1.
Which of the following groupings of linked domains would be a tree?
Correct Answer
B. Mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com
Explanation
A tree is a hierarchical structure where each node has only one parent, except for the root node which has no parent. In the given options, the grouping "mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com" forms a tree because "newsite.mycorp.com" is a subdomain of "mycorp.com". This means that "mycorp.com" is the parent node and "newsite.mycorp.com" is the child node. Since all nodes have only one parent, this grouping satisfies the definition of a tree.
2.
A user granted Domain Administrator access over the domain dallas.mycorp.com may administer which of the following groupings?
Correct Answer
B. Dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain
Explanation
The user granted Domain Administrator access over the domain dallas.mycorp.com may administer the grouping of dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain. This means that the user has administrative control over the dallas.mycorp.com subdomain within the larger mycorp.com domain. They would not have administrative control over other subdomains like austin.mycorp.com or any specific organizational units within the dallas.mycorp.com domain.
3.
Which of the following commands will force an update of group policy of computers on the domain Airtel?
Correct Answer
D. GPUPDATE /force
Explanation
The correct answer is GPUPDATE /force. This command is used to force an immediate update of group policy settings on the computers in the domain Airtel. The /force parameter ensures that all policies are reapplied, even if there are no changes detected. This command is useful when there is a need to immediately apply new or updated group policy settings to the computers in the domain.
4.
Groups are considered an organizing component of Active Directory.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Groups are indeed an organizing component of Active Directory. They are used to efficiently manage and control access to resources within the network by grouping users, computers, and other objects together based on common attributes or requirements.
5.
You run the Add Roles Wizard in Server Manager to add the AD DS role. After the wizard is finished, you check the Administrative Tools folder but don't find any of the Active Directory management tools. What should you do?
Correct Answer
B. Run Dcpromo.exe
Explanation
After running the Add Roles Wizard in Server Manager to add the AD DS role, if the Active Directory management tools are not found in the Administrative Tools folder, the correct action to take is to run Dcpromo.exe. This command is used to promote a server to a domain controller and will ensure that the necessary Active Directory management tools are installed and available.
6.
Which of the following is a container object?
Correct Answer
A. Domain & OU
Explanation
Domain & OU stands for Domain and Organizational Unit, which are both container objects in a network environment. A domain is a logical group of network resources, such as computers, users, and groups, that share a common directory database. An Organizational Unit (OU) is a container within a domain that can hold users, groups, computers, and other OUs. Both Domain and OU are used to organize and manage network resources, making them container objects.
7.
To which of the following can a GPO be linked?
Correct Answer
B. Sites
Explanation
A Group Policy Object (GPO) can be linked to Sites. Sites in Active Directory represent physical locations and are used to manage network traffic and replication. By linking a GPO to a site, the policies defined in the GPO can be applied to all the objects (such as users and computers) within that site, ensuring consistent configuration and settings across the network.
8.
If a policy is defined in a GPO linked to a domain, and that policy is defined with a different setting in a GPO linked to an OU, which is true by default?
Correct Answer
A. The policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied
Explanation
When a policy is defined in a GPO linked to a domain and the same policy is defined with a different setting in a GPO linked to an OU, the policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied by default. This means that the policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU takes precedence over the one linked to the domain.
9.
The policy in both GPOs defaults to Not Defined so that no conflict exists ?
Correct Answer
B. Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it
10.
At about what interval are GPOs updated on domain controllers?
Correct Answer
B. 15 minutes
Explanation
GPOs (Group Policy Objects) are updated on domain controllers at approximately 15-minute intervals. This means that any changes made to GPOs will be applied to the domain controllers and subsequently to the client computers within the domain within this time frame. This periodic update ensures that the most recent policies are enforced across the network, allowing administrators to make necessary changes and have them implemented in a timely manner.
11.
When configuring GPOs, which node contains the majority of account policies?
Correct Answer
A. Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node
Explanation
The majority of account policies are contained in the Computer Configuration node, specifically within the Windows Settings folder and the Security Settings node. This is where administrators can configure various security-related settings and policies for computer accounts in the domain. The Administrative Templates folder and the Windows Components node do not specifically focus on account policies, while the User Configuration node is primarily used for configuring policies related to user accounts.
12.
What are the two default GPOs that are created when Active Directory is installed?
Correct Answer
D. Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controllers Policy
Explanation
When Active Directory is installed, two default Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are created. The first is the Default Domain Policy, which is linked to the entire domain and applies to all users and computers within the domain. The second is the Default Domain Controllers Policy, which is linked specifically to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU) and applies to all domain controllers in the domain. These default GPOs provide a baseline configuration for the domain and domain controllers, allowing administrators to define and enforce specific settings and restrictions.
13.
Under what circumstances are the built-in user accounts no longer local user accounts?
Correct Answer
B. After installing Active Directory
Explanation
After installing Active Directory, the built-in user accounts are no longer local user accounts. Active Directory is a directory service that centralizes the management of user accounts, groups, and resources in a network environment. When Active Directory is installed, the built-in user accounts become part of the domain and are managed centrally by Active Directory instead of being local to a specific computer.
14.
After receiving several support calls, you have decided to prevent users of the DomA-Group from being able to access the Control Panel regardless of what machine they log into. Where would you configure this setting?
Correct Answer
D. The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder
Explanation
In order to prevent users of the DomA-Group from accessing the Control Panel, you would need to configure this setting in the User Configuration node, specifically in the Administrative Templates folder. This folder contains various policy settings that can be applied to user accounts. By configuring the appropriate policy setting within this folder, you can restrict access to the Control Panel for users in the DomA-Group, regardless of the machine they log into.
15.
An Active Directory container used to organize a network’s users and resources into logical administrative units ?
Correct Answer
A. Organizational Units
Explanation
Organizational Units are a type of Active Directory container that is used to organize a network's users and resources into logical administrative units. This helps in managing and delegating administrative tasks more efficiently. By organizing users and resources into Organizational Units, administrators can apply policies, permissions, and settings to specific groups of users or resources. This allows for better control and management of the network, making it easier to assign and revoke access rights, apply group policies, and streamline administrative tasks.
16.
The main purpose of Active Directory is to ________. ?
Correct Answer
A. Provide authentication and authorization to users and computers
Explanation
Active Directory is a directory service that provides authentication and authorization to users and computers. It allows administrators to control access to resources, such as files and printers, by verifying the identity of users and granting them appropriate permissions. Active Directory also enables users to organize their file systems into a cohesive and high-performance directory structure, but its main purpose is to provide authentication and authorization.
17.
What is the address given to a computer connected to a network called?
Correct Answer
B. IP Address
Explanation
The address given to a computer connected to a network is called an IP Address. An IP address is a unique string of numbers separated by periods or colons that identifies each computer using the Internet Protocol to communicate over a network. This address allows networked devices to find and communicate with each other effectively.
18.
The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is called:
Correct Answer
B. Firmware
Explanation
Firmware refers to a specific type of software that is embedded into hardware devices, typically onto read-only memory (ROM) chips. It provides the necessary instructions for the device to operate and interact with other hardware components. Firmware is often tailored to the specific hardware it controls and is responsible for managing low-level functions and operations of the device.
19.
A microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit form a:
Correct Answer
C. Microcomputer
Explanation
A microcomputer is formed by combining a microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit. The microprocessor unit is responsible for executing instructions, the memory unit stores data and instructions, and the input/output unit allows the microcomputer to interact with external devices. Therefore, the combination of these three units forms a microcomputer.
20.
Index hole is related to?
Correct Answer
B. Floppy disk
Explanation
The index hole is a feature found in floppy disks. It is a small hole located near the center of the disk. When the disk is inserted into a floppy disk drive, a sensor detects the presence or absence of the index hole as the disk rotates. This allows the drive to accurately determine the starting point of each track on the disk. The index hole is crucial for the proper functioning of floppy disks, as it helps in reading and writing data to the correct locations on the disk.
21.
Secondry memory is also know as?
Correct Answer
A. Auxiliary memory
Explanation
Secondary memory refers to the storage devices that are external to the computer's main memory (RAM) and are used to store data for long-term use. It is also known as auxiliary memory because it provides additional storage capacity to the computer system. This includes devices like hard disk drives, solid-state drives, optical drives, and magnetic tapes. Primary memory, on the other hand, refers to the computer's main memory where data is directly accessed by the CPU. Virtual memory is a memory management technique that uses a combination of primary memory and secondary memory to create an illusion of having more RAM than is physically available. Therefore, the correct answer is auxiliary memory.
22.
It holds the address of the active memory?
Correct Answer
A. MAR
Explanation
The Memory Address Register (MAR) holds the address of the active memory location. It is responsible for storing the address of the data that needs to be accessed or modified in the memory. The MAR is used in conjunction with the Memory Buffer Register (MBR) to read or write data from or to the memory. The Program Counter (PC) holds the address of the next instruction to be executed, while the Address Register (AR) is a general-purpose register used to store memory addresses temporarily.
23.
In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed ?
Correct Answer
C. Both sequentially and parallel
Explanation
In the latest generation computers, the instructions are executed both sequentially and in parallel. This means that some instructions are executed one after the other, in a sequential manner, while others are executed simultaneously, in parallel. This allows for better utilization of the computer's resources and improves overall performance. By combining sequential and parallel execution, modern computers can handle complex tasks more efficiently and effectively.
24.
Which printer is very commonly used for desktop publishing?
Correct Answer
A. Laser printer
Explanation
The laser printer is commonly used for desktop publishing because it produces high-quality prints with sharp text and graphics. It uses a laser beam to create an electrostatic image on a drum, which is then transferred onto paper using toner. This technology allows for precise and detailed printing, making it ideal for professional documents and graphic design projects. Inkjet printers, daisywheel printers, and dot matrix printers are also used for printing, but they are not as commonly used for desktop publishing due to their lower print quality and speed.
25.
Which of the following will happen when data is entered into a memory location?
Correct Answer
C. It will erase the previous content
Explanation
When data is entered into a memory location, it will erase the previous content. This means that any existing data in that memory location will be overwritten or replaced by the new data that is being entered.
26.
____ is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network.
Correct Answer
B. NTP
Explanation
NTP (Network Time Protocol) is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. It allows computers to accurately maintain the same time by exchanging time information between them. This is particularly important in scenarios where accurate timekeeping is crucial, such as in financial transactions, network logging, or distributed systems. NTP achieves synchronization by utilizing a hierarchical system of time servers, where lower-level servers synchronize with higher-level ones, ultimately obtaining time from highly accurate reference clocks.
27.
A ____ is a repeater with more than one output port
Correct Answer
C. hub
Explanation
A hub is a repeater with more than one output port. A hub is a networking device that connects multiple devices in a network, and it broadcasts the incoming data to all connected devices. It does not perform any filtering or routing of data, and all devices connected to a hub share the same bandwidth. Therefore, a hub is the correct answer as it fits the description of a repeater with multiple output ports.
28.
____ are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks.
Correct Answer
C. Gateways
Explanation
Gateways are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks. Unlike routers and switches, which primarily connect similar networks, gateways are specifically designed to bridge the gap between different types of networks. They act as intermediaries, translating data between the two networks and enabling communication between them. Gateways are essential for connecting networks that use different protocols or technologies, allowing them to exchange information and function seamlessly together.
29.
A physical topology ____.
Correct Answer
C. Specifies connectivity methods
Explanation
A physical topology specifies the physical layout of devices and the connectivity methods used to interconnect them within a network. It describes how devices are physically connected to each other, such as through cables, wires, or wireless connections. Examples of physical topologies include bus, star, ring, mesh, and hybrid topologies. Physical topologies do not typically specify device types, network scope, or addressing schemes, as those aspects are usually covered by other network specifications or documentation.
30.
The most common logical topologies are ____ and ring. (Select two)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Bus
B. Star
Explanation
Logical topologies define how data is transmitted between nodes in a network regardless of their physical interconnection. In a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single shared communication line, while in a star topology, each device is connected directly to a central hub or switch. These two logical topologies are widely used in network designs due to their simplicity and efficiency.
31.
NICs contain a(n) ____ which transmits and receives data signals.
Correct Answer
C. Data transceiver
Explanation
NICs (Network Interface Cards) are hardware devices that enable computers to connect to a network. They contain a data transceiver, which is responsible for transmitting and receiving data signals. The data transceiver allows the NIC to send and receive data packets over the network, enabling communication between the computer and other devices on the network. This functionality is essential for networking and data transfer purposes.
32.
TCP is a(n)___ sub protocol.
Correct Answer
C. Connection-oriented
Explanation
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a connection-oriented sub protocol. This means that it establishes a reliable and ordered connection between two devices before transmitting data. TCP ensures that all packets are received in the correct order and handles any lost or corrupted packets by retransmitting them. This connection-oriented nature of TCP makes it suitable for applications that require a guaranteed delivery of data, such as web browsing, file transfer, and email communication.
33.
Traditional switches operate at the ____ layer of the OSI model.
Correct Answer
B. Data link
Explanation
Traditional switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model. The data link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between network devices over a local area network (LAN). Switches use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a LAN, making decisions based on the destination MAC address. By operating at the data link layer, switches can efficiently and accurately direct network traffic within a LAN, improving network performance and reducing collisions.
34.
The sub protocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork - that is, to traverse more than one LAN segment and more than one type of network throughout a router is ____
Correct Answer
D. IP
Explanation
The correct answer is IP. IP (Internet Protocol) is the sub protocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork by allowing data packets to traverse multiple LAN segments and different types of networks through routers. TCP/IP uses IP to route the packets from the source to the destination by assigning unique IP addresses to each device on the network. IP ensures that the packets are delivered to the correct destination by using routing tables and addressing schemes.
35.
By far, the most popular expansion board NIC today is one that uses a(n) ____ bus.
Correct Answer
B. PCIe
Explanation
The correct answer is PCIe. PCIe stands for Peripheral Component Interconnect Express and is the most popular expansion board NIC (Network Interface Card) bus today. PCIe provides high-speed data transfer rates and is widely used in modern computer systems for connecting various peripherals, including network cards.
36.
To eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm, switches and bridges implement the ____.
Correct Answer
B. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
Explanation
To eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm, switches and bridges implement the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). STP is a network protocol that prevents loops in Ethernet networks by creating a loop-free logical topology. It achieves this by selecting a root bridge and then determining the best path from each bridge to the root bridge. Any redundant paths are blocked, ensuring that there are no loops in the network. This prevents broadcast storms, which can occur when broadcast or multicast packets are continuously forwarded in a loop, causing network congestion and degradation.
37.
In IPv4 addressing, a node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class ____ network.
Correct Answer
B. B
Explanation
A node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class B network. This is because in IPv4 addressing, the first octet of the IP address determines the class of the network. Class B networks have a range of IP addresses from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255, and the given IP address falls within this range.
38.
The default subnet mask for a Class B network is ____.
Correct Answer
B. 255.255.0.0
Explanation
The default subnet mask for a Class B network is 255.255.0.0. In Class B networks, the first two octets are used to identify the network, while the last two octets are used to identify the hosts within the network. The subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 allows for a larger number of hosts compared to the other options given.
39.
On an Ethenet network, a(n) ____ is the portion of a network in which collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time.
Correct Answer
A. Collision domain
Explanation
A collision domain refers to the portion of an Ethernet network where collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time. In other words, it is the area where network devices share the same network segment and can potentially interfere with each other's transmissions. This can happen when multiple devices try to send data simultaneously, resulting in collisions and degraded network performance.
40.
A ____ is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network.
Correct Answer
A. Switch
Explanation
A switch is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network. It operates at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data frames to their intended destinations within a local area network (LAN). Switches are commonly used in Ethernet networks to create multiple collision domains, allowing for efficient and simultaneous communication between devices.
41.
In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique ____ number
Correct Answer
B. 32-bit
Explanation
In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique 32-bit number. This means that an IPv4 address is composed of 32 binary digits, which are divided into four groups of 8 bits each, separated by periods. The 32-bit address allows for a total of approximately 4.3 billion unique IP addresses, which are used to identify devices on a network.
42.
From what location are the 1st computer instructions available on boot up?
Correct Answer
A. ROM BIOS
Explanation
The 1st computer instructions are available on boot up from ROM BIOS. ROM BIOS stands for Read-Only Memory Basic Input/Output System, which is a firmware that is permanently stored on a chip on the computer's motherboard. It contains the initial instructions that are necessary for the computer to start up and perform basic functions, such as initializing hardware and loading the operating system.
43.
What could cause a fixed disk error.
Correct Answer
D. Incorrect CMOS settings
Explanation
Incorrect CMOS settings can cause a fixed disk error. The CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) is responsible for storing the computer's BIOS settings, including the configuration of hardware devices such as the hard disk. If the settings related to the fixed disk are incorrect or misconfigured in the CMOS, it can lead to a fixed disk error. This error can prevent the computer from recognizing or accessing the hard disk properly, resulting in data loss or system malfunction. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the CMOS settings are correctly configured to avoid fixed disk errors.
44.
With respect to a network interface card, the term 10/100 refers to
Correct Answer
C. Megabits per seconds
Explanation
The term 10/100 in relation to a network interface card refers to the maximum data transfer speed it can handle. It indicates that the card is capable of supporting both 10 Mbps (megabits per second) and 100 Mbps speeds. This means that the card can operate at either of these speeds depending on the capabilities of the network it is connected to.
45.
Which Motherboard form factor uses one 20 pin connector
Correct Answer
A. ATX
Explanation
ATX is the correct answer because it is a motherboard form factor that uses one 20 pin connector. AT and BABY AT are older form factors that use different connectors, so they are not the correct answer. "All of the above" is also not the correct answer because it includes AT and BABY AT, which do not use a 20 pin connector.
46.
A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into:
Correct Answer
B. Sectors
Explanation
A hard disk is divided into tracks, which are concentric circles on the disk. Each track is further subdivided into sectors, which are pie-shaped sections on the track. Sectors are the smallest unit of storage on a hard disk and are used to store data. Clusters, on the other hand, are groups of sectors and are used by the file system to manage the allocation of data. Vectors are not related to the division of a hard disk. Heads, on the other hand, are the components of a hard disk that read and write data to the disk's surface.
47.
The 34-pin connection on an I/O card is for?
Correct Answer
A. Floppy drive
Explanation
The 34-pin connection on an I/O card is for a floppy drive. Floppy drives use a 34-pin connector to connect to the I/O card, allowing data transfer between the drive and the computer. This connection was commonly used in older computer systems before the introduction of USB and other storage options. SCSI drives, IDE drives, and Zip drives typically use different types of connectors for connection to the I/O card.
48.
Which standard govern parallel communications?
Correct Answer
D. IEEE 1284
Explanation
IEEE 1284 is the correct answer because it is the standard that governs parallel communications. This standard specifies the electrical and mechanical interfaces for parallel communications between computers and peripheral devices, such as printers. It defines the signaling and data transfer protocols, as well as the physical connectors and cables used for parallel communication. RS232, RS-232a, and CAT 5 are not relevant to parallel communications and do not govern this type of communication.
49.
Resistance is measured in ?
Correct Answer
D. Ohms
Explanation
Resistance is measured in ohms. Ohms is the unit of electrical resistance, which is the opposition to the flow of electric current. It is named after the German physicist Georg Simon Ohm. Resistance can be defined as the ratio of voltage to current in a circuit, and it determines how much current will flow through a given conductor for a given voltage. Therefore, ohms is the correct unit to measure resistance.
50.
Which provides the fastest access to large video files?
Correct Answer
C. SCSI hard drives
Explanation
SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) hard drives provide the fastest access to large video files compared to the other options listed. SCSI technology allows for faster data transfer rates and lower latency, making it ideal for handling large files such as videos. Optical drives, IDE hard drives, and EIDE hard drives are relatively slower in terms of data transfer rates and access times compared to SCSI drives, which makes SCSI the preferred choice for accessing large video files quickly.