Nursing Pa Test - In This Situation, What Will You Do As A Nurse?
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In This Situation, What Will You Do As A Nurse? Nursing PA Test
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What is the first and most important part of data collection?
Explanation
The patient's story is the first and most important part of data collection because it provides crucial information about the patient's symptoms, medical history, and any relevant factors that might affect their health. By listening to the patient's story, healthcare professionals can gather important details and gain insights into the possible causes of their condition. This information serves as the foundation for further examination, diagnosis, and treatment planning, making it an essential step in the data collection process.Rate this question:
- 2.
Pt. say's "I don't know if I'll make it through the surgery". What response by the nurse would block further communication?
- A.
Everything will be all right
- B.
What are you worried about?
- C.
What have you been told about the surgery?
Correct Answer
A. Everything will be all rightExplanation
The response "Everything will be all right" would block further communication because it dismisses the patient's concerns and does not address their fear or uncertainty about the surgery. It may come across as dismissive and not empathetic towards the patient's emotions, potentially shutting down further conversation about their worries and fears.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the professional distance to stand away from the pt when conducting an interview?
- A.
Stand over the pt to assure that you can hear each other.
- B.
4-5 feet
- C.
Within 18 inches
- D.
You should sit 4-5 feet away, rather than stand
Correct Answer
D. You should sit 4-5 feet away, rather than standExplanation
The professional distance to maintain when conducting an interview with a patient is 4-5 feet. This distance allows for a comfortable and respectful interaction while still ensuring effective communication. Standing over the patient or sitting within 18 inches may invade their personal space and make them uncomfortable. Therefore, sitting at a distance of 4-5 feet is the appropriate choice.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A Pt is being admitted from the ER. You ask about contacting the next of kin or significant other. The pt say's "don't bother to call my son, he is too busy".
- A.
Why is he so busy?
- B.
He will be worried about you
- C.
Is there someone else that you would like me to call for you?
Correct Answer
C. Is there someone else that you would like me to call for you?Explanation
The correct answer is "Is there someone else that you would like me to call for you?" This response acknowledges the patient's request not to bother calling their son, but also offers an alternative option for contacting someone else who may be available and willing to provide support or information. It shows empathy and a willingness to assist the patient in connecting with a loved one during their admission.Rate this question:
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- 5.
If the pt is angry, you should
- A.
Talk louder
- B.
Argue with them
- C.
Remain calm and in control
- D.
Get closer to show you want to comfort them
Correct Answer
C. Remain calm and in controlExplanation
When a patient is angry, it is important to remain calm and in control. This approach helps to de-escalate the situation and prevent it from worsening. By staying calm, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate with the patient and address their concerns. Reacting with anger or arguing with the patient can further aggravate the situation and hinder the establishment of a trusting relationship. Additionally, getting closer to the patient to show comfort may not be appropriate in this scenario, as it could potentially escalate the situation further.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Open or closedHow old are you?
Correct Answer
closedExplanation
The given answer "closed" is the correct answer because the question asks for the type of question being asked, whether it is open or closed. The response "closed" indicates that the question is a closed-ended question, which typically requires a specific answer and does not allow for open-ended responses or further discussion.Rate this question:
- 7.
Open or closedHow do you feel?
Correct Answer
open - 8.
Open or closedWhen did this happen?
Correct Answer
closedExplanation
The question is asking about the state of something, whether it is open or closed. The answer "closed" indicates that whatever is being referred to was in a closed state at the time in question.Rate this question:
- 9.
Open or closedWhat does it feel like?
Correct Answer
openExplanation
The given question is asking about the feeling of something, and the answer provided is "open." This suggests that the feeling being described is one of openness or expansiveness.Rate this question:
- 10.
What are some goals during the Interview?
Correct Answer
collect subjective and objective data, develop rapport, identify issues, record information, communicate with the clientExplanation
During an interview, it is important to collect both subjective and objective data from the client in order to gather comprehensive information. Developing rapport with the client helps to establish trust and create a comfortable environment for open communication. Identifying issues allows the interviewer to understand the client's concerns and needs. Recording information is crucial for documentation and reference. Effective communication with the client ensures that all information is conveyed accurately and that any questions or concerns are addressed.Rate this question:
- 11.
Asking someone to clarify what they mean is an example of
- A.
Decoding
- B.
Encoding
Correct Answer
A. DecodingExplanation
Decoding refers to the process of interpreting or understanding a message or information that has been received. When someone asks another person to clarify what they mean, they are trying to decode the message in order to fully understand it. This involves analyzing and interpreting the information in order to make sense of it. Therefore, asking someone to clarify what they mean is an example of decoding.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What are some internal factors that may be barriers in receiving/decoding information?
Correct Answer
anxiety prejudices cultureal norms, past experiences, education levelExplanation
Internal factors such as anxiety, prejudices, cultural norms, past experiences, and education level can act as barriers in receiving and decoding information. When a person is anxious, they may have difficulty focusing and comprehending the message being conveyed. Prejudices and cultural norms can lead to biases and selective perception, causing individuals to interpret information based on their preconceived notions. Past experiences and education level also shape how information is received and understood, as they influence one's knowledge, beliefs, and cognitive abilities. These internal factors can hinder effective communication and impede the accurate interpretation of information.Rate this question:
- 13.
What are some external factors that can effect communication?
Correct Answer
Privacy, interruptions noise, body language, appearanceExplanation
External factors such as privacy, interruptions, noise, body language, and appearance can all have an impact on communication. Privacy can affect communication by creating a safe and confidential environment, allowing individuals to freely express themselves. Interruptions can disrupt the flow of communication and lead to misunderstandings. Noise can make it difficult to hear and understand the message being conveyed. Body language plays a vital role in communication as it conveys emotions, attitudes, and intentions. Appearance can also influence communication by creating a perception or impression of the speaker.Rate this question:
- 14.
Is writing, verbal or nonverbal?
Correct Answer
verbalExplanation
Writing is a form of communication that involves the use of words and language. Verbal communication refers to the use of spoken words to convey a message. Since writing also uses words and language, it falls under the category of verbal communication.Rate this question:
- 15.
Taking anything into account when interpreting what is happening to get the whole message is
- A.
Verbal communication
- B.
Metacommunication
- C.
Nonverbal communication
- D.
External communication
Correct Answer
B. MetacommunicationExplanation
Metacommunication refers to the process of interpreting and understanding the underlying messages and cues in a communication exchange. It involves considering nonverbal cues, such as body language and tone of voice, as well as the context and relationship between the communicators. By taking into account these factors, one can gain a deeper understanding of the intended message and the emotions or intentions behind it. Verbal communication focuses solely on the words spoken, while metacommunication encompasses a broader perspective, allowing for a more comprehensive interpretation of the communication. External communication refers to communication with people outside of an organization or group.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Is silence acceptable during an interview?
Correct Answer
yesExplanation
Silence can be acceptable during an interview as it allows the interviewer and interviewee to gather their thoughts and process the information being discussed. It can also indicate that the interviewer is actively listening and considering the response given by the interviewee. Additionally, silence can create a comfortable environment for both parties to think and reflect on the questions and answers, leading to more thoughtful and genuine conversations.Rate this question:
- 17.
Is it ok to use biased or leading questions?
Correct Answer
NoExplanation
Biased or leading questions should not be used because they can manipulate or influence the respondent's answer. These types of questions often contain assumptions or suggest a particular response, which can result in inaccurate or unreliable data. In order to obtain unbiased and objective information, it is important to use neutral and open-ended questions that allow respondents to express their own thoughts and opinions freely.Rate this question:
- 18.
Do subjective and objective data always agree?
Correct Answer
noExplanation
Subjective and objective data do not always agree because they are based on different perspectives and sources of information. Subjective data is based on personal opinions, emotions, and interpretations, while objective data is based on observable facts and evidence. These two types of data can often provide different insights and conclusions, leading to disagreement. It is important to consider both subjective and objective data when making decisions or forming opinions to ensure a comprehensive understanding of a situation.Rate this question:
- 19.
What are the 8 characteristics of an illness/history of present illness?
Correct Answer
1. W-what or where is it 2. H- how does it feel 3. A- Amount 4 A- Aggravating and alleviating factors 5 T-timing 6. S- Setting 7. U- unusual signs/ symptoms 8. P- pt. perceptionExplanation
These are the 8 characteristics of an illness or history of present illness. They include identifying what or where the illness is, describing how it feels, determining the amount or severity of the symptoms, identifying any factors that worsen or improve the symptoms, noting the timing of the symptoms, considering the setting or context in which the symptoms occur, looking for any unusual signs or symptoms, and understanding the patient's perception of their illness. These characteristics help healthcare professionals gather important information to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
- 20.
How would you document that the pt has a splitting headache?
Correct Answer
Explanation
To document that the patient has a splitting headache, the healthcare provider can include specific details in the medical record. This may involve noting the patient's complaint of a severe and intense headache that feels like it is splitting or being torn apart. Additionally, the provider can mention any associated symptoms such as sensitivity to light or sound, throbbing pain, and the location of the headache. The documentation should also mention the duration of the headache, any triggers, and any interventions or medications provided to alleviate the pain.Rate this question:
- 21.
What is the main reason that the nurse documents?
Correct Answer
CommunicationExplanation
The main reason that the nurse documents is for communication. Documentation allows nurses to effectively communicate important information about a patient's condition, treatment, and progress with other healthcare professionals. It ensures that everyone involved in the patient's care is well-informed and can provide appropriate and coordinated care. Documentation also serves as a legal record, providing evidence of the care provided and protecting both the patient and the healthcare provider in case of any legal issues.Rate this question:
- 22.
What do these initials represent related to documentation?SOAP
Correct Answer
S-subjective O-objective A-assessment/analysis P-planExplanation
These initials, SOAP, represent a method of organizing and documenting medical records. The S stands for subjective, which includes the patient's reported symptoms and feelings. The O stands for objective, which includes measurable data such as vital signs and test results. The A stands for assessment/analysis, which includes the healthcare provider's professional judgment and diagnosis. The P stands for plan, which outlines the proposed treatment and next steps. This method ensures comprehensive and structured documentation of patient information.Rate this question:
- 23.
What technique is used to look at someone's skin rash?
Correct Answer
inspectionExplanation
Inspection is the technique used to visually examine someone's skin rash. It involves carefully observing the rash, looking for any changes in color, texture, size, or shape. By inspecting the rash, a healthcare professional can gather important information about its characteristics, which can aid in diagnosing the underlying cause and determining the appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
- 24.
In what order do you perform the 4 assessment techniques?
Correct Answer
IPPA (inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation)Explanation
The correct order to perform the 4 assessment techniques is IPPA, which stands for inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Inspection involves visually examining the patient for any abnormalities or visible signs. Palpation involves using touch to assess the texture, temperature, and tenderness of the body. Percussion involves tapping on the body to assess the density and resonance of underlying structures. Auscultation involves using a stethoscope to listen to the sounds produced by the body, such as heart and lung sounds. This order allows for a systematic and thorough assessment of the patient.Rate this question:
- 25.
Where will you test for tenderness of the ears?
Correct Answer
Pinna and tragusExplanation
The pinna and tragus are the external parts of the ear that can be easily accessed and examined for tenderness. The pinna is the visible part of the ear, while the tragus is a small, pointed projection of cartilage in front of the ear canal. By palpating these areas, one can determine if there is any pain or discomfort, indicating tenderness.Rate this question:
- 26.
How do you documet RT grip strength is very strong, but Lt grip is slightly weaker?
Correct Answer
Right grip 5/5, left 4/5Explanation
The given answer suggests that the right grip strength is rated as 5 out of 5, indicating that it is very strong. On the other hand, the left grip strength is rated as 4 out of 5, indicating that it is slightly weaker compared to the right grip. This information suggests that the individual being assessed has a significant difference in grip strength between their right and left hand, with the right hand being significantly stronger.Rate this question:
- 27.
What should you assess to evaluate the cerebellm functioning?
Correct Answer
the gait and balanceExplanation
To evaluate cerebellum functioning, it is important to assess the gait and balance of an individual. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Any dysfunction in the cerebellum can lead to abnormalities in gait and balance, such as unsteady walking, stumbling, or difficulty maintaining an upright posture. Therefore, by assessing the gait and balance, one can determine the functioning of the cerebellum and identify any potential issues or abnormalities.Rate this question:
- 28.
Describe characteristics of a normal gait
Correct Answer
steady balance, arms swing in opposition to feet, rhythmicExplanation
A normal gait refers to the way a person walks, and it is characterized by steady balance, rhythmic movement, and coordination between the arms and feet. Steady balance means that the individual maintains an upright posture while walking, without leaning or stumbling. The swinging of the arms in opposition to the feet helps to maintain balance and momentum. Rhythmic movement indicates a consistent and smooth stride, with each step following a regular pattern. Overall, these characteristics contribute to an efficient and coordinated walking pattern.Rate this question:
- 29.
My pt's hands and feet are cool to the touch. I look at them to check the color. What else can I do to check circulation to them?
Correct Answer
Check cap refillExplanation
To check circulation to the patient's hands and feet, one can perform a cap refill test. This involves applying pressure to the patient's nail bed and then releasing it. The time it takes for the color to return to the nail bed after releasing the pressure indicates the adequacy of blood flow to the extremities. A normal cap refill time is less than 2 seconds, suggesting good circulation.Rate this question:
- 30.
If they are wearing nail polish
Correct Answer
Check for blanching of the skinExplanation
The correct answer suggests that if someone is wearing nail polish, one should check for blanching of the skin. This implies that the presence of nail polish can make it difficult to assess the skin's color accurately. Blanching refers to the temporary whitening or paleness of the skin when pressure is applied and then released. By checking for blanching, one can determine if there is any abnormality in the skin's blood flow or circulation.Rate this question:
- 31.
You determine the capillary refill to be normal. How will it be documented?
Correct Answer
Capillary refill less than 2 secondsExplanation
The capillary refill is determined to be normal when it takes less than 2 seconds for the color to return to the capillaries after applying pressure. This indicates that the blood flow to the capillaries is normal and there are no circulation issues.Rate this question:
- 32.
Name the layer of skin that goes with the function:protects; contains connective tissue, nerves, blood vessels, hair follicles, and lymph;adipose tissues for energy, cushion, and insulation
- A.
Epidermis, subcutaneous, dermis
- B.
Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous
- C.
Dermis, epidermis, subcutaneous
Correct Answer
B. Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneousExplanation
The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin that serves as a protective barrier against external factors. The dermis is the middle layer of the skin that contains connective tissue, nerves, blood vessels, hair follicles, and lymph. It provides structural support and nourishment to the skin. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, is the innermost layer of the skin that consists of adipose tissue. It acts as an energy reserve, cushioning, and insulation for the body. Therefore, the correct order is epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What color is typical when there is loss of o2 and blood flow to the skin?
Correct Answer
Explanation
When there is a loss of oxygen and blood flow to the skin, the typical color that appears is pale or bluish. This is because oxygenated blood gives the skin its normal pinkish hue, but when oxygen supply is reduced, the skin becomes paler. Additionally, a bluish color known as cyanosis may appear due to the lack of oxygen in the blood, indicating a more severe oxygen deprivation.Rate this question:
- 34.
What color is typical when there is an increase in blood flow to the skin?
Correct Answer
erythemaExplanation
Erythema is the typical color that appears when there is an increase in blood flow to the skin. This is because erythema refers to the redness of the skin caused by dilation of blood vessels. When there is an increase in blood flow, the blood vessels expand and more blood is delivered to the skin, resulting in a reddish appearance. Therefore, erythema is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
- 35.
What causes erythema
Correct Answer
vasodilation, increased blood flow, fever, anxiety, inflammationExplanation
Erythema is a condition characterized by redness of the skin, which is caused by various factors. Vasodilation refers to the widening of blood vessels, leading to increased blood flow to the affected area. This increased blood flow can result in erythema. Fever, anxiety, and inflammation can also contribute to erythema by causing changes in blood flow and dilation of blood vessels in the skin. Therefore, all of these factors can individually or collectively cause erythema.Rate this question:
- 36.
What causes jaundic
Correct Answer
increased bilirubin in the bloodExplanation
Jaundice is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin and eyes, and it is caused by increased levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are broken down. Normally, it is processed by the liver and eliminated from the body through the bile. However, when the liver is unable to process bilirubin effectively, it accumulates in the blood, leading to the development of jaundice. This can occur due to various reasons such as liver disease, blockage of the bile ducts, or excessive breakdown of red blood cells.Rate this question:
- 37.
What is fluid under the skin that causes swelling called
Correct Answer
edemaExplanation
Edema refers to the accumulation of fluid under the skin, causing swelling. This condition occurs when small blood vessels leak fluid into the surrounding tissues, leading to the buildup of fluid. Edema can be caused by various factors such as injury, inflammation, certain medications, or underlying medical conditions like heart or kidney diseases. The excess fluid accumulation results in swelling, usually in the legs, ankles, feet, or hands.Rate this question:
- 38.
What if edema is all over
Correct Answer
generalized edema - 39.
What if edema is in one body area
Correct Answer
localized edemaExplanation
Localized edema refers to the swelling that is confined to a specific area of the body. This can occur due to various reasons, such as an injury, infection, or inflammation in that particular area. The fluid accumulation in localized edema is limited to a specific region and does not spread to other parts of the body. This type of edema is usually less severe and easier to manage compared to generalized edema, where swelling occurs throughout the body.Rate this question:
- 40.
What is would drainage called
Correct Answer
exudateExplanation
Exudate refers to the drainage of fluid, cells, or other substances from a wound or inflamed tissue. It is a common term used in medical and healthcare settings to describe the fluid that is released from a wound or injury. Exudate can vary in color, consistency, and odor depending on the underlying cause. It is an important indicator for healthcare professionals to assess the healing process and identify any potential complications.Rate this question:
- 41.
Name the lesioncan feelless than 1 cmsolid tissue wartnevus
Correct Answer
pacule - 42.
Mosquito bites arfluid filled raised
Correct Answer
wheals - 43.
Clear fluid filled less than 1 cmraised
Correct Answer
vesicleExplanation
The given description suggests a small, raised, clear fluid-filled structure that is less than 1 cm in size. This description matches the characteristics of a vesicle, which is a small blister-like lesion commonly seen in various skin conditions such as herpes simplex virus infections, chickenpox, or contact dermatitis. Vesicles are typically filled with clear fluid and can be raised above the surrounding skin.Rate this question:
- 44.
Tiny hemorrhages < 2mmbleeding from superficial capillaries
Correct Answer
patechiaExplanation
Petechiae are small, pinpoint-sized red or purple spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding from superficial capillaries. They are typically less than 2mm in size. Therefore, the correct answer is "petechiae" because it accurately describes the condition of tiny hemorrhages and bleeding from superficial capillaries.Rate this question:
- 45.
Palpable bruisecollection of blood
Correct Answer
hematomaExplanation
A hematoma is a collection of blood outside of blood vessels, usually caused by an injury or trauma. It can occur when blood vessels rupture and blood pools in a localized area, forming a palpable bruise. Therefore, the given answer "hematoma" accurately describes the condition of a palpable bruise caused by a collection of blood.Rate this question:
- 46.
Patch of capillary bleeding into tissues
Correct Answer
ecchymosisExplanation
Ecchymosis refers to the patch of capillary bleeding into tissues, resulting in the characteristic discoloration of the skin. It is commonly known as a bruise. When blood vessels rupture, blood leaks into the surrounding tissues, causing the skin to turn purple, blue, or black. This discoloration occurs due to the breakdown of red blood cells and the subsequent release of their pigment, hemoglobin. Ecchymosis can be caused by trauma, such as a blow or injury, or certain medical conditions that affect blood clotting or the integrity of blood vessels.Rate this question:
- 47.
Will purpuric lesions blanch
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
Correct Answer
B. NoExplanation
Purpuric lesions are caused by bleeding under the skin, which results in purple or red spots that do not blanch or fade when pressure is applied. Therefore, the correct answer is "no" because purpuric lesions do not blanch.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What causes clubbing of the nails
Correct Answer
chronic lack of o2Explanation
Clubbing of the nails is caused by chronic lack of oxygen (chronic hypoxia). When the body does not receive enough oxygen, it tries to compensate by increasing blood flow to the extremities, including the fingertips. This increased blood flow causes the soft tissues around the nails to grow and thicken, leading to the characteristic clubbed appearance. This condition is often associated with underlying medical conditions such as lung or heart diseases, where oxygen levels in the blood may be low.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 29, 2008Quiz Created by
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