Can You Pass This Hardest Medical Test?
(492).jpg "Can You Pass This Hardest Medical Test? - Quiz")
Being a medical student, you undoubtedly know a lot about the human body and how the organs function daily. I have designed what has come to be seen as the hardest medical test that only smart people can tackle. If you consider yourself to be in the same class, then give it a shot and see how high you score.
- 1.
Which part of vertebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity backwards?
- A.
Cervical
- B.
Thoracic
- C.
Sacral
- D.
Coccyx
Correct Answer
A. CervicalExplanation
The cervical and lumbar regions of the vertebral canal show secondary curves, also known as lordotic curves, with concavity backwards. These curves develop after birth and are associated with the body's adaptation to upright posture and bipedal locomotion. The thoracic and sacral regions, on the other hand, exhibit primary curves (kyphotic curves) with concavity forwards.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The extracellular matrix and the cytoskeleton communicate across the cell membrane through which of the following?
- A.
Proteoglycans
- B.
Integrins
- C.
Cadherins
- D.
Intermediate filaments
Correct Answer
B. IntegrinsExplanation
Integrins are transmembrane proteins that act as membrane receptors for extracellular matrix components. Eg: Fibronectin receptor, Laminin receptorRate this question:
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- 3.
Enteroendocrine cells differ from goblet cells in which of the following ways?
- A.
The direction of release of secretion
- B.
Use of exocytosis for release of secretory products from the cell
- C.
Their presence in small and large intestine
- D.
Their origin form a crypt stem cell
Correct Answer
A. The direction of release of secretionExplanation
Enteroendocrine cells are specialized endocrine cells of the gastrointestinal tract. They produce hormones such as serotonin, somatostatin, motilin, cholecystokinin, gastric inhibitory peptide, neurotensin, vasoactive intestinal peptide, and enteroglucagon. They release their products from their basal surface.
Goblet cells release mucus from their apical surface.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The nucleus involved in Papez circuit is?
- A.
Pulvinar
- B.
Infralaminar
- C.
VPL nucleus
- D.
Anterior nucleus of thalamus
Correct Answer
D. Anterior nucleus of thalamusExplanation
Papez circuit of the brain is one of the major pathways of the limbic system and is chiefly involved in the cortical control of emotion. The Papez circuit plays a role in storing memory.
Mnemonc for components of Papez circuit: MACEH
Mamillary body - Anterior thalamic nucleus - Cingulated gyrus - Entorhinal cortex - HpppocampusRate this question:
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- 5.
Agranular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of:
- A.
Protein
- B.
Lipid
- C.
Carbohydrate
- D.
Vitamin D
Correct Answer
B. LipidExplanation
Granular endoplasmic reticulum synthesises proteins and agranular endoplasmic reticulum synthesises lipids.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Regarding cytosolic Eukaryotic gene expression false is :
- A.
Capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 40 S Ribosome
- B.
N formyl methionine tRNA will be the first t-RNA to come into action
- C.
EF2 shifts between GDP & GTP
- D.
Releasing factor releases the polypeptide chain from the P site
Correct Answer
B. N formyl methionine tRNA will be the first t-RNA to come into actionExplanation
Methionine tRNA will the first tRNA to come into action in cytosolic eukaryotic gene expression.Rate this question:
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- 7.
C terminal end of androgen receptor is concerned with:
- A.
Ligand binding
- B.
Increasing biological half life
- C.
Increasing the affinity of receptor to DNA
- D.
Increasing the level of transcription
Correct Answer
A. Ligand bindingExplanation
C terminal is concerned with ligand binding.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The following protein defects can cause hereditiary spherocytosis except:
- A.
Ankyrin
- B.
Palladin
- C.
Glycophorin C
- D.
Anion transport protein
Correct Answer
C. GlycopHorin CExplanation
Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by a variety of molecular defects in the genes that code for spectrin (alpha and beta), ankyrin, band 3 protein (anion transport protein), protein 4.2 (palladin) and other erythrocyte membrane proteins.Rate this question:
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- 9.
ALL L3 morphology is a malignancy arising from which cell lineage
- A.
Mature B cell
- B.
Precursor B cell
- C.
Immature T cell
- D.
Mixed B cell & T cell
Correct Answer
A. Mature B cellExplanation
The correct answer is Mature B cell. This is because ALL L3 morphology refers to acute lymphoblastic leukemia with L3 morphology, which is a type of blood cancer. In this type of leukemia, the cancer cells resemble mature B cells, which are a type of white blood cell. Therefore, the malignancy arises from the cell lineage of mature B cells.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A young male patient presented with UTI. On urine examination pus cells were found but no organisms. Which method would be best used for culture?
- A.
Mc Coy culture
- B.
Thayer martin medium
- C.
LJ Medium
- D.
Levinthal Medium
Correct Answer
A. Mc Coy cultureExplanation
Presence of pus cells without any organisms indicates non gonoccal urethritis. So we need to test for chlamydia. Mc Coy and HeLa cell culture is used for isolation of chlamydia.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and hemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism?
- A.
Bile solubility
- B.
Optochin sensitivity
- C.
Bacitracin sensitivity
- D.
Catalase positive
Correct Answer
C. Bacitracin sensitivityExplanation
Bacitracin sensitivity is used to differentiate Streptococcus pyogenes from other hemolytic streptococci.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The following drugs are used in obesity except?
- A.
Orlistat
- B.
Sibutaramine
- C.
Olestra
- D.
Neuropeptide Y Agonist
Correct Answer
D. Neuropeptide Y AgonistExplanation
Older antiobesity drugs act by inhibiting noradrenaline or serotonin reuptake. Newer ones have various mechanisms.
Older generation agents:
-Noradrenergic agents (influence appetite center) - Phentermine, Mazindol
-Serotonergic agents (influence satiety center) - Fenfluramine, Dexenfluramine
-Noradrenergic / Serotonergic agents (combined action) - Sibutramine
Newer agents
-Orlistat - Inhibits gastric and pancreatic lipase - digestion and absorption of triglycerides is impaired
-Olestra - Suprose polyester which can replace fat as a cooking medium
-Leptin analogues
-Neuropeptide Y antagonist
-Beta 3 adrenergic agonistsRate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist?
- A.
Montelukast
- B.
Zileuton
- C.
Omalizumab
- D.
Nedocromil
Correct Answer
A. MontelukastExplanation
Montelukast and Zafirlukast are leukotriene antagonists.Rate this question:
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- 14.
All of the following have receptors which are transcription factors, except?
- A.
Insulin
- B.
Estrogen
- C.
Glucocorticoids
- D.
Vitamin D
Correct Answer
A. InsulinExplanation
Insulin receptors are enzymes, not transcription factors.Rate this question:
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- 15.
All are short and rapid acting insulins except
- A.
Lispro
- B.
Aspart
- C.
Glargine
- D.
Glulisine
Correct Answer
C. GlargineExplanation
Rapid acting insulins - Lispro, Aspart, Glulisine
Short acting insulin - Regular insulin
Intermediate acting insulin - NPH
Long acting insulin - Glargine, DetermirRate this question:
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- 16.
True about Octreotide are all except :
- A.
Is active orally
- B.
Supresses growth hormone secretion
- C.
Useful for variceal bleeding
- D.
Useful in secretory diarrhea
Correct Answer
A. Is active orallyExplanation
Octreotide is given IM / IV / subcutaneously.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Acrodynia is associated with:
- A.
Mercury
- B.
Phenolic acid
- C.
Oxalic acid
- D.
Carbolic acid
Correct Answer
A. MercuryExplanation
Acrodynia, also known as Pink's disease is caused by chronic mercury poisoning in children.Rate this question:
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- 18.
All of the following are true about cluster sampling except?
- A.
Samples are similar to those in simple random sampling
- B.
Is a rapid and simple method
- C.
The sample size may vary according to study design
- D.
It is a probability sample
Correct Answer
A. Samples are similar to those in simple random samplingExplanation
In simple random sampling, the samples consist of randomly selected individuals. Whereas in cluster sampling, the samples consist of randomly selected groups.Rate this question:
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- 19.
All of the following are included in physical quality of life index except?
- A.
Infant mortality rate
- B.
Life expectancy at age 1
- C.
Literacy rate
- D.
Per capita income
Correct Answer
D. Per capita incomeExplanation
The physical quality of life index (PQLI) is a measure that combines several indicators to provide an overall assessment of the quality of life in a given country. The PQLI focuses on three main components:Infant mortality rateLife expectancy at age 1Literacy rateOut of the given options, the one that is not included in the physical quality of life index is:D. Per capita incomePer capita income is a measure of the average income per person in a country, and while it can be an indicator of economic well-being, it is not part of the physical quality of life index.Rate this question:
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- 20.
85% of lung cancer among smokers was due to their smoking. This is an example of
- A.
Attributable risk
- B.
Relative risk
- C.
Odds ratio
- D.
Population attributable risk
Correct Answer
A. Attributable riskExplanation
85% of lung cancer among smokers is attributed to smoking.Rate this question:
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- 21.
All of the following statements are true for Herd immunity except:
- A.
Herd structure is constant
- B.
It is mostly due to subclinical infection
- C.
Can be acquired by immunisation
- D.
Spread of epidemic is influenced by it
Correct Answer
A. Herd structure is constantExplanation
Herd structure is not constant.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following vaccine is not included in EPI schedule
- A.
DPT
- B.
MMR
- C.
BCG
- D.
OPV
Correct Answer
B. MMRExplanation
Measles vaccine is a part of EPI schedule, not MMR.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A patient on aspirin, will show the following finding?
- A.
Prolonged BT
- B.
Prolonged PT
- C.
Prolonged APTT
- D.
Prolonged CT
Correct Answer
A. Prolonged BTExplanation
Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent, hence the bleeding time is prolonged.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The following set of finding is seen in DIC:
- A.
Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased thrombin – antithrombin III complexes
- B.
Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
- C.
Increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
- D.
Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets
Correct Answer
D. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced plateletsExplanation
Features of DIC - Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced plateletsRate this question:
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- 25.
Which is not true regarding Bernard soulier syndrome?
- A.
Ristocetin aggregation is normal
- B.
Aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal
- C.
Large platelets
- D.
Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer
A. Ristocetin aggregation is normalExplanation
Bernard Soulier platelets react normally to all stimuli except Ristocetin.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The following is the least useful investigation in multiple myeloma:
- A.
ESR
- B.
X-Ray
- C.
Bone scan
- D.
Bone marrow biopsy
Correct Answer
C. Bone scanExplanation
Osteoblastic activity is suppressed by myeloma cells. (through secretion of cytokines). Hence these site show no increased uptake during bone scan.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The following ECG findings are seen in Hypokalemia:
- A.
Increased PR interval with ST depression
- B.
Increased PR interval with peaked T wave
- C.
Prolonged QT interval with T wave inversion
- D.
Decreased QT interval with ST depression
Correct Answer
A. Increased PR interval with ST depressionExplanation
ECG changes in hypokalemia - ST depression, prolonged PR interval, T inversion / flattening, Prominent U waves, Sinoatrial block (rare)Rate this question:
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- 28.
CCF is associated with Increase in all of the following except:
- A.
Right atrial mean pressure
- B.
Serum sodium
- C.
Serum urea
- D.
Serum norepinephrine
Correct Answer
B. Serum sodiumExplanation
Hyponatremia is seen in CCFRate this question:
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- 29.
A person with mitral regurgitation and atrial fibrillation presents with syncope. On examination the person has a heart rate of 55. What is the most probable cause?
- A.
Digitalis toxicity
- B.
Incomplete heart block
- C.
Stroke
- D.
Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
Correct Answer
A. Digitalis toxicityExplanation
It is probably a case of digitalis toxicity resulting in complete heart block.Rate this question:
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- 30.
60 yr old male undergoes TURP. After 3 days patient develops altered senstiveness and drowsiness. Most probable diagnosis is :
- A.
Hypernatremia
- B.
Hyponatremia
- C.
Stroke
- D.
Meningitis due to spinal anaesthesia
Correct Answer
B. HyponatremiaExplanation
It is a case of TURP syndrome due to entry of irrigation fluid (with low sodium content) into the bloodstream.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Ideal age for orchidopexy in cryptorchidism is
- A.
At 6-10 yrs
- B.
At 1-2 yrs
- C.
At puberty
- D.
< 1 yr of age
Correct Answer
D. < 1 yr of ageExplanation
Orchidopexy in a case of cryptorchidism should be done before the age of 1 year.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Metabolic abnomiality seen in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is
- A.
Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
- B.
Hyperchloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
- C.
Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
- D.
Hyperchloremic hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer
A. Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosisExplanation
CHPS results in loss of acidic gastric fluid. Hence the metabolic abnormality is Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosisRate this question:
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- 33.
Most common complication after ERCP is :
- A.
Acute pancreatitis
- B.
Acute cholangitis
- C.
Acute cholecystitis
- D.
Duodenal perforation
Correct Answer
A. Acute pancreatitisExplanation
Acute pancreatitis is the most common complication after ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography). During an ERCP procedure, the pancreas can become inflamed due to the insertion of instruments and contrast dye, leading to acute pancreatitis. This can cause symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Prompt medical intervention is required to manage this complication.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which drug is given to prevent HIV transmission from mother to child
- A.
Nevirapine
- B.
Lamivudine
- C.
Stavudine
- D.
Abacavir
Correct Answer
A. NevirapineExplanation
Previously zidovudine was given. Presently nevirapine is used as it is cheaper and more effective.Rate this question:
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- 35.
After coming head of breech will have difficulty in delivery in all of the following conditions except
- A.
Hydrocephalus
- B.
Placenta previa
- C.
Incomplete dilatation of cervix
- D.
Extension of head
Correct Answer
B. Placenta previaExplanation
Difficulty in delivery of aftercoming head in case of breech delivery can be due to :
-Contracted pelvis
-Extension of head
-Hydrocephalus
-Rigid perineumRate this question:
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- 36.
The most common congenital anomaly in baby born to Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM) mother is :
- A.
Neural tube defect
- B.
Cardiovascular anomalies
- C.
G.l.T anomalies
- D.
Pulmonary anomalies
Correct Answer
B. Cardiovascular anomaliesExplanation
Most common congenital anomaly - Cardiovascular
Most specific - Caudal regression syndromeRate this question:
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- 37.
Amniotic fluid contains acetyl cholinesterase enzyme. What is the diagnosis ?
- A.
Open spina bifida
- B.
Gastrochisis
- C.
Omphalocele
- D.
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Correct Answer
A. Open spina bifidaExplanation
The presence of acetyl cholinesterase enzyme in the amniotic fluid suggests a diagnosis of open spina bifida. Open spina bifida is a neural tube defect where the spinal column does not close completely during fetal development. The enzyme acetyl cholinesterase is found in high levels in the spinal cord, and its presence in the amniotic fluid indicates a leakage of spinal fluid, which is characteristic of open spina bifida.Rate this question:
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- 38.
All of the following are good prognostic factors in childhood ALL except?
- A.
Hyperdiploidy
- B.
Female sex
- C.
Pre B cell ALL
- D.
T(12:21) translocation
Correct Answer
C. Pre B cell ALLExplanation
Pre B cell ALL often has a bad prognosis.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A baby has recently developed mouthing, but has not developed stranger anxiety, likes and dislikes for food. What is the most appropriate age for this baby?
- A.
3 months
- B.
5 months
- C.
7 months
- D.
9 months
Correct Answer
B. 5 monthsExplanation
Mouthing appears at 4 months. Stranger anxiety appears at 7 months. Hence the developmental age is between 4 and 7 months. Among the options given, 5 months fits into this period.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Myopathy is seen in all except
- A.
X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets
- B.
Oncogenic osteomalacia
- C.
Nutritional osteomalacia
- D.
Cushing syndrome
Correct Answer
A. X-linked hypopHospHatemic ricketsExplanation
Myopathy refers to muscle weakness or dysfunction. X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets is a genetic disorder that affects the bones and teeth, causing softening and weakness. However, it does not typically cause myopathy. On the other hand, oncogenic osteomalacia and nutritional osteomalacia are both conditions that result in bone softening and can cause myopathy. Cushing syndrome, which is caused by excessive cortisol production, can also lead to muscle weakness and myopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Reflex which is not present in child at birth is
- A.
Moro’s reflex
- B.
Symmetric tonic neck reflex
- C.
Crossed extensor reflex
- D.
Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
Correct Answer
B. Symmetric tonic neck reflexExplanation
Symmetric tonic neck reflex is present in an infant between 2 and 12 months of age. It is not present at birth.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Tube cast is applied in fracture of?
- A.
Shoulder
- B.
Hip
- C.
Pelvis
- D.
Knee
Correct Answer
D. KneeExplanation
Tube cast (cylinder cast) is applied for knee fractures.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which is not a deep heat therapy?
- A.
Short wave diathermy
- B.
Infrared therapy
- C.
Ultrasound therapy
- D.
Interferential therapy
Correct Answer
B. Infrared therapyExplanation
Infrared therapy is a surface heat therapy.Rate this question:
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- 44.
7 year old child presents with a lesion in upper tibia. X-ray shows radiolucent area with Codman’s triangle and Sunray appearance. Diagnosis is :
- A.
Ewing’s sarcoma
- B.
Osteosarcoma
- C.
Osteoid osteoma
- D.
Chondrosarcoma
Correct Answer
B. OsteosarcomaExplanation
Codman’s triangle and Sunray appearance are seen in osteosarcoma.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of the endophthalmitis in cataract surgery?
- A.
Preoperative prepartion with povidone iodine
- B.
One week antibiotic therapy prior to sugery
- C.
Trimming of eyelashes
- D.
Use of intravitreal antibiotics
Correct Answer
A. Preoperative prepartion with povidone iodineExplanation
Most important source of infection is the patient’s own lid and conjunctival flora. Topical povidone iodine helps prevent this.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Rhinolalia clausa is associated with all of the following except?
- A.
Allergic rhinitis
- B.
Palatal paralysis
- C.
Adenoids
- D.
Nasal polyps
Correct Answer
B. Palatal paralysisExplanation
Palatal paralysis causes rhinolalia apertaRate this question:
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- 47.
Xray based question (As per new MCI Norms) - What is the implant that is visualised in the chest X-ray?
- A.
Prosthetic Mitral valve
- B.
Prosthetic Aortic Valve
- C.
Device closure of ASD
- D.
Device closure of PDA
Correct Answer
D. Device closure of PDAExplanation
Intracardiac implants can be identified in an xray based on the position and the morphology of the implant.
Prosthetic Mitral valve - Ball and cage (with 4 struts) is visualised, directed towards apex. Located at the region of mitral valve
Prosthetic aortic valve - Ball and cage (with 3 struts) is visualised, directed upwards, located at region of aortic valve.
Device closure of ASD - Dumb bell shaped, located at site of interatrial septum
Device closure of PDA - Ring shaped, located between aorta and pulmonary arteryRate this question:
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- 48.
Xray based question (As per new MCI Norms) - An x-ray was taken to assess the reduction obtained after internal fixation of both bone fracture of leg. What is the type of internal fixation used?
- A.
K nail
- B.
K wire
- C.
Interlocking nail
- D.
DCP
Correct Answer
C. Interlocking nailExplanation
K nail is a clover shaped ( in cross section ) intramedullary rod used for internal fixation of long bone fractures. K wire is a thin wire used in fixing bone fragments and for skeletal traction. Interlocking nails (shown here) are also used in long bone fractures as intramedullary fixation. But they have screws at the ends to hold them in position (unlike k nail, which does not have any screws). DCP (Dynamic compression plates) are a type of plate fixation. They are seen outside the medullary cavity.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery?
- A.
Sodium nitroprusside
- B.
Hydralazine
- C.
Mephentermine
- D.
Esmolol
Correct Answer
C. MepHentermineExplanation
Mephentermine is acts as an agonist on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. This causes increased in cardiac output and blood pressure. Hence it cannot be used to induce hypotension.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of postoperative shivering?
- A.
Thiopentone
- B.
Suxamethonium
- C.
Atropine
- D.
Pethidine
Correct Answer
D. PethidineExplanation
Management of postoperative shivering:
Drug of choice – Tramadol
Alternate drugs – pethidine, pentazocine
Supportive treatment – oxygen inhalation (there is increased oxygen consumption during shivering)Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Jun 21, 2024Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 10, 2011Quiz Created by
Pgblazer
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