Pathology Review Ch. 14 - Red Blood Cell And Bleeding Disorders

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  • 1/27 Questions

    Three days after taking an anti-inflammatory medication that includes phenacetin, a 23-year-old African-American man passes dark reddish brown urine. He is surprised by this because he has been healthy all his life and has had no major illnesses. On physical examination, he is afebrile, and there are no remarkable findings. CBC shows a mild normocytic anemia, but the peripheral blood smear shows precipitates of denatured globin (Heinz bodies) with supravital staining and scattered “bite cells” in the population of RBCs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • α-Thalassemia
    • Sickle cell trait
    • Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
    • Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    • β-Thalassemia minor
    • RBC membrane abnormality
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About This Quiz

This Pathology Review focuses on Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, assessing understanding of various hematological conditions through case-based questions. It evaluates clinical knowledge, diagnostic skills, and the application of medical principles relevant to hematological disorders.

Pathology Review Ch. 14 - Red Blood Cell And Bleeding Disorders - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A 25-year-old woman has a 3-year history of arthralgias. Physical examination shows no joint deformity, but she appears pale. Laboratory studies show total RBC count of 4.7 million/mm3, hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL, hematocrit of 37.1%, platelet count of 217,000/mm3, and WBC count of 5890/mm3. The peripheral blood smear shows hypochromic and microcytic RBCs. Total serum iron and ferritin levels are normal. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows an elevated hemoglobin A2 level of about 5.8%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

    • β-Thalassemia minor

    • Infection with Plasmodium vivax

    • Anemia of chronic disease

    • Iron deficiency anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. β-Thalassemia minor
    Explanation
    Although β-thalassemia minor and iron deficiency anemia are characterized by hypochromic and microcytic RBCs,
    there is no increase in hemoglobin A2 in iron deficiency states. A normal serum ferritin level also excludes iron deficiency.
    In contrast to β-thalassemia major, there is usually a mild anemia without major organ dysfunction. Diseases that produce
    hemolysis and increase erythropoiesis (e.g., autoimmune hemolytic anemia, malaria) do not alter the composition of β-
    globin chain production. Anemia of chronic disease may mimic iron deficiency and thalassemia minor with respect to
    hypochromia and microcytosis; however, anemia of chronic disease is associated with an increase in the serum
    concentration of ferritin.

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  • 3. 

    A 30-year-old woman has had a constant feeling of lethargy since childhood. On physical examination, she is afebrile and has a pulse of 80/min, respirations of 15/min, and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg. The spleen tip is palpable, but there is no abdominal pain or tenderness. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin of 11.7 g/dL, platelet count of 159,000/mm3, and WBC count of 5390/mm3. The peripheral blood smear shows spherocytosis. The circulating RBCs show an increased osmotic fragility. An inherited abnormality in which of the following RBC components best accounts for these findings?

    • Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

    • Membrane cytoskeletal protein

    • α-Globin chain

    • Heme

    • β-Globin chain

    • Carbonic anhydrase

    Correct Answer
    A. Membrane cytoskeletal protein
    Explanation
    Spectrin and related proteins (e.g., protein 4.1, ankyrin) are cytoskeletal proteins that are important in maintaining
    the RBC shape. Hereditary spherocytosis is a condition in which a mutation affects one of several membrane cytoskeletal
    proteins, such as ankyrin (most common) and band 4.2, which binds spectrin to the transmembrane ion transporter, band
    3, and protein 4.1, which binds the “tail” of spectrin to another transmembrane protein, glycophorin A. Cells with such
    mutant proteins are less deformable. The abnormal RBCs seem to lack central pallor on a peripheral blood smear, and
    they are sequestered and destroyed in the spleen. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an X-linked
    condition that most commonly affects black males. Thalassemias with abnormal α-globin or β-globin chains are associated
    with hypochromic microcytic anemias. Iron deficiency affects the heme portion of hemoglobin, leading to hypochromia and
    to microcytosis. Carbonic anhydrase in RBCs helps to maintain buffering capacity.

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  • 4. 

    For the past 6 months, a 35-year-old woman has experienced an excessively heavy menstrual flow each month. She also has noticed increasing numbers of pinpoint hemorrhages on her lower extremities in the past month. Physical examination shows no organomegaly or lymphadenopathy. CBC shows hemoglobin of 14.2 g/dL, hematocrit of 42.5%, MCV of 91 μm3, platelet count of 19,000/mm3, and WBC count of 6950/mm3. On admission to the hospital, she has melena and is given a transfusion of platelets, but her platelet count does not increase. An emergency splenectomy is performed, and her platelet count increases. Which of the following describes the most likely basis for her bleeding tendency?

    • Abnormalities in production of platelets by megakaryocytes

    • Suppression of pluripotent stem cells

    • Destruction of antibody-coated platelets by the spleen

    • Excessive loss of platelets in menstrual blood

    • Defective platelet-endothelial interactions

    Correct Answer
    A. Destruction of antibody-coated platelets by the spleen
    Explanation
    This patient's bleeding tendency is caused by a low platelet count. She most likely has idiopathic thrombocytopenic
    purpura (ITP), in which platelets are destroyed in the spleen after being coated with antibodies to platelet membrane
    glycoproteins IIb-IIIa or Ib-IX affecting both the patient's platelets and the transfused platelets. Because the spleen is the
    source of the antibody and the site of destruction, splenectomy can be beneficial. There is no defect in the production of
    platelets. Suppression of pluripotent stem cells gives rise to aplastic anemia, which is accompanied by pancytopenia.
    Platelet functions are normal in ITP. Chronic blood loss would not lead to thrombocytopenia when normal bone marrow
    function is present. Abnormal platelet-endothelial interactions are more likely to cause thrombosis.

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  • 5. 

    In an epidemiologic study of anemias, the findings show that there is an increased prevalence of anemia in individuals of West African ancestry. By hemoglobin electrophoresis, a subset of individuals of this ancestry are found to have increased hemoglobin S levels. The distribution of infectious illnesses is correlated with the prevalence of hemoglobin S in this population. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely to account for these observations?

    • Cryptococcus neoformans

    • Borrelia burgdorferi

    • Treponema pallidum

    • Plasmodium falciparum

    • Clostridium perfringens

    • Trypanosoma gambiense

    • Schistosoma haematobium

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasmodium falciparum
    Explanation
    Throughout human history, malaria has been the driving force for increasing the gene frequency of hemoglobin S.
    Individuals who are heterozygous for hemoglobin S have the sickle cell trait. They are resistant to malaria because the
    parasites grow poorly or die at low oxygen concentrations, perhaps because of low potassium levels caused by potassium
    efflux from RBCs on hemoglobin sickling. The malarial parasite cannot complete its life cycle. Clostridium neoformans can
    cause granulomatous disease in immunocompromised individuals. Borrelia burgdorferi is the spirochete that causes Lyme
    disease. Treponema pallidum is the infectious agent causing syphilis. Clostridium perfringens may produce gas gangrene
    after soft-tissue injuries. Trypanosoma gambiense infection causes sleeping sickness. Schistosoma haematobium
    infection leads to hematuria and iron deficiency anemia.

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  • 6. 

    A clinical study of patients with hemoglobinopathies reveals that some of these patients developed episodes of acute chest, back, and abdominal pain; recurrent infections with Streptococcus pneumoniae; and chronic anemia as children and adults. They experienced none of these problems as infants, however. The presence of which of the following types of hemoglobin during infancy most likely provided protection from complications of their hemoglobinopathy?

    • A1

    • A2

    • C

    • E

    • F

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    These patients have sickle cell disease with hemoglobin S. During infancy, the amount of fetal hemoglobin being
    produced is sufficient to prevent most complications of the disease, such as vaso-occlusive crises and infections. After
    infancy, the amount of hemoglobin F declines, but drugs such as hydroxyurea can induce increased production of
    hemoglobin F. Hemoglobin A1 is the normal adult hemoglobin that is absent with homozygous sickle cell anemia.
    Hemoglobin A2 is not produced in sufficient quantities to ameliorate the effects of hemoglobinopathies. Hemoglobins C and
    E when homozygous produce anemia much milder than hemoglobin S disease, and when heterozygous help ameliorate
    hemoglobin S, but there is no differential production of hemoglobin C or E in infancy.

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  • 7. 

    A clinical study of patients who inherit mutations that reduce the level of spectrin in the RBC membrane cytoskeleton shows an increased prevalence of chronic anemia with splenomegaly. For many patients, it is observed that splenectomy reduces the severity of anemia. This beneficial effect of splenectomy is most likely related to which of the following processes?

    • Increase in synthesis of spectrin in RBCs

    • Increase in deformability of RBCs

    • Decrease in opsonization of RBCs

    • Decrease in trapping of RBCs in the spleen

    • Decrease in production of reactive oxygen species

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease in trapping of RBCs in the spleen
    Explanation
    In patients with hereditary spherocytosis, spheroidal cells are trapped and destroyed in the spleen because the
    abnormal RBCs have reduced deformability. Splenectomy is beneficial because the spherocytes are no longer detained by
    the spleen. Splenectomy has no effect on the synthesis of spectrin or RBC deformability as a result; the RBCs in
    spherocytosis are not killed by opsonization. In warm antibody hemolytic anemias, opsonized RBCs are removed by the
    spleen. Reactive oxygen species do not play a role in anemias.

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  • 8. 

    A 22-year-old woman has experienced malaise and a sore throat for 2 weeks. Her fingers turn white on exposure to cold. On physical examination, she has a temperature of 37.8°C, and the pharynx is erythematous. Laboratory findings include a positive Monospot test result. Direct and indirect Coombs test results are positive at 4°C, although not at 37°C. Which of the following substances on the surfaces of the RBCs most likely accounts for these findings?

    • IgE

    • Complement C3b

    • Histamine

    • IgG

    • Fibronectin

    Correct Answer
    A. Complement C3b
    Explanation
    This patient has cold agglutinin disease, with antibody (usually IgM) coating RBCs. The IgM antibodies bind to the
    RBCs at low temperature and fix complement; however, complement is not lytic at this temperature. With an increase in
    temperature, the IgM is dissociated from the cell, leaving behind C3b. Most of the hemolysis occurs extravascularly in the
    cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system, such as Kupffer cells in the liver, because the coating of complement C3b
    acts as an opsonin. Raynaud phenomenon occurs in exposed, colder areas of the body, such as the fingers and toes. The
    patient probably has an elevated cold agglutinin titer. IgE is present in allergic conditions, and histamine is released in type
    I hypersensitivity reactions. IgG is typically involved in warm antibody hemolytic anemia, which is chronic and is not
    triggered by cold. Fibronectin is an adhesive cell surface glycoprotein that aids in tissue healing.

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  • 9. 

    A 76-year-old woman notices that small, pinpoint-to-blotchy areas of superficial hemorrhage have appeared on her gums and on the skin of her arms and legs over the past 3 weeks. On physical examination, she is afebrile and has no organomegaly. Laboratory studies show a normal prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time. CBC shows hemoglobin of 12.7 g/dL, hematocrit of 37.2%, MCV of 80 μm3, platelet count of 276,000/mm3, and WBC count of 5600/mm3. Platelet function studies and fibrinogen level are normal, and no fibrin split products are detectable. Which of the following conditions best explains these findings?

    • Macronodular cirrhosis

    • Chronic renal failure

    • Meningococcemia

    • Vitamin C deficiency

    • Metastatic carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin C deficiency
    Explanation
    Platelet number and function in this case are normal, and there is no detectable abnormality in the extrinsic or
    intrinsic pathways of coagulation as measured by the prothrombin time or partial thromboplastin time. Petechiae and
    ecchymoses can result from increased vascular fragility, a consequence of nutritional deficiency (e.g., vitamin C), infection
    (e.g., meningococcemia), and vasculitic diseases. Liver disease would affect the prothrombin time. Chronic renal failure
    may depress platelet function. Meningococcemia is an acute illness. Metastatic disease does not directly affect
    hemostasis, although extensive marrow metastases could diminish platelet production.

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  • 10. 

    A 12-year-old boy has a history of episodes of severe abdominal and back pain since early childhood. On physical examination, he is afebrile, and there is no organomegaly. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL, platelet count of 194,000/mm3, and WBC count of 9020/mm3. The peripheral blood smear shows occasional sickled cells, nucleated RBCs, and Howell-Jolly bodies. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows 1% hemoglobin A2, 6% hemoglobin F, and 93% hemoglobin S. Hydroxyurea therapy is found to be beneficial in this patient. Which of the following is the most likely basis for its therapeutic efficacy?

    • Increase in production of hemoglobin F

    • Increase in production of hemoglobin A

    • Decrease in overall globin synthesis

    • Stimulation of erythrocyte production

    • Increase in oxygen affinity of hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase in production of hemoglobin F
    Explanation
    Children and adults with sickle cell anemia may benefit from hydroxyurea therapy, which can increase the
    concentration of hemoglobin F in RBCs, which interferes with the polymerization of hemoglobin S. However, the
    therapeutic response to hydroxyurea often precedes the increase in hemoglobin F levels. Hydroxyurea also has an antiinflammatory
    effect, increases the mean RBC volume, and can be oxidized by heme groups to produce nitric oxide.
    Because hemoglobin F levels are high for the first 5 to 6 months of life, patients with sickle cell anemia do not manifest the
    disease during this period. Because both β-globin chains are affected, no hemoglobin A1 is produced. Globin synthesis
    decreases with the thalassemias. The hemolysis associated with sickling promotes erythropoiesis, but the concentration of
    hemoglobin S is not changed. Hydroxyurea does not shift the oxygen dissociation curve or change the oxygen affinity of
    the various hemoglobins.

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  • 11. 

    A 60-year-old man has developed widespread ecchymoses over the skin in the past month. His medical history includes a diagnosis of mucinous adenocarcinoma of the rectum. On physical examination, he appears cachectic and pale. An abdominal CT scan shows multiple hepatic masses. Laboratory studies show prothrombin time of 30 seconds, partial thromboplastin time of 55 seconds, platelet count of 15,200/mm3, and fibrinogen level of 75 mg/dL, and fibrin split product levels (D dimer) that are very elevated. Which of the following morphologic findings is most likely to be present on examination of his peripheral blood smear?

    • Howell-Jolly bodies

    • Teardrop cells

    • Macro-ovalocytes

    • Schistocytes

    • Target cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Schistocytes
    Explanation
    This is an example of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) with associated microangiopathic hemolytic
    anemia. The DIC developed in the setting of a mucin-secreting adenocarcinoma. Howell-Jolly bodies are small, round
    inclusions in RBCs that appear when the spleen is absent. Teardrop cells are most characteristic of myelofibrosis and
    other infiltrative disorders of the marrow. Macro-ovalocytes are seen in megaloblastic anemias, such as vitamin B12
    deficiency. Target cells appear in hemoglobin C disease or severe liver disease.

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  • 12. 

    A 23-year-old woman in her 25th week of pregnancy has felt no fetal movement for the past 3 days. Three weeks later, she still has not given birth and suddenly develops dyspnea with cyanosis. On physical examination, her temperature is 36.9°C, pulse is 102/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg. She has large ecchymoses over the skin of her entire body. A stool sample is positive for occult blood. Laboratory studies show an elevated prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time. The platelet count is decreased, plasma fibrinogen is markedly decreased, and fibrin split products are detected. A blood culture is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the bleeding diathesis?

    • Increased vascular fragility

    • Toxic injury to the endothelium

    • Reduced production of platelets

    • Increased consumption of clotting factors and platelets

    • Defects in platelet adhesion and aggregation

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased consumption of clotting factors and platelets
    Explanation
    The presence of thrombocytopenia, increased prothrombin and partial thromboplastin times, and fibrin split
    products, and the low fibrinogen concentration all suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which was most
    likely caused by a retained dead fetus, an obstetric complication that can lead to DIC through release of thromboplastins
    from the fetus. This release causes widespread microvascular thrombosis and consumes clotting factors and platelets.
    There is no damage to the vascular endothelium or vascular wall. Platelet production is normal, but platelets are
    consumed by widespread thrombosis of small vessels. There is no defect in platelet function.

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  • 13. 

    A 65-year-old man diagnosed with follicular non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is treated with chemotherapy. He develops fever and cough. On examination, there are bilateral pulmonary rales. A chest radiograph shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates. A shell vial assay of sputum is positive for cytomegalovirus. He develops scleral icterus. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 10.3 g/dL; hematocrit, 41.3%; MCV, 101 μm3; WBC count, 7600/mm3; and platelet count, 205,000/mm3. His serum total bilirubin is 6 mg/dL, direct bilirubin is 0.8 mg/dL, and LDH is 1020 U/L. Coombs's test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for his anemia?

    • Binding of IgM to red blood cells

    • Chemotherapeutic bone marrow toxicity

    • Cytomegalovirus hepatitis

    • Dietary folate deficiency

    • Metastases to colon

    Correct Answer
    A. Binding of IgM to red blood cells
    Explanation
    The findings point to Coombs-positive immune hemolytic anemia. Cold agglutinin immunohemolytic anemia can be
    seen with lymphoid neoplasms and infections such as Mycoplasma, Epstein-Barr virus, HIV, influenza virus, and
    cytomegalovirus. IgM binds to RBCs at cooler peripheral body regions, then fixes complement. At warmer central regions,
    the antibody is eluted, but the complement marks the RBCs for extravascular destruction in the spleen, and there is
    minimal intravascular hemolysis. The increased RBC turnover increases the MCV and the bilirubin, which is mainly
    indirect. Chemotherapy can suppress bone marrow production, but more likely all cell lines, and without an immune
    component. This patient has CMV infection, but hepatitis would likely increase direct and indirect bilirubin, and not account
    for anemia. Folate deficiency could account for macrocytosis, but not a positive Coombs test. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas do
    not often involve colon, but this might account for gastrointestinal bleeding with features of iron deficiency and
    microcytosis.

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  • 14. 

    A 45-year-old woman has experienced malaise with nausea and vomiting for 3 months. On physical examination, she has scleral icterus and a yellowish hue to her skin. She has difficulty remembering three objects after 3 minutes. There are no neurologic deficits. Laboratory studies show a positive serologic test result for hepatitis C, a serum ALT of 310 U/L, AST of 275 U/L, total bilirubin of 7.6 mg/dL, direct bilirubin of 5.8 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase of 75 U/L, and ammonia of 55 μmol/L. An abnormal result of which of the following laboratory studies of hemostatic function is most likely to be reported?

    • Immunoassay for plasma von Willebrand factor

    • Platelet count

    • Prothrombin time

    • Fibrin split products

    • Platelet aggregation

    Correct Answer
    A. Prothrombin time
    Explanation
    This patient has hepatitis C with severe hepatocyte damage. Many of the clotting factors that are instrumental in the
    in vitro measurement of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, as measured by the prothrombin time, are synthesized in the
    liver. Von Willebrand factor is produced by endothelial cells, not hepatocytes. The platelet count is not affected directly by
    liver disease. Increased fibrin split products suggest a consumptive coagulopathy, such as disseminated intravascular
    coagulation. Platelet aggregation is a measure of platelet function, which is not significantly affected by liver disease.

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  • 15. 

    A 23-year-old woman has had a history of bleeding problems all of her life, primarily heavy menstruation and bleeding gums. A sister and an uncle also have bleeding problems. Physical examination shows several bruises ranging in color from red to blue to purple on her arms and legs. There is no organomegaly, and no deformities are noted. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 9.5 g/dL; hematocrit, 28.2%; platelet count, 229,300/mm3; WBC count, 7185/mm3; prothrombin time, 12 seconds; and partial thromboplastin time, 38 seconds. A 1 : 1 dilution of the patient's plasma with normal pooled plasma corrects the partial thromboplastin time. Ristocetin-dependent platelet aggregation in patient plasma is markedly reduced. Factor VIII activity is 30% (reference range 50% to 150%). Which of the following responses should the physician use when advising the patient of potential consequences of this disease?

    • You might need allogeneic bone marrow transplantation

    • Expect increasing difficulty with joint mobility

    • Anticoagulation is needed to prevent deep venous thrombosis

    • You could experience excessive bleeding after oral surgery

    • A splenectomy might be necessary to control the disease

    Correct Answer
    A. You could experience excessive bleeding after oral surgery
    Explanation
    An inherited bleeding disorder with normal platelet count and prolonged bleeding time suggests von Willebrand
    disease, confirmed by the ristocetin-dependent bioassay for von Willebrand factor (vWF). Von Willebrand disease is a
    common bleeding disorder, with an estimated frequency of 1%. In most cases, it is inherited as an autosomal dominant
    trait. In these cases, a reduction in the quantity of vWF impairs platelet adhesion to damaged vessel walls, and hemostasis
    is compromised. Because vWF acts as a carrier for factor VIII, the level of this procoagulant protein (needed for the
    intrinsic pathway) is diminished, as in this case. The levels of factor VIII rarely are reduced enough, however, to be
    clinically significant. Prolonged partial thromboplastin time corrected by normal plasma is a reflection of factor VIII
    deficiency. Because the disease is not a disorder of stem cells, transplantation is not helpful. Joint hemorrhages are a
    feature of hemophilia A and B, not von Willebrand disease. Patients with von Willebrand disease are not prone to
    thrombosis, as are individuals with factor V (Leiden) mutation or other inherited disorders of anticoagulation. Splenectomy
    is useful in cases of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, but the platelets are not consumed in von Willebrand disease.

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  • 16. 

    A 39-year-old woman sees her physician because she has experienced abdominal pain and intermittent low-volume diarrhea for the past 3 months. On physical examination, she is afebrile. A stool sample is positive for occult blood. A colonoscopy is performed, and biopsy specimens from the terminal ileum and colon show microscopic findings consistent with Crohn's disease. Because she has failed to respond to medical therapy, surgery is warranted, and part of the colon and terminal ileum are removed. She is transfused with 2 U of packed RBCs during surgery. Several weeks later, she appears healthy, but complains of easy fatigability. On investigation, CBC findings show hemoglobin of 10.6 g/dL, hematocrit of 31.6%, RBC count of 2.69 million/μL, MCV of 118 μm3, platelet count of 378,000/mm3, and WBC count of 9800/mm3. The reticulocyte count is 0.3%. Which of the following is most likely to produce these findings?

    • Hemolytic anemia

    • Aplastic anemia

    • Chronic blood loss

    • Vitamin B12 deficiency

    • Anemia of chronic disease

    • Bone marrow metastases

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
    Explanation
    The high MCV indicates a marked macrocytosis, greater than would be accounted for by a reticulocytosis alone.
    The two best-known causes for such an anemia (also known as megaloblastic anemia when characteristic megaloblastic
    precursors are seen in the bone marrow) are vitamin B12 and folate deficiency. Because vitamin B12 is absorbed in the
    terminal ileum, its removal can cause vitamin B12 deficiency. Hemolytic anemia is unlikely several weeks after blood
    transfusion. Chronic blood loss and iron deficiency produce a microcytic pattern of anemia, as does dietary iron deficiency.
    Anemia of chronic disease is generally a normocytic anemia. Inflammatory bowel diseases (e.g., Crohn disease) increase
    the risk of malignancy, but myelophthisic anemias (from space-occupying lesions of the marrow) are usually normocytic to
    mildly macrocytic (from reticulocytosis).

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  • 17. 

    A 29-year-old woman has had malaise and a low-grade fever for the past week. On physical examination, she appears very pale. She has a history of chronic anemia, and spherocytes are observed on a peripheral blood smear. Her hematocrit, which normally ranges from 35% to 38%, is now 28%, and the reticulocyte count is very low. The serum bilirubin level is 0.9 mg/dL. Which of the following events is most likely to have occurred in this patient?

    • Development of anti-RBC antibodies

    • Disseminated intravascular coagulation

    • Accelerated extravascular hemolysis in the spleen

    • Reduced erythropoiesis from parvovirus infection

    • Superimposed iron deficiency

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduced erythropoiesis from parvovirus infection
    Explanation
    This patient has aplastic crisis, precipitated by a parvovirus infection. In adults who do not have a defect in normal
    RBC production, such as hereditary spherocytosis or sickle cell anemia, or who are not immunosuppressed, parvovirus
    infection is self-limited and often goes unnoticed. When RBC production is shut down by parvovirus, there is no
    reticulocytosis. Disseminated intravascular coagulation gives rise to thrombocytopenia, bleeding, and the appearance of
    fragmented RBCs in the blood smear. Reticulocytosis would be prominent with RBC antibodies. Iron deficiency does not
    occur in hemolytic anemias because the iron that is released from hemolyzed cells is reused.

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  • 18. 

    A 73-year-old man has been healthy all his life. He takes no medications and has had no major illnesses or surgeries. For the past year, he has become increasingly tired and listless, and he appears pale. Physical examination shows no hepatosplenomegaly and no deformities. CBC shows hemoglobin, 9.7 g/dL; hematocrit, 29.9%; MCV, 69.7 mm3; RBC count, 4.28 million/mm3; platelet count, 331,000/mm3; and WBC count, 5500/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely underlying condition causing this patient's findings?

    • Occult malignancy

    • Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

    • β-Thalassemia major

    • Chronic alcoholism

    • Vitamin B12 deficiency

    • Hemophilia A

    Correct Answer
    A. Occult malignancy
    Explanation
    This patient has a microcytic anemia, which is typical of iron deficiency. Iron deficiency is the most common form of
    anemia worldwide. The lack of iron impairs heme synthesis. The marrow response is to “downsize” the RBCs, resulting in
    a microcytic and hypochromic anemia. At this patient's age, bleeding from an occult malignancy should be strongly
    suspected as the cause of iron deficiency. An autoimmune hemolytic anemia would appear as a normocytic anemia or as a
    slightly increased MCV with pronounced reticulocytosis. Thalassemias may result in a microcytosis, but β-thalassemia
    major causes severe anemia soon after birth, and survival to age 73 years is unlikely. Macrocytosis would accompany a
    history of chronic alcoholism, probably because of poor diet and folate deficiency. Vitamin B12 deficiency also results in a
    macrocytic anemia. By this patient's age, hemophilia A would result in joint problems; because the bleeding is mainly into
    soft tissues without blood loss, the iron is recycled.

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  • 19. 

    A 42-year-old woman has had nosebleeds, easy bruising, and increased bleeding with her menstrual periods for the past 4 months. On physical examination, her temperature is 37°C, pulse is 88/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. She has scattered petechiae over the distal extremities. There is no organomegaly. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin of 12.3 g/dL, hematocrit of 37%, platelet count of 21,500/mm3, and WBC count of 7370/mm3. A bone marrow biopsy specimen shows a marked increase in megakaryocytes. The prothrombin and partial thromboplastin times are within the reference range. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • Disseminated intravascular coagulation

    • Hemophilia B

    • Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

    • Metastatic breast carcinoma

    • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

    • Vitamin K deficiency

    • Von Willebrand disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
    Explanation
    Reduced numbers of platelets can result from decreased production or increased destruction. Marrow examination
    in this case shows numerous megakaryocytes, which excludes decreased production. Accelerated destruction can be caused by hypersplenism, but there is no splenomegaly in this case. Peripheral platelet destruction is often
    immunologically mediated and can result from well-known autoimmune diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus, or
    it can be idiopathic. When all known causes of thrombocytopenia are excluded, a diagnosis of idiopathic (immune)
    thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) can be made. This patient seems to have no other symptoms or signs and has no history
    of drug intake or infections that can cause thrombocytopenia. ITP is most likely. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
    (TTP) is another entity to be considered, but TTP produces a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) that typically is
    associated with fever, neurologic symptoms, and renal failure. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is another form of
    MAHA. Hemophilia B, similar to hemophilia A, leads to soft-tissue bleeding, and the partial thromboplastin time is
    prolonged, but the platelet count is normal. Metastases can act as a space-occupying lesion in the marrow to reduce
    hematopoiesis, but this is unlikely to be selective with megakaryocytes, and in this case, there is a megakaryocytic
    hyperplasia. Vitamin K deficiency prolongs the prothrombin time initially and the partial thromboplastin time if severe, but
    does not affect platelets. In von Willebrand disease, bleeding is due to abnormal platelet adhesion, but platelet numbers
    are normal.

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  • 20. 

    A 30-year-old woman reports becoming increasingly tired for the past 5 months. On physical examination, she is afebrile and has mild splenomegaly. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 11.8 g/dL and hematocrit of   35.1%. The peripheral blood smear shows spherocytes and rare nucleated RBCs. Direct and indirect Coombs test results are positive at 37°C, although not at 4°C. Which of the following underlying diseases is most likely to be diagnosed in this patient?

    • Infectious mononucleosis

    • Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

    • Hereditary spherocytosis

    • Escherichia coli septicemia

    • Systemic lupus erythematosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    Explanation
    This patient has a warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia secondary to systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). A
    positive Coombs test result indicates the presence of anti-RBC antibodies in the serum and on the RBC surface. Most
    cases of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are idiopathic, but one fourth occur in individuals with an identifiable
    autoimmune disease, such as SLE. Some are caused by drugs such as α-methyldopa. The immunoglobulin coating the
    RBCs acts as an opsonin to promote splenic phagocytosis. Nucleated RBCs can be seen in active hemolysis because the
    marrow compensates by releasing immature RBCs. Infections such as mononucleosis and Mycoplasma are associated
    with cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia (with an elevated cold agglutinin titer). The increased RBC destruction in
    hereditary spherocytosis is extravascular and not immune mediated. Septicemia is more likely to lead to a
    microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.

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  • 21. 

    A 50-year-old man has experienced chronic fatigue and weight loss for the past 3 months. There are no remarkable findings on physical examination. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 11.2 g/dL; hematocrit, 33.3%; MCV, 91 μm3; platelet count, 240,000/mm3; WBC count, 7550/mm3; serum iron 80 μg/dL; total iron-binding capacity, 145 μg/dL; and serum ferritin, 565 ng/mL. The ANA test result is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • Iron deficiency anemia

    • Aplastic anemia

    • Anemia of chronic disease

    • Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

    • Megaloblastic anemia

    • Thalassemia minor

    Correct Answer
    A. Anemia of chronic disease
    Explanation
    The increased ferritin concentration and reduced total iron-binding capacity are typical of anemia of chronic
    disease, such as an autoimmune disease. Increased levels of cytokines such as interleukin-6 promote sequestration of
    storage iron, with poor use for erythropoiesis. Secretion of erythropoietin by the kidney is impaired. Various underlying
    diseases, including cancer, collagen vascular diseases, and chronic infections, can produce this pattern of anemia. Iron
    deficiency would produce a microcytic anemia, with a low serum ferritin level. Aplastic anemia is unlikely because the
    platelet count and WBC count are normal. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemias are caused by serious acute conditions
    such as disseminated intravascular coagulation; these patients have thrombocytopenia caused by widespread thrombosis.
    Megaloblastic anemias are macrocytic without an increase in iron stores. Thalassemia minor is uncommon and is not
    associated with a positive ANA test result.

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  • 22. 

    A 5-year-old boy has had a history of easy bruising and blood in his urine since infancy. Physical examination shows no organomegaly. He has several ecchymoses of the skin on the lower extremities. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 13.1 g/dL; hematocrit, 39.3%; platelet count, 287,600/mm3; WBC count, 6830/mm3; prothrombin time, 13 seconds; partial thromboplastin time, 54 seconds; and less than 1% factor VIII activity measured in plasma. If he does not receive transfusions of recombinant factor VIII concentrate, which of the following manifestations of this illness is most likely to ensue?

    • Splenomegaly

    • Conjunctival petechiae

    • Hemolysis

    • Hemochromatosis

    • Hemarthroses

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemarthroses
    Explanation
    The severity of hemophilia A depends on the amount of factor VIII activity. With less than 1% activity, there is
    severe disease, and joint hemorrhages are common, leading to severe joint deformity and ankylosis. Mild (1% to 5%) and
    moderate (5% to 75%) activity is often asymptomatic except in severe trauma. The bleeding tendency is not associated
    with splenomegaly. Petechiae, seen in patients with thrombocytopenia, are not a feature of hemophilia. Factor VIII
    deficiency does not affect the life span of RBCs. Because individuals with factor VIII deficiency do not depend on RBC
    transfusions, iron overload is not a usual consequence.

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  • 23. 

    A 30-year-old, previously healthy man passes dark brown urine several days after starting the prophylactic antimalarial drug primaquine. On physical examination, he appears pale and is afebrile. There is no organomegaly. Laboratory studies show that his serum haptoglobin level is decreased. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of these findings?

    • Mechanical fragmentation of RBCs

    • Increased susceptibility to lysis by complement

    • Nuclear maturation defects resulting from impaired DNA synthesis

    • Impaired globin synthesis

    • Hemolysis of antibody-coated cells

    • Oxidative injury to hemoglobin

    • Reduced deformability of the RBC membrane

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxidative injury to hemoglobin
    Explanation
    This patient has glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. A drug that leads to oxidative injury to the RBCs,
    such as primaquine, can induce hemolysis. Oxidant injury to hemoglobin produces inclusion of denatured hemoglobin
    within RBCs. The inclusions damage the cell membrane directly, giving rise to intravascular hemolysis. These cells have
    reduced membrane deformability, and they are removed from the circulation by the spleen. The remaining mechanisms
    listed are not directly drug dependent. Mechanical fragmentation of RBCs is typical of microangiopathic hemolytic
    anemias, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation. Complement lysis is enhanced in paroxysmal nocturnal
    hemoglobinuria, which results from mutations in the PIGA gene. Impaired RBC nuclear maturation occurs as a result of
    vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. Impaired globin synthesis occurs in thalassemias. Hemolytic anemias with antibody coating
    RBCs can occur with autoimmune diseases, prior transfusion, and erythroblastosis fetalis. Reduced RBC membrane
    deformability is seen in patients with abnormalities in cytoskeletal proteins, such as spectrin; the latter causes hereditary
    spherocytosis.

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  • 24. 
    A 69-year-old, previously healthy woman has been feeling increasingly tired and weak for 4 months. On physical examination, she is afebrile. There is no hepatosplenomegaly or lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin of 9.3 g/dL, platelet count of 250,600/mm3, and WBC count of 6820/mm3. The appearance of the peripheral blood smear is shown in the figure. Which of the following conditions should be suspected as the most likely cause of these findings? - ProProfs

    A 69-year-old, previously healthy woman has been feeling increasingly tired and weak for 4 months. On physical examination, she is afebrile. There is no hepatosplenomegaly or lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin of 9.3 g/dL, platelet count of 250,600/mm3, and WBC count of 6820/mm3. The appearance of the peripheral blood smear is shown in the figure. Which of the following conditions should be suspected as the most likely cause of these findings?

    • Pernicious anemia

    • Gastrointestinal blood loss

    • Aplastic anemia

    • β-Thalassemia major

    • Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastrointestinal blood loss
    Explanation
    The RBCs display hypochromia and microcytosis, consistent with iron deficiency. The most common cause of this in
    elderly patients is chronic blood loss that originates from a gastrointestinal source (e.g., carcinoma, ulcer disease). At age
    69, this patient is not menstruating, and vaginal bleeding is likely to be noticed as a “red flag” for a gynecologic
    malignancy. Pernicious anemia from vitamin B12 deficiency would result in a macrocytic anemia. The RBCs are generally
    normocytic in patients with aplastic anemia. Microcytosis may accompany thalassemias, but the patient would be unlikely
    to live to the age of 69 years with β-thalassemia major. Autoimmune hemolytic anemias usually produce a normocytic
    anemia, or the MCV can be slightly elevated, with a brisk reticulocytosis.

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  • 25. 

    A 41-year-old woman sees her physician because of a 2-week history of multiple ecchymoses on her extremities after only minor trauma. She also reports feeling extremely weak. Over the previous 24 hours, she has developed a severe cough productive of yellowish sputum. On physical examination, her temperature is 38.4°C, and she has diffuse crackles on all lung fields. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 7.2 g/dL; hematocrit, 21.4%; MCV, 88 μm3; platelet count, 35,000/mm3; and WBC count, 1400/mm3 with 20% segmented neutrophils, 1% bands, 66% lymphocytes, and 13% monocytes. The reticulocyte count is 0.1%. Given these laboratory findings, which of the following historical findings would be most useful in determining the cause of her condition?

    • Exposure to drugs

    • Dietary history

    • Recent bacterial infection

    • Menstrual history

    • Family history of anemias

    Correct Answer
    A. Exposure to drugs
    Explanation
    The pancytopenia and absence of a reticulocytosis strongly suggest bone marrow failure. Aplastic anemia has no
    apparent cause in half of all cases. In other cases, drugs and toxins may be identified; drugs such as chemotherapeutic
    agents are best known for this effect. A preceding viral infection may be identified in some cases, but bacterial infections
    rarely cause aplastic anemias. Individuals with pancytopenia are subject to bleeding disorders because of the low platelet count and to infections because of the low WBC count. Dietary history would not be helpful because this patient's clinical
    and laboratory picture is not characteristic of iron deficiency or vitamin B12 deficiency. Menstrual history would be relevant
    if the patient had hypochromic microcytic anemia. The only known familial cause of aplastic anemia (Fanconi anemia) is
    rare.

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  • 26. 

    A 54-year-old woman sees her physician because of sudden onset of headaches and photophobia. This condition has been worsening for the past 2 days. On physical examination, she has a temperature of 38°C and is disoriented. CBC shows hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL, hematocrit of 33.7%, MCV of 94 μm3, platelet count of 32,000/mm3, and WBC count of 9900/mm3. The peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes. The serum urea nitrogen level is 38 mg/dL, and the creatinine level is 3.9 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • β-Thalassemia major

    • Disseminated intravascular coagulation

    • Hereditary spherocytosis

    • Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

    • Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

    • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

    • Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
    Explanation
    The diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is based on finding a classic pentad: transient
    neurologic problems, fever, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and acute renal failure. The diagnosis
    is confirmed by demonstration of von Willebrand factor monomers in the serum. These abnormalities are produced by
    small platelet-fibrin thrombi in small vessels in multiple organs. The heart, brain, and kidney often are severely affected. Of
    the other choices, only disseminated intravascular coagulation is a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, but the pentad of
    TTP is missing.

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  • 27. 
    A 12-year-old boy experienced sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and cramping accompanied by chest pain, nonproductive cough, and fever. On physical examination, his temperature is 39°C, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. He has diffuse abdominal tenderness, but no masses or organomegaly. Laboratory studies show a hematocrit of 18%. The peripheral blood smear is shown in the figure. A chest x-ray shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for initiation of his pulmonary problems? - ProProfs

    A 12-year-old boy experienced sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and cramping accompanied by chest pain, nonproductive cough, and fever. On physical examination, his temperature is 39°C, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. He has diffuse abdominal tenderness, but no masses or organomegaly. Laboratory studies show a hematocrit of 18%. The peripheral blood smear is shown in the figure. A chest x-ray shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for initiation of his pulmonary problems?

    • Intravascular hemolysis

    • Chronic hypoxia of the pulmonary parenchyma

    • Increased RBC adhesion to endothelium

    • Defects in the alternative pathway of complement activation

    • Formation of autoantibodies to alveolar basement membrane

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased RBC adhesion to endothelium
    Explanation
    The crescent-shaped RBCs (sickled RBCs) are characteristic of hemoglobin SS. This disease is most common in
    individuals of African and eastern Arabian descent. The sickled RBCs are susceptible to hemolysis (mainly vascular, in the
    spleen), but they also can cause microvascular occlusions anywhere in the body, most commonly bone, lungs, liver, and
    brain, leading to ischemia and severe pain. Vascular occlusions in the lungs are often accompanied by infection and lead
    to the “acute chest syndrome.” The cell membranes of reversibly sickled cells are abnormally “sticky,” and they adhere to
    capillary endothelium, especially in lungs. Vasoconstriction is caused by depletion of NO by free hemoglobin. Adhesion of
    RBCs to endothelium retards blood flow, creates hypoxia, and precipitates local sickling and vascular occlusion. Chronic
    tissue hypoxia does occur in sickle cell anemia, but it produces insidious impairment of function in organs such as heart,
    kidneys, and lungs. Defects in the alternative pathway of complement activation predispose to infection with encapsulated
    bacteria, such as Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jun 28, 2012
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