be Rx'd by ODs, but they are not often used.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Currently no ORAL corticosteroids in OD SOP
19.
Which of the following dual antihistamine/mast cell stabalizer combos are available OTC?
Correct Answer
D. 0.025% ketotifen fumarate SLN (Alaway, Zatidor)
Explanation
Ktotifen is the only anti-H/MCS that was presented in lecture that is available OTC; all others (Azelastine, Epinastine, and Olapatdine) are by Rx only
20.
Corticosteroids are more effective in chronic, rather than acute conditions.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Steroids are more effective in ACUTE cases..degenerative diseases are usually refractory to steroids
21.
Steroids are usually not appropriate for use in mild ocular allergies because they are particularly damaging to ocular tissue with prolonged use.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The reason steroids aren't used for mild ocular allergies is because other modalities (with less ponteially serious comlications) are effective and widely available
22.
Prolonged topical ophthalmic steroid use can cause:
Correct Answer
B. Ocular HTN & glaucoma
Explanation
IOP elevation RARELY occurs within in first 2 hours unless the pt is a STEROID RESPONDER
Withdrawal of the steroid usually results in return to baseline IOP within 2-4 weeks
23.
What should one suspect in any persistent corneal ulceration where a steroid has been used or is being used?
Correct Answer
B. Fungal invasion
Explanation
In cases of persistent corneal ulceration where a steroid has been used or is being used, one should suspect fungal invasion. Steroids can suppress the immune response, making the cornea more susceptible to fungal infections. Fungal invasion can cause prolonged ulceration and may require specific antifungal treatment.
24.
Dietary salt restriction and potassium supplementation may be necessary with topical steroid use.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
This is true for ORAL steroids, but not likely necesssary with topical formulations
25.
Steroid use in contraindicated in active ocular herpes simplex infections.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Concern with corneal perforation
26.
Most routes of administration for steroids are PREG category C. However, which of the following has a PREG category of D?
Correct Answer
D. Intravitrea injection
Explanation
C (corticosteroid) = C
27.
Flurometholone is a steroid with many different formulations. It is prescribed a lot of OD's and also has the convenience of many OTC options.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Flurometholone is Rx only
28.
What is the 2nd most common drug Rx'd by ODs (after Fluroquinolones)?
Correct Answer
A. Loteprednol
Explanation
The correct answer is Loteprednol. This drug is the second most commonly prescribed by ODs after Fluroquinolones.
29.
NSAIDs can decrease the effectiveness of HTN meds & can caus vasoconstriction of renal vessles
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
NSAIDs, or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, can indeed decrease the effectiveness of hypertension medications and cause vasoconstriction of renal vessels. This is because NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which play a role in maintaining blood flow to the kidneys and regulating blood pressure. By inhibiting prostaglandins, NSAIDs can lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the kidneys, potentially worsening hypertension. Additionally, NSAIDs can interfere with the effectiveness of certain antihypertensive medications, making them less effective in controlling blood pressure. Therefore, it is true that NSAIDs can decrease the effectiveness of HTN meds and cause vasoconstriction of renal vessels.
30.
Which NSAID is the best for SCL wearers?
Correct Answer
D. Ketorolac
Explanation
SCL wearers experienced redness and irritation with Diclofenac & Ketorolac
31.
Which of the following NSAIDs are associated with delayed wound healing?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Diclofenac
D. Flurbiprofen
Explanation
Mneumonic: Those Flurby toys were DICs and left a WOUND on my childhood
32.
What is the PREG category for NSAIDs?
Correct Answer
C. C
Explanation
The PREG category for NSAIDs is category C.
33.
What is the most common type of ADE for NSAIDs?
Correct Answer
D. Stinging & burning on instillation
Explanation
Diclofenac and Ketorolac have their own specific ADEs (p. 93)
34.
Which of the following NSAIDs has been banned in Europe due to concern of ocular hemorrhage?
Correct Answer
D. Ketorolac
Explanation
Nepafenac has a lower incidence of bleeding compared to Ketorolac & Diclofenac
35.
Which of the following steroids has been approved for SAC and is preferred for pt's with glaucoma because it doesn't tend to increase IOP as much as others?
Correct Answer
C. Loteprednol
Explanation
Both Rimexolone and Loteprednol have less effect on IOP, however only Loteprednol is is approved for SAC
36.
Describe what the role of cytokines are in the body and in the eye.
37.
Which of the following 2 drugs is involved in the off-label use for topical tx of CME after cataract sx?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Diclofenac
C. Ketorolac
Explanation
Diclofenac and Ketorolac are both drugs that can be used off-label for the topical treatment of cystoid macular edema (CME) after cataract surgery. These drugs belong to the class of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and can help reduce inflammation and swelling in the eye, which can contribute to the development of CME. While the other options, Flurbiprofen and Bromfenac, are also NSAIDs, they are not commonly used for the off-label treatment of CME after cataract surgery.
38.
What is the PREG cat for Restasis?
Correct Answer
C. C
Explanation
The PREG cat for Restasis is C.
39.
Dry eye secondary to aqueous deficiency is called _____
Correct Answer
D. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation
aqueous deficient dry eye is secondary to disorder of the lacrimal gland funciton or failure of lacrimal fluid transfer
evaporative dry eye demonstrates normal lacrimal function, but MGD or increased palpebral fissure width leads to increased evaporation or an anomaly of tear distribution
40.
Related to dry eye, underlying cyctokine and receptor-mediated inflammatory processes affecting the ocular surface and _____ resulting in decreased tear production and clearance.
Correct Answer
A. Lacrimal gland
Explanation
The lacrimal gland is responsible for producing tears, which help to keep the ocular surface lubricated and protected. In cases of dry eye, there is an underlying inflammatory process that affects the ocular surface and the lacrimal gland. This inflammation can lead to a decrease in tear production and clearance, resulting in the symptoms of dry eye.
41.
What are the most common tear supplement products used in dry eye tx's?
Correct Answer
B. Polysaccharides
Explanation
e.g. cellulose esthers (methylcellulose, hydroxypropylcelluluse) and viscoelastic agents (sodium hyaluronate, sodium chondroitin)
- dissolve in water to produce varying degress of VISCOSITY
- lack of toxicity+ viscous props + beneficial effects on TF stability = useful in ATs
42.
Which popular artificial tear contains polyquaternium for a preservative?
Correct Answer
C. Systane
Explanation
Systane is the correct answer because it is a popular artificial tear that contains polyquaternium as a preservative. Polyquaternium is commonly used as a preservative in eye drops to prevent bacterial growth and maintain the sterility of the solution. Soothe XP, Refresh, and Tears Again are not known to contain polyquaternium as a preservative.
43.
What type of antibiotic is Azasite (Azithromycin)?
Correct Answer
A. Macrolide
Explanation
MOA: binds to 50s ribosomal subunit of susceptible micorbes to interfere with PROTEIN SYNTEHSIS
44.
What type of antibiotic is Besivance?
Correct Answer
B. Fluroquinolone
Explanation
MOA: interfere with DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase
45.
What is the MOA of Polymyxin B?
46.
Corneal ulcers are associated with gram _____ 75% of the time.
Correct Answer
positive
+
Explanation
Corneal ulcers are commonly caused by bacterial infections, and 75% of the time, these infections are associated with gram-positive bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls, which makes them more resistant to antibiotics and more likely to cause infections. Therefore, it is likely that corneal ulcers are primarily caused by gram-positive bacteria.
47.
Fluroquinolones generally have better gram + spectrum of activity at this time, gram negative spectrum of activity is alos demonstrating some shift amont the fluroquinolones. Some highly probelmatic gram negative bacteria (e.g. Psuedomonas) are increasingly demonstrating resistance.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
p. 110
48.
What is drug category is contraindicated after uncomplicated removal of corneal foreign bodies?
Correct Answer
abtibiotic/steroid combo products
Explanation
Antibiotics are contraindicated in epithelial herpes simplex, keratitis, vaccinia, varicella, mycobacterial eye infections, and fungal infections.
49.
Topical antibiotic preparations containing antibiotics not ordinarily administered sysmteically are not preferrerd.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Use of topical antibiotics may contraindicate (due to sensitization) the drug's later systemic use in serious infections. Topical preparations containing antibiotics not ordinarily administered systemically are preferred. (p. 125)
50.
3-5% of persons with allergies to penicillins may cross react to _______.
Correct Answer
cephalosporins
Explanation
Some people who are allergic to penicillins may also have a cross-reactivity to cephalosporins. This means that if they are exposed to cephalosporins, they may experience an allergic reaction similar to the one they would have with penicillins. This cross-reactivity occurs because penicillins and cephalosporins have a similar chemical structure. However, it is important to note that not all individuals with a penicillin allergy will necessarily have a cross-reactivity to cephalosporins, as the percentage is relatively low at around 3-5%.