Paramedic Quiz For Maes Students Chapter 6
Practice quiz for Nancy Carolines Paramedic care in the streets Chapter 6 Pathophysiology.
- 1.
The study of the functioning of an organism in the presence of disease is called:
- A.
Biology
- B.
Physiology
- C.
Pathophysiology
- D.
Biochemistry
Correct Answer
C. PathopHysiologyExplanation
Pathophysiology is the study of the changes in normal physiological processes that occur as a result of disease or injury. It focuses on understanding how diseases affect the normal functioning of the body and the mechanisms underlying these changes. This field of study helps in identifying the causes, progression, and treatment of diseases, and plays a crucial role in the development of new therapies and interventions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Groups of cells form
- A.
Tissues
- B.
Organs
- C.
An organism
- D.
Organ systems
Correct Answer
A. TissuesExplanation
Cells in the body come together and form groups called tissues. Tissues are a collection of similar cells that work together to perform a specific function in the body. These tissues then combine to form organs, which are structures made up of different types of tissues that work together to carry out specific functions. Therefore, the correct answer is tissues.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What type of tissue lines the intestines, blood vessels, and bronchiole tubes.
- A.
Muscle
- B.
Nervous
- C.
Epithelial
- D.
Connective
Correct Answer
C. EpithelialExplanation
Epithelial tissue lines the intestines, blood vessels, and bronchiole tubes. This type of tissue is composed of tightly packed cells that form a protective barrier. Epithelial tissue is responsible for absorption, secretion, and protection. It is found throughout the body, covering and lining various organs and structures. In the intestines, epithelial tissue helps with nutrient absorption, while in blood vessels, it forms a smooth lining to facilitate blood flow. In bronchiole tubes, epithelial tissue helps to protect and lubricate the airways.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Nonstriated muscle is also called_____muscle
- A.
Autonomic
- B.
Smooth
- C.
Skeletal
- D.
Voluntary
Correct Answer
B. SmoothExplanation
Nonstriated muscle is also called smooth muscle. This type of muscle is found in the walls of organs and blood vessels. It is involuntary, meaning it is not under conscious control. Smooth muscle contracts and relaxes slowly and rhythmically, allowing for the movement of substances through the body. Unlike skeletal muscle, which is striated and under voluntary control, smooth muscle does not have visible stripes or bands under a microscope.Rate this question:
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- 5.
_______nerves exit from between the spinal vertebrae and extend to various parts of the body.
- A.
Cranial
- B.
Connecting
- C.
Somatic
- D.
Peripheral
Correct Answer
D. PeripHeralExplanation
The correct answer is peripheral. Peripheral nerves exit from between the spinal vertebrae and extend to various parts of the body. These nerves are responsible for transmitting signals between the central nervous system and the rest of the body, allowing us to move, feel sensations, and control bodily functions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is an example of homeostatic failure?
- A.
A pH balance of 7.37 with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min
- B.
Severe vomiting and diarrhea and a heart rate of 120 beats/min
- C.
Salt and water retention and a bloody pressure of 170/98 mm Hg
- D.
Core body temperature of 98.2 F and an ambient temperature of 28 F
Correct Answer
C. Salt and water retention and a bloody pressure of 170/98 mm HgExplanation
Salt and water retention and a blood pressure of 170/98 mm Hg is an example of homeostatic failure because it indicates an imbalance in the body's regulation of fluid and electrolyte levels, as well as blood pressure. Homeostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions, and in this case, the body is failing to regulate salt and water levels properly, leading to an abnormal blood pressure reading.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Approximately 45% of a persons body weight is
- A.
Interstitial fluid
- B.
Intracellular fluid
- C.
Extracellular fluid
- D.
Intravascular fluid
Correct Answer
B. Intracellular fluidExplanation
Intracellular fluid refers to the fluid found inside the cells of the body. It makes up approximately 45% of a person's body weight. This fluid is essential for various cellular processes and helps maintain the balance of electrolytes and nutrients within the cells. It also plays a crucial role in transporting waste products out of the cells.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Dehydration is generally a more serious concern in elderly patients than in younger adults because
- A.
Geriatric patients tend to lose more water through perspiration
- B.
Total body water constitutes only 45% of body weight in older people
- C.
Renal function increases significantly in patients over 60 years of age
- D.
A persons total body water increases by 10% for each 10 years of life
Correct Answer
B. Total body water constitutes only 45% of body weight in older peopleExplanation
In elderly patients, dehydration is generally a more serious concern because their total body water constitutes only 45% of their body weight. This means that they have less water in their bodies compared to younger adults, making them more susceptible to dehydration.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The movement of water and a dissplved substance from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure is called.
- A.
Filtration
- B.
Active transport
- C.
Facilitated diffusion
- D.
Passive transport diffusion
Correct Answer
A. FiltrationExplanation
Filtration is the movement of water and dissolved substances from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure. This process occurs through a semi-permeable membrane that allows the passage of water and small solutes but prevents the passage of larger molecules. Filtration is a passive transport mechanism as it does not require energy expenditure by the cell.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Lactated ringers is a/an _____ solution because its solute concentration is equal to that of the inside of the cell
- A.
Colloid
- B.
Isotonic
- C.
Hypotonic
- D.
Crystalloid
Correct Answer
B. IsotonicExplanation
Lactated ringers is an isotonic solution because its solute concentration is equal to that of the inside of the cell. This means that there is no net movement of water into or out of the cell when it is in contact with the solution. Isotonic solutions are commonly used in medical settings to maintain fluid balance and prevent dehydration or fluid overload.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Ascites is defined as
- A.
An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity
- B.
Lower extremity edema caused by lymphatic obstruction
- C.
Fluid buildup in the lungs due to decreased cardiac function
- D.
Fluid backup in the periphery due to right atrial dysfunction
Correct Answer
A. An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavityExplanation
Ascites is defined as an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. The peritoneal cavity is the space within the abdomen that contains organs such as the liver, intestines, and stomach. When fluid accumulates in this cavity, it can be a sign of various underlying conditions such as liver disease, heart failure, or cancer. Ascites can cause abdominal swelling, discomfort, and difficulty breathing. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medication, dietary changes, or procedures to drain the fluid.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Acute pulmonary edema
- A.
Commonly results from right-sided heart failure
- B.
Results in excess elimination of carbon dioxide
- C.
Is characterized by progressively worsening dyspnea
- D.
Impairs oxygen diffusion into the pulmonary capillaries
Correct Answer
D. Impairs oxygen diffusion into the pulmonary capillariesExplanation
Acute pulmonary edema impairs oxygen diffusion into the pulmonary capillaries. This means that the condition affects the ability of oxygen to move from the air sacs in the lungs into the bloodstream. This can lead to a decrease in the amount of oxygen that reaches the body's tissues, causing symptoms such as shortness of breath and difficulty breathing. It is important to note that this explanation is based on the information provided and assumes that the question is complete and readable.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When blood osmolarity increases
- A.
The kidneys excrete more water from the body through diuresis in an attempt to normalize the bloods osmolarity
- B.
Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus stimulate the release of vasopressin
- C.
The pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone(AHD), which stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb water and decrease the blood's osmolarity
- D.
Voume-sensitive receptors in the atria stretch, causing the release of natriuretic protients that normalize the blood's osmolarity
Correct Answer
C. The pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone(AHD), which stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb water and decrease the blood's osmolarityExplanation
When blood osmolarity increases, the pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone (AHD). This hormone stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb water, reducing the blood's osmolarity. By reabsorbing water, the kidneys help to maintain the balance of solutes in the blood and prevent dehydration. This response is part of the body's homeostatic mechanism to regulate osmolarity and ensure proper fluid balance.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The MOST prevalent cation of the extracellular fluid is
- A.
Sodium
- B.
Chloride
- C.
Potassium
- D.
Bicarbonate
Correct Answer
A. SodiumExplanation
Sodium is the most prevalent cation in the extracellular fluid because it plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. It is responsible for regulating the osmotic pressure of the extracellular fluid, which helps in controlling blood pressure and volume. Sodium is also involved in the transmission of nerve impulses and the contraction of muscles, making it essential for proper bodily functions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A diabetic patient who failed to take his or her insulin and presents with peaked T waves on the cardiac monitor and muscle weakness is MOST likely
- A.
Hypocalcemic
- B.
Hyperkalemic
- C.
Hepokalemic
- D.
Hypoglycemic
Correct Answer
B. HyperkalemicExplanation
A diabetic patient who fails to take their insulin can develop a condition called diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is characterized by high blood sugar levels and an acidic pH in the body. This condition can lead to an increase in potassium levels, causing hyperkalemia. Peaked T waves on the cardiac monitor and muscle weakness are common manifestations of hyperkalemia. Therefore, the diabetic patient who presents with these symptoms is most likely hyperkalemic.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The MOST major challenge to pH homeostasis is
- A.
Hyperventilation
- B.
CO2 elimination
- C.
Acute fluid loss
- D.
Acid prodcution
Correct Answer
D. Acid prodcutionExplanation
Acid production is the most major challenge to pH homeostasis because it can lead to an increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions in the body, causing the pH to decrease and become more acidic. This can disrupt the balance of acids and bases in the body, leading to acidosis. Acid production can be influenced by various factors such as diet, metabolism, and certain medical conditions. Maintaining pH homeostasis is crucial for the proper functioning of bodily systems and any disruption in acid production can have detrimental effects.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A person who ingest excessive amounts of salicylate ( i.e. aspirin) would MOST likely experience
- A.
Alkalosis
- B.
Bradycardia
- C.
A fall in pH
- D.
Hypoventilation
Correct Answer
C. A fall in pHExplanation
Excessive ingestion of salicylate, such as aspirin, can lead to a fall in pH. Salicylate is a weak acid that can cause metabolic acidosis by increasing the production of lactic acid and reducing the excretion of acids by the kidneys. This results in a decrease in pH levels in the body. Symptoms of metabolic acidosis can include rapid breathing, confusion, fatigue, and increased heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is a fall in pH.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to cause rapid ventilations
- A.
Ketoacidosis
- B.
Severe infection
- C.
Pulmonary embolism
- D.
Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer
D. Metabolic alkalosisExplanation
Metabolic alkalosis is the least likely condition to cause rapid ventilations. Metabolic alkalosis is a condition characterized by an increase in blood pH and bicarbonate levels. It is usually caused by excessive vomiting or the use of certain medications. This condition leads to respiratory depression, causing a decrease in respiratory rate and shallow breathing. Therefore, it is unlikely to cause rapid ventilations. In contrast, ketoacidosis, severe infection, and pulmonary embolism are conditions that can cause rapid ventilations due to the body's attempt to compensate for the underlying metabolic imbalances or oxygenation issues.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In the presence of infection, white blood cells release endogenous chemicals called_____, which produce fever
- A.
Pyrogens
- B.
Histamines
- C.
Leukotrienes
- D.
Catecholamines
Correct Answer
A. PyrogensExplanation
When there is an infection, white blood cells release endogenous chemicals called pyrogens. Pyrogens are substances that can stimulate the hypothalamus in the brain to increase body temperature, resulting in fever. This is a natural response of the immune system to help fight off the infection by creating an unfavorable environment for the pathogens. Histamines, leukotrienes, and catecholamines are not directly involved in producing fever in the presence of infection.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Allergies are acquired following.
- A.
Most bacterial infections
- B.
Initial exposure to an allergen
- C.
Indirect exposure to an allergen
- D.
Repeated exposure to an allergen
Correct Answer
B. Initial exposure to an allergenExplanation
Allergies are acquired following the initial exposure to an allergen. This means that when a person comes into contact with a specific allergen for the first time, their immune system recognizes it as a threat and produces an allergic response. This initial exposure triggers the immune system to create antibodies specific to that allergen. Subsequent exposures to the same allergen can then lead to an allergic reaction as the immune system has already been sensitized to it. Therefore, the correct answer is "initial exposure to an allergen."Rate this question:
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- 21.
Major risk factors for lung cancer include
- A.
Female sex and age over 40 years
- B.
Frequent respiratory infections and asthma
- C.
Cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos
- D.
Chewing tobacco use and a history of allergies
Correct Answer
C. Cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestosExplanation
Cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos are major risk factors for lung cancer. Cigarette smoking is the leading cause of lung cancer and is responsible for the majority of cases. It releases harmful chemicals into the lungs, which can damage the cells and lead to the development of cancer. Exposure to asbestos, a mineral used in construction and manufacturing, is also a known risk factor for lung cancer. When asbestos fibers are inhaled, they can cause inflammation and scarring in the lungs, increasing the risk of cancer. Other risk factors mentioned in the options, such as female sex, age over 40 years, frequent respiratory infections, asthma, chewing tobacco use, and a history of allergies, are not directly linked to lung cancer.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by
- A.
Enlargement or thickening of the heart muscle
- B.
Progressive shrinking of the right side of the heart
- C.
A significant reduction of blood return to the atria
- D.
Generalized thinning of the left and right ventricles
Correct Answer
A. Enlargement or thickening of the heart muscleExplanation
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition characterized by the enlargement or thickening of the heart muscle. This means that the walls of the heart become abnormally thick, which can lead to problems with the heart's ability to pump blood effectively. This condition can cause symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and fatigue. It is important to diagnose and manage hypertrophic cardiomyopathy to prevent further complications and ensure proper heart function.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What disease is characterized by erosions in the mucous membrane lining of the gastroinestinal tract, specifically the stomach
- A.
Peptic ulcer disease
- B.
Chrohn's disease
- C.
Cholethiasis
- D.
Cholecystitis
Correct Answer
A. Peptic ulcer diseaseExplanation
Peptic ulcer disease is characterized by erosions in the mucous membrane lining of the gastrointestinal tract, specifically the stomach. This condition occurs when the protective lining of the stomach is damaged, leading to the formation of open sores or ulcers. Common symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, heartburn, and nausea. Factors such as infection with the bacterium Helicobacter pylori, excessive use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to the development of peptic ulcers. Treatment may involve medications to reduce stomach acid production, antibiotics to eradicate H. pylori infection, and lifestyle changes to manage symptoms and promote healing.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Muscular dystrophy is characterized by
- A.
Progressive deterioration of involuntary muscles, specifically the diaphragm
- B.
Weakness and wasting of groups of skeletal muscles, leading to increasing disability
- C.
Relaxation of the vascular smooth muscles, resulting in progressive hypoperfusion
- D.
Involuntary rapid, jerky motions and mental deterioration, leading to dementia
Correct Answer
B. Weakness and wasting of groups of skeletal muscles, leading to increasing disabilityExplanation
Muscular dystrophy is a condition characterized by weakness and wasting of groups of skeletal muscles, which ultimately leads to increasing disability. This means that the affected individual experiences a progressive deterioration of their muscle strength and size, resulting in difficulties with movement and daily activities. As the condition progresses, the muscles become weaker and smaller, causing a decline in physical abilities and an increase in disability.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Gross distortions of reality, withdrawal from social contacts, and bizarre behavior are MOST characteristic of
- A.
Depression
- B.
Schizophrenia
- C.
Bipolar disorder
- D.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Correct Answer
B. SchizopHreniaExplanation
Gross distortions of reality, withdrawal from social contacts, and bizarre behavior are most characteristic of schizophrenia. This mental disorder is characterized by symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, and abnormal motor behavior. People with schizophrenia often experience a loss of touch with reality, leading to significant impairments in social functioning and behavior. Depression, bipolar disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder may have some overlapping symptoms, but they do not typically involve the same level of gross distortions of reality and bizarre behavior as seen in schizophrenia.Rate this question:
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- 26.
When oxygen does not reach the cell, the cell reverts to
- A.
Anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acid
- B.
Aerobic metabolism and produces carbon dioxide
- C.
Fat metabolism and begins producing ketoacids
- D.
Anaerobic metabolism and produces bicarbonate
Correct Answer
A. Anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acidExplanation
When oxygen does not reach the cell, it undergoes anaerobic metabolism as a backup energy production process. During anaerobic metabolism, the cell breaks down glucose without the presence of oxygen, resulting in the production of lactic acid. This process allows the cell to continue producing energy, although less efficiently than aerobic metabolism. The other options (aerobic metabolism and produces carbon dioxide, fat metabolism and begins producing ketoacids, anaerobic metabolism and produces bicarbonate) are not the correct answers because they do not accurately describe the metabolic process that occurs when oxygen is lacking.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What type of shock occurs when blood flow becomes blocked in the heart or great vessels
- A.
Cardiogenic
- B.
Peripheral
- C.
Distributive
- D.
Obstructive
Correct Answer
D. ObstructiveExplanation
Obstructive shock occurs when there is a blockage in the heart or great vessels, leading to a decrease in blood flow. This can result from conditions such as pulmonary embolism, tension pneumothorax, or cardiac tamponade. The blockage prevents the heart from effectively pumping blood, causing a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent organ dysfunction.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Distributive shock occurs when
- A.
Central vasoconstriction forces blood from the core of the body
- B.
Blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases
- C.
Microorganisms attack the blood vessels, resulting in vasodilation
- D.
A significant decrease in cardiac contractility causes decreased perfusion
Correct Answer
B. Blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreasesExplanation
Distributive shock occurs when blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases. This means that there is an abnormal distribution of blood in the body, with a significant amount of blood accumulating in certain areas, causing a decrease in blood flow to other tissues and organs. This can happen due to various reasons such as sepsis, anaphylaxis, or spinal cord injury, which can lead to an excessive dilation of blood vessels and a decrease in overall tissue perfusion.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone causes
- A.
Neurogenic shock
- B.
Obstructive shock
- C.
Profound vasoconstriction
- D.
A reduced absolute blood volume
Correct Answer
A. Neurogenic shockExplanation
A loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone refers to a condition where there is a disruption in the normal functioning of the sympathetic nervous system. This disruption can lead to neurogenic shock, which is a type of shock caused by damage to the spinal cord or brain. In neurogenic shock, there is a loss of vascular tone and blood vessels dilate, resulting in low blood pressure and decreased blood flow to the organs. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, bradycardia, and decreased organ perfusion. Therefore, the given answer, neurogenic shock, is the correct explanation for the loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the most following statesments regarding multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is MOST correct.
- A.
MODS typically develops within 20 to 30 minutes following resuscitation from cardiac arrest
- B.
At the cellular level, MODS results in aerobic metabolism, metabolic alkalosis, and impaired cellular function
- C.
Signs and symptoms of MODS include compensatory hypertension, bradycardia, and a fever greater than 105 F
- D.
MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive systemic immune, inflammatory and coagulation response
Correct Answer
D. MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive systemic immune, inflammatory and coagulation response -
- 31.
The chief white blood cell of the immune response is the
- A.
Lymphocyte
- B.
Neutrophil
- C.
Monocyte
- D.
Eosinophil
Correct Answer
A. LympHocyteExplanation
Lymphocytes are the chief white blood cells involved in the immune response. They play a crucial role in recognizing and destroying foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses, and they also help in regulating the immune system. Lymphocytes are responsible for the production of antibodies, which are proteins that specifically target and neutralize pathogens. They are also involved in cell-mediated immunity, where they directly attack infected or cancerous cells. Overall, lymphocytes are essential for a strong and effective immune response against various threats to the body.Rate this question:
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- 32.
An injection of immunoglobulin is an example of
- A.
Native immunity
- B.
Passive acquired immunity
- C.
Innate immunity
- D.
Active acquired immunity
Correct Answer
B. Passive acquired immunityExplanation
An injection of immunoglobulin is an example of passive acquired immunity because it involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from an external source, such as another individual or a lab-produced immunoglobulin, to provide immediate protection against a specific pathogen. This type of immunity does not require the body to produce its own antibodies and is temporary, as the transferred antibodies will eventually be eliminated from the body.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The two MOST common causes of inflammation are
- A.
Fever and phagocytosis
- B.
Infection and injury
- C.
Hypercarbia and hypoxemia
- D.
Immunosuppression and fever
Correct Answer
B. Infection and injuryExplanation
Inflammation is a natural response of the body to protect itself from harmful stimuli, such as infection and injury. Infection refers to the invasion and multiplication of harmful microorganisms in the body, triggering an immune response and leading to inflammation. Injury, on the other hand, refers to damage caused to tissues, which also triggers an inflammatory response as the body attempts to repair the damaged area. These two factors, infection and injury, are the most common causes of inflammation in the body.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The desctruction of a blood clot is called
- A.
Adhesion
- B.
Fibrinolysis
- C.
Chemotaxis
- D.
Agglutination
Correct Answer
B. FibrinolysisExplanation
Fibrinolysis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of breaking down or dissolving a blood clot. This process is essential in maintaining normal blood flow and preventing the formation of excessive or unwanted clots. Adhesion refers to the sticking of cells or particles to a surface, chemotaxis is the movement of cells in response to a chemical signal, and agglutination is the clumping together of cells or particles. None of these terms specifically describe the destruction of a blood clot.Rate this question:
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- 35.
In general, a child's immune system is not fully developed until he or she is between
- A.
1 and 2 years old
- B.
2 and 3 years old
- C.
3 and 4 years old
- D.
4 and 5 years old
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3 years oldExplanation
A child's immune system is not fully developed until he or she is between 2 and 3 years old. During the first few years of life, a child's immune system is still developing and maturing. This means that their body is still learning how to effectively fight off infections and illnesses. As a result, young children are more susceptible to getting sick and often experience more severe symptoms compared to older children and adults. It is important to take extra precautions to protect young children from germs and to ensure they receive necessary vaccinations to support their developing immune system.Rate this question:
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- 36.
If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is said to be
- A.
Idiopathic
- B.
Organic
- C.
Functional
- D.
Pathologic
Correct Answer
A. IdiopathicExplanation
When the cause of a disease is unknown, it is referred to as idiopathic. This term is used to describe a condition or illness that arises spontaneously or has an unknown origin. It signifies that the underlying cause of the disease is not yet understood or identified. It is important to determine the cause of a disease in order to develop appropriate treatment plans, but in cases where the cause remains unknown, the condition is labeled as idiopathic.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Severe, prolonged stress
- A.
Is frequently a direct cause of death
- B.
Results in the destruction of cholesterol and fat
- C.
Causes the body to lose its ability to fight disease
- D.
Results in chronically low levels of cortisol
Correct Answer
C. Causes the body to lose its ability to fight diseaseExplanation
Severe, prolonged stress can weaken the immune system and impair the body's ability to fight off diseases. When the body is under constant stress, it releases stress hormones like cortisol, which can suppress the immune system. This weakened immune system makes the body more susceptible to infections, illnesses, and diseases. As a result, the body loses its ability to effectively combat diseases, leading to increased vulnerability and potential health complications.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Ethics is MOST accurately defined as
- A.
The phiosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior
- B.
The professional behavior that a person's peers as well as the general public expect.
- C.
Behavior that is consistent with the law and an attitude that society in general expects.
- D.
A code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct and conscience
Correct Answer
A. The pHiosopHy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behaviorExplanation
Ethics is most accurately defined as the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior. This definition encompasses the study and understanding of what is morally right or wrong, the obligations individuals have towards others, and the standards of behavior expected in a professional setting. It goes beyond simply following the law or meeting societal expectations, as it involves a deeper understanding of moral principles and the application of ethical standards in various contexts.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The husband of a terminally ill woman called 911 because he thinks that his wife is about to die. The patient has a valid living will and an out-of-hospital DNR order. You should.
- A.
Ask the husband whey he called EMS if his wife is not to be resuscitated
- B.
Assume that the husband has revoked the DNR order and begin treatment
- C.
Contact medical control and request permission to provide emergency care
- D.
Treat the husband and his wife with respect and provide emotional support
Correct Answer
D. Treat the husband and his wife with respect and provide emotional supportExplanation
In this situation, the correct answer is to treat the husband and his wife with respect and provide emotional support. The husband called 911 because he believes his wife is about to die, even though she has a valid living will and a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. It is important to respect the husband's concerns and emotions, and provide support to both him and his wife during this difficult time. It is not appropriate to assume that the DNR order has been revoked or to provide emergency care without contacting medical control for permission.Rate this question:
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- 40.
During the attempted resuscitation of a 79 y/o man in cardiac arrest, a young man arrives at the scene and asks you to cease resuscitative efforts. He further tells you that the patient has entrusted him to make all of his medical decisions. you should-
- A.
Continue full resuscitative efforts and ask the man if the patient has a living will and if he has documentation naming him as the person authorized to make decisions
- B.
Limit your resuscitative efforts to basic life support only and cease resuscitation altogether if the man can present a valid advanced directive
- C.
Cease all resuscitative effots, contact medical control, and advise medical control that a surrogate decision maker is present and has requested you to stop.
- D.
Advise the man that, because he does not have valid documentation that he is authorized to make decisions for the patient, you must continue resuscitation
Correct Answer
A. Continue full resuscitative efforts and ask the man if the patient has a living will and if he has documentation naming him as the person authorized to make decisionsExplanation
In this scenario, the correct answer is to continue full resuscitative efforts and ask the man if the patient has a living will and if he has documentation naming him as the person authorized to make decisions. This is because the young man claims to have been entrusted by the patient to make medical decisions, but without proper documentation, his authority cannot be confirmed. By asking about a living will and documentation, the healthcare provider can gather more information to determine the young man's legitimacy and make an informed decision about continuing or ceasing resuscitative efforts.Rate this question:
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- 41.
You have been attempting resuscitation of a middle-aged woman for approximately 15 minutes; however, she has not responded to any of your treatment. There is no evidence of hypothermia or drug ingestion, and the cardiac monitor shows asystole. you should-
- A.
Determine if she has an advanced directive
- B.
Consider terminating your resuscitative efforts
- C.
Perform CPR only and try to contact her family
- D.
Pronounce the patient dead and call the coroner
Correct Answer
B. Consider terminating your resuscitative effortsExplanation
Based on the given information, the woman has not responded to any treatment for 15 minutes, there is no evidence of hypothermia or drug ingestion, and the cardiac monitor shows asystole (absence of heart activity). Considering these factors, it suggests that resuscitative efforts may not be successful. Therefore, it would be appropriate to consider terminating the resuscitation efforts.Rate this question:
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- 42.
If health care providers show up to work in shape
- A.
They are less likely to get hurt
- B.
Their patient care will be better
- C.
They will be able to tolerate higher call volumes
- D.
Sleep deprivation will not affect them
Correct Answer
A. They are less likely to get hurtExplanation
When health care providers show up to work in shape, it means they are physically fit and healthy. This reduces their chances of getting hurt while performing their duties. Being in good physical condition allows them to have better strength, agility, and coordination, which helps them avoid accidents or injuries that could occur while handling patients or operating medical equipment. Therefore, their overall safety is improved, leading to a lower likelihood of getting hurt.Rate this question:
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- 43.
You and your partner are caring for an 82 y/o man who is obviously confused at the situation. It is MOST important for you to.
- A.
Limit your dialogue with the patient to avoid agitating him
- B.
Ask a family member to apprise the patient of the current situation
- C.
Sympathize with the man and tell him everything will be all right
- D.
Carefully explain what you are doing and frequently talk to the patient
Correct Answer
D. Carefully explain what you are doing and frequently talk to the patientExplanation
It is most important to carefully explain what you are doing and frequently talk to the patient. This is because the patient is confused, and providing clear explanations and regular communication can help alleviate their anxiety and confusion. It also helps to establish trust and rapport with the patient, making them feel more comfortable and reassured. Limiting dialogue may further agitate the patient, while sympathizing without providing information may not address their confusion effectively. Asking a family member to apprise the patient may not always be possible or practical in the moment.Rate this question:
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- 44.
While starting an IV on a patient complaining of abdominal pain, you inadvertently get stuck with the needle before you can place it in the sharps container, you should-
- A.
Continue with patient care, report the incident to you infection control officer and schedule an appointment with your physician
- B.
Complete your care for the patient, wash the affected area as soon as you reach the hospital, and report the incident to your supervisor
- C.
Ask the driver to pull over, assume the role of the driver, continue on the hospital and see a physician in the emergency department
- D.
Immediately clean the affected area with isopropyl alcohol , ask the patent if he has any infection diseases and report the incident to your supervisor
Correct Answer
B. Complete your care for the patient, wash the affected area as soon as you reach the hospital, and report the incident to your supervisorExplanation
In this scenario, the correct answer is to complete your care for the patient, wash the affected area as soon as you reach the hospital, and report the incident to your supervisor. This is the appropriate course of action because the patient's care should not be interrupted or compromised. Washing the affected area helps prevent any potential infection. Reporting the incident to your supervisor is necessary to ensure proper documentation and follow-up procedures are followed.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Your unit is the first to arrive at the scene of a traffic accident. Numerous bystanders are surrounding the wrecked vehicle, The driver appears to be unconscious. You should-
- A.
Remain in the ambulance and wait for law enforcement units of any hazards that may be present
- B.
Assess the scene carefully and notify other responding units of any hazards that may be present
- C.
Exit your unit, immediately move the bystanders to an area of safety, and fain access to the patient.
- D.
Quickly gain access to the patient, remain alert for any scene hazards, and keep the bystanders away from the vehicle.
Correct Answer
B. Assess the scene carefully and notify other responding units of any hazards that may be presentExplanation
In this scenario, the correct answer is to assess the scene carefully and notify other responding units of any hazards that may be present. This is the most appropriate action to take as the first responder. By carefully assessing the scene, you can identify any potential dangers or hazards that may pose a risk to yourself, the unconscious driver, or the bystanders. Notifying other responding units about these hazards is crucial to ensure their safety and to coordinate a proper response to the accident. It is important to prioritize the safety of everyone involved before providing medical assistance.Rate this question:
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- 46.
One of the major differences between laws and ethics is that laws
- A.
Allow a person to determine right from wrong
- B.
Are usually broken because of an unethical act
- C.
Have sanctions for violations that are enforceable
- D.
Are reflective of a persons moral responsibilities
Correct Answer
C. Have sanctions for violations that are enforceableExplanation
Laws have sanctions for violations that are enforceable, meaning that there are consequences for breaking the law. This is a significant difference between laws and ethics. While ethics may guide individuals in determining right from wrong, they do not necessarily have enforceable consequences for unethical behavior. Laws, on the other hand, are backed by a legal system that can impose penalties or sanctions on those who violate them, providing a more concrete and enforceable framework for behavior in society.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment.
- A.
A patient with a possible fracture of the radius wished to go to the hospital,but does not have transportation, so you arrange for a friend to take him to the emergency department the next day
- B.
While en route to the hospital with a patient experiencing chest pressure, you encouter a major motor vehicle accident, call the dispatcher to request assistance and proceed to the hospital with your patient
- C.
During a mass-casualty incident involving a building collapse, a paramedic triages a patient as being low priority and instructs and EMT-Basic to observe the patient and inform the paramedic if the patent's condition deteriorates
- D.
A mentally competent adult with shortness of breath adamantly refuses to be transported to the hospital via EMS, so you arrange for a friend or family member to stay with the patient and call 911 if it becomes necessary
Correct Answer
A. A patient with a possible fracture of the radius wished to go to the hospital,but does not have transportation, so you arrange for a friend to take him to the emergency department the next dayExplanation
This scenario depicts abandonment because the patient with a possible fracture of the radius is in need of immediate medical attention, but instead of providing the necessary transportation or arranging for an ambulance, the healthcare provider delays the patient's access to care by arranging for a friend to take them to the emergency department the next day. This delay in treatment can potentially worsen the patient's condition and is considered abandonment as it goes against the duty of care to provide timely and appropriate medical assistance.Rate this question:
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- 48.
You respond to a skilled nursing facility for a patient who is not breathing. When you arrived, you assess the patient, a 78 y/o man and confirm apnea. However, the patient has a rapid carotid pulse. The charge nurse advises you that, according to the patient's family, the patient is not to be resuscitated. You should-
- A.
Not attempt any form of resuscitation and ask the charge nurse to notify the patient's family immediately
- B.
Remain at the scene, begin artificial ventilations, but discontinue if the family arrives and presents a valid DNR order.
- C.
Contact medical control and request authorization to provide palliative care only and transport the patient to the hospital
- D.
Maintain the patient's airway, begin artificial respirations, and transport the patient to the closest appropriate medical facility
Correct Answer
D. Maintain the patient's airway, begin artificial respirations, and transport the patient to the closest appropriate medical facilityExplanation
Based on the given scenario, the correct answer is to maintain the patient's airway, begin artificial respirations, and transport the patient to the closest appropriate medical facility. This is because the patient is not breathing and has a rapid carotid pulse, indicating that he needs immediate medical intervention. The charge nurse's information about the patient not wanting to be resuscitated is not sufficient to override the need for life-saving measures. Therefore, the best course of action is to provide artificial respirations and transport the patient to a medical facility for further evaluation and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A 39 y/o man with sever dehydration requires IV fluid therapy to treat his condition. The patient is conscious, alert and oriented to person, place, time and event. You should-
- A.
Ask him if you can start and IV and explain the reason for the IV as well as the potential risks of IV therapy
- B.
Tell the patient that you are going to start and IV on him in order to repolentish his body with lost fluid and electrolytes
- C.
Start the IV to quickly restore his body fluid balance and then explain to the patient why you established the IV line
- D.
Establish the IV line based on the law of implied consent, because his condition has impaired his decision making capacity
Correct Answer
A. Ask him if you can start and IV and explain the reason for the IV as well as the potential risks of IV therapyExplanation
The correct answer is to ask the patient if you can start an IV and explain the reason for the IV as well as the potential risks of IV therapy. This is the most appropriate approach because it respects the patient's autonomy and involves them in the decision-making process regarding their treatment. It also allows the patient to give informed consent and understand the purpose and potential complications of the IV therapy.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A 17 y/o woman presents with acute abdominal pain while at a party with her husband. You arrive at the scene assess the patient, and advise her of the need for EMS treatment and transport. However, the patient, who is conscious and alert, refuses EMS treatment and transport and states that her husband will transport her in his car. You should-
- A.
Advise her of the potential risks of refusing EMS treatment and transport
- B.
Begin treatment using implied consent, because she is under 18 years of age
- C.
Ensure that she has decision-making capacity and then obtain a signed refusal
- D.
Accept her regusal because the fact that she is married makes her emancipated
Correct Answer
A. Advise her of the potential risks of refusing EMS treatment and transportExplanation
The correct answer is to advise her of the potential risks of refusing EMS treatment and transport. This is the appropriate course of action because the patient is conscious and alert, and therefore has decision-making capacity. It is important to inform her of the potential risks associated with refusing medical treatment and transport, as it is her right to make her own decisions about her healthcare. It is not stated in the scenario that being married makes her emancipated, so this is not a relevant factor in this situation.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 04, 2011Quiz Created by
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